Search Results

Search found 40386 results on 1616 pages for 'object design'.

Page 701/1616 | < Previous Page | 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708  | Next Page >

  • Should we point to an NSManagedObject entity with weak instead of strong pointer?

    - by Jim Thio
    I think because NSManagedObject is managed by the managedObject context the pointer should be weak. Yet it often goes back to 0 in my cases. for (CategoryNearby * CN in sorted) { //[arrayOfItems addObject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ - %d",CN.name,[CN.order intValue]]]; NearbyShortcutTVC * tvc=[[NearbyShortcutTVC alloc]init]; tvc.categoryNearby =CN; // tvc.titleString=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",CN.name]; // tvc.displayed=CN.displayed; [arrayOfItemsLocal addObject:tvc]; //CN PO(tvc); PO(tvc.categoryNearby); while (false); } self.arrayOfItems = arrayOfItemsLocal; PO(self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems); [self.tableViewa reloadData]; ... Yet somewhere down the line: tvc.categoryNearby becomes nil. I do not know how or when or where it become nil. How do I debug this? Or should the reference be strong instead? This is the interface of NearbyShortcutTVC by the way @interface NearbyShortcutTVC : BGBaseTableViewCell{ } @property (weak, nonatomic) CategoryNearby * categoryNearby; @end To make sure that we're talking about the same object I print all the memory addresses of the NSArray They're both the exact same object. But somehow the categoryNearby property of the object is magically set to null somewhere. self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 ) self.categoriesNearbyInArrayOfItems: ( 0x883bfe0, 0x8b6d420, 0x8b6f9f0, 0x8b71de0, 0xb073f90, 0xb061a10, 0xb06a880, 0x8b74940, 0x8b77110, 0x8b794e0, 0x8b7bf40, 0x8b7cef0, 0x8b7f4b0, 0x8b81a30, 0x88622d0, 0x8864e60, 0xb05c9a0 )

    Read the article

  • SpringFramework3.0: How to create interceptors that only apply to requests that map to certain contr

    - by Fusion2004
    In it's simplest form, I want an interceptor that checks session data to see if a user is logged in, and if not redirects them to the login page. Obviously, I wouldn't want this interceptor to be used on say the welcome page or the login page itself. I've seen a design that uses a listing of every url to one of two interceptors, one doing nothing and the other being the actual interceptor you want implemented, but this design seems very clunky and limits the ease of extensibility of the application. It makes sense to me that there should be an annotation-based way of using interceptors, but this doesn't seem to exist. My friend has the idea of actually modifying the handler class so that during each request it checks the Controller it is mapping the request to for a new annotation we would create (ex @Interceptor("loginInterceptor") ). A major point of my thinking is the extensibility, because I'd like to later implement similar interceptors for role-based authentication and/or administration authentication. Does it sound like my friend's approach would work for this? Or what is a proper way of going about doing this?

    Read the article

  • UpdatePanel reloads the whole page

    - by Emil D
    Hi.I'm building an asp.net cutom control inside which I have two dropdownlists: companyIdSelection and productFamilySelection.I populate the companyIdSelection at Page_Load and in order to populate the productFamilySelection depending on the selected item in companyIdSelection.I'm using UpdatePanels to achieve this, but for some reason every time I update companyIdSelection Page_Load is being called ( which as far as I know should happen only when the entire page is reloaded ), the list is being reloaded again and the item the user selected is lost( the selected item is always the top one ).Here's the code <asp:UpdatePanel ID="updateFamilies" runat="server" UpdateMode="Always"> <ContentTemplate> Company ID:<br> <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="companyIdSelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br></br> Product Family: <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="productFamilySelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="productFamilySelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.companyIdSelection.DataSource = companyIds(); //companyIds returns the object containing the initial data items this.companyIdSelection.DataBind(); } protected void companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Page_Load is called again for some reason before this method is called, so it // resets the companyIdSelection EngDbService s = new EngDbService(); productFamilySelection.DataSource = s.getProductFamilies(companyIdSelection.Text); productFamilySelection.DataBind(); } Also, I tried setting the UpdateMode of the UpdatePanel to "Conditional" and adding an asyncpostback trigger but the result was the same. What am I doing wrong? PS: I fixed the updating problem, by using Page.IsPostBack in the Page_Load method, but I would still want to avoid a full postback if possible

    Read the article

  • How can manage a FIFO-queue in an database with SQL?

    - by Jonas
    I have two tables in my database, one for In and one for Out. They have two columns, Quantity and Price. How can I write a SQL-query that selects the correct price? In example: If I have 3 items in for 75 and then 3 items in for 80. Then I have two out for 75, and the third out should be for 75 (X) and the fourth out should be for 80 (Y). How can I write the price query for X and Y? They should use the price from the third and forth row. In example, is there any way to SELECT the third row in the In-table? I can not use auto_increment as identifier for i.e. "third" row, because the tables will contain post for other items too. The rows will not be deleted, they will be saved for accountability reasons. SELECT Price FROM In WHERE ...? NEW database design: +----+ | In | +----+------+-------+ | Supply_ID | Price | +-----------+-------+ | 1 | 75 | | 1 | 75 | | 1 | 75 | | 2 | 80 | | 2 | 80 | +-----------+-------+ +-----+ | Out | +-----+-------+-------+ | Delivery_ID | Price | +-------------+-------+ | 1 | 75 | | 1 | 75 | | 2 | X | <- ? | 3 | Y | <- ? +-------------+-------+ OLD database design: +----+ | In | +----+------+----------+-------+ | Supply_ID | Quantity | Price | +-----------+----------+-------+ | 1 | 3 | 75 | | 2 | 3 | 80 | +-----------+----------+-------+ +-----+ | Out | +-----+-------+----------+-------+ | Delivery_ID | Quantity | Price | +-------------+----------+-------+ | 1 | 2 | 75 | | 2 | 1 | X | <- ? | 3 | 1 | Y | <- ? +-------------+----------+-------+

    Read the article

  • List of Objects to be used on ascx view with Inherits data already loaded MVC...

    - by user54197
    I have an object list being loded from a database to a drop down list. The Model loads the data to the Controller. The aspx view includes an ascx view. The ascx view already inherits data from another Project. I cannot set my List object in the ascx page. Can this be done? Model ... string List = dr["example"].ToString().Trim(); int indicator = dr["ex"].ToString().Trim(); LossCauseList.Add(new LossCauses(indicator, List)); ... Controller LossCauses test = new LossCauses(); test.GetLossCauses(LossType); TempData["Select"] = test.LossCauseList; return View(myData); Partial View ... <select id="SelectedProperty"> <% List<string> selectProperty = new List<string>(); selectProperty = TempData["Select"] as List<string>; foreach(var item in selectProperty) { %> <option><%=item.ToString() %></option> <% } %> </select> ... Partial view's List should be an actual LossCauses object. HELP!!!

    Read the article

  • How does Crystal Reports Runtime Licensing work?

    - by GluedHands
    I am designing an application in C# and I want to use some Crystal Reports in my application. I am selling this application as freelance to a small business. This is my first program that I have ever sold. I have Crystal Reports 2008 that I am using to design reports with. Do I need to get any kind of licensing from Business Objects to include the Crystal Reports Runtime for report printing in my application? Or do I not need to worry about it as long as I have a licensed version of Crystal Reports 2008 on my development machine. The client would only need be able to print the reports that I have designed on my machine, not design their own. The reports would be saved as a file. The application will load the saved report and print it with provided data. I did see this article which answers the most part of my question. However, it does not include whether it covers loading saved report documents? Any additional related information for a commercial product newbie is gladly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to specify generic method type parameters partly

    - by DNNX
    I have an extension method like below: public static T GetValueAs<T, R>(this IDictionary<string, R> dictionary, string fieldName) where T : R { R value; if (!dictionary.TryGetValue(fieldName, out value)) return default(T); return (T)value; } Currently, I can use it in the following way: var dictionary = new Dictionary<string, object(); //... var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A"); // this may throw ClassCastException - this is expected behavior; It works pretty fine, but the second type parameter is really annoying. Is it possible in C# 4.0 rewrite GetValueAs is such a way that the method will still be applicable to different types of string-keyed dictionaries AND there will be no need to specify second type parameter in the calling code, i.e. use var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int("A"); or at least something like var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, ?("A"); instead of var list = dictionary.GetValueAs<List<int, object("A");

    Read the article

  • Binary serialization and deserialization without creating files (via strings)

    - by the_V
    Hi, I'm trying to create a class that will contain functions for serializing/deserializing objects to/from string. That's what it looks like now: public class BinarySerialization { public static string SerializeObject(object o) { string result = ""; if ((o.GetType().Attributes & TypeAttributes.Serializable) == TypeAttributes.Serializable) { BinaryFormatter f = new BinaryFormatter(); using (MemoryStream str = new MemoryStream()) { f.Serialize(str, o); str.Position = 0; StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(str); result = reader.ReadToEnd(); } } return result; } public static object DeserializeObject(string str) { object result = null; byte[] bytes = System.Text.Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(str); using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(bytes)) { BinaryFormatter bf = new BinaryFormatter(); result = bf.Deserialize(stream); } return result; } } SerializeObject method works well, but DeserializeObject does not. I always get an exception with message "End of Stream encountered before parsing was completed". What may be wrong here?

    Read the article

  • What is better: Developing a Web project in MVC or N -Tier Architecture?

    - by Starx
    I have asked a similar question before and got an convincing answer as well? http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2843311/what-is-difference-of-developing-a-website-in-mvc-and-3-tier-or-n-tier-architectu Due to the conclusion of this question I started developing projects in N-tier Architecture. Just about an hour ago, I asked another question, about what is the best design pattern to create interface? There the most voted answer is suggesting me to use MVC architecture. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2930300/what-is-the-best-desing-pattern-to-design-the-interface-of-an-webpage Now I am confused, First post suggested me that both are similar, just a difference that in N-tier, the tier are physically and logically separated and one layer has access to the one above and below it but not all the layers. I think ASP.net used 3 Tier architecture while developing applications or Web applications. Where as frameworks like Zend, Symphony they use MVC. I just want to stick to a pattern that is best suitable for WebProject Development? May be this is a very silly confusion? But if someone could clear this confusion, that would be very greatful?

    Read the article

  • Java extends classes - Share the extended class fields within the super class.

    - by Bastan
    Straight to the point... I have a class public class P_Gen{ protected String s; protected Object oP_Gen; public P_Gen(String str){ s = str; oP_Gen = new Myclass(this); } } Extended class: public class P extends P_Gen{ protected Object oP; public P(String str){ oP = new aClass(str); super(str); } } MyClass: public class MyClass{ protected Object oMC; public MyClass(P extendedObject){ oMc = oP.getSomething(); } } I came to realize that MyClass can only be instantiated with (P_Gen thisObject) as opposed to (P extendedObject). The situation is that I have code generated a bunch of classes like P_Gen. For each of them I have generated a class P which would contains my P specific custom methods and fields. When I'll regenerate my code in the future, P would not be overwritten as P_Gen would. ** So what happened in my case???!!!... I realized that MyClass would beneficiate from the info stored in P in addition to only P_Gen. Would that possible? I know it's not JAVA "realistic" since another class that extends P_Gen might not have the same fields... BY DESIGN, P_Gen will not be extended by anything but P.... And that's where it kinda make sens. :-) at least in other programming language ;-) In other programming language, it seems like P_Gen.this === P.this, in other word, "this" becomes a combination of P and P_Gen. Is there a way to achieve this knowing that P_Gen won't be extended by anything than P?

    Read the article

  • Code Analysis Warning CA1004 with generic method

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following generic method: // Load an object from the disk public static T DeserializeObject<T>(String filename) where T : class { XmlSerializer xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); try { TextReader textReader = new StreamReader(filename); var result = (T)xmlSerializer.Deserialize(textReader); textReader.Close(); return result; } catch (FileNotFoundException) { } return null; } When I compile I get the following warning: CA1004 : Microsoft.Design : Consider a design where 'MiscHelpers.DeserializeObject(string)' doesn't require explicit type parameter 'T' in any call to it. I have considered this and I don't know a way to do what it requests with out limiting the types that can be deserialized. I freely admit that I might be missing an easy way to fix this. But if I am not, then is my only recourse to suppress this warning? I have a clean project with no warnings or messages. I would like to keep it that way. I guess I am asking "why this is a warning?" At best this seems like it should be a message. And even that seems a bit much. Either it can or it can't be fixed. If it can't then you are just stuck with the warning with no recourse but suppressing it. Am I wrong?

    Read the article

  • Static Analyzer says I have a leak....why?

    - by Walter
    I think this code should be fine but Static Analyzer doesn't like it. I can't figure out why and was hoping that someone could help me understand. The code works fine, the analyzer result just bugs me. Coin *tempCoin = [[Coin alloc] initalize]; self.myCoin = tempCoin; [tempCoin release]; Coin is a generic NSObject and it has an initalize method. myCoin is a property of the current view and is of type Coin. I assume it is telling me I am leaking tempCoin. In my view's .h I have set myCoin as a property with nonatomic,retain. I've tried to autorelease the code as well as this normal release but Static Analyzer continues to say: 1. Method returns an Objective-C object with a +1 retain count (owning reference) 2. Object allocated on line 97 is no longer referenced after this point and has a retain count of +1 (object leaked) Line 97 is the first line that I show.

    Read the article

  • I need help solving a rather weird error in a WCF service.

    - by Moulde
    Hi.. I have a solution that contains three projects. A main project with my MVC app, a silverlight application and a (silverlight enabled) WCF service project. In my silverlight project i have made a Service Reference to my WCF service. And i pretty much got that working. In my WCF service i have a method that returns an Book object, which got some random fields like title, date etc. In the book class, i have a ICollection field that contains a list of events. The book class is generated using entity framework 4.0, and Lazy Loading is enabled. If i in my getBook(int id) method return a book with the events field not initialized, it works as a charm. But if i initialize the field, i'm getting this error. The server did not provide a meaningful reply; this might be caused by a contract mismatch, a premature session shutdown or an internal server error. I have a few ideas why that is happening, and while writing this i just got another one. The wcf service somehow threw away the reference to the event class. That would be very weird since i have a reference between my main mvc app (with the models) and my WCF service. Since i have enabled lazy loading in EF 4.0, i suspect that it may be the thing generating the error. But i'm not sure why that would be, because i'm not in any way accessing that field. I could understand that i may not be able to access the events field after i recive the object in my silverlight application since the connection between the book object and the entity framework is like broken. Did i mention that Lazy Loading is enabled on my EF instance? And there is no inner exception in the thrown exception. Thanks in advance. Malte Baden Hansen

    Read the article

  • Memory usage does not drop -- no leaks though

    - by climbon
    I have UINavigationController controlling several views. One of the views is composed of 20 scrollable pages. Each page is a constructed on the fly from UIViews by adding buttons, labels, UIImageViews etc. When this UIView is popped off the stack, the memory usage remains the same. Hence it keeps rising if I keep pushing/popping that view. In my dealloc, I am traversing through all 20 pages and finding each type of object which got added via addSubview and then do a release on it but instruments says my memory usage never goes down! I am trying to use 'retainCount' to see what is up with objects I am releasing but I am perhaps not getting true picture via retainCount. For some elements retainCount shows 2 so I try to release that object twice but then app crashes. If I release it once it works but memory usage never go down :( Q1: Do I need to traverse find each element and then do a release on that element ? Why can't I release a parent object and all objects contained by it would get released automatically ? Q2: Is retainCount a reliable indicator ?

    Read the article

  • google app engine atomic section???

    - by bokertov
    hi, Say you retrieve a set of records from the datastore (something like: select * from MyClass where reserved='false'). how do i ensure that another user doesn't set the reserved is still false? I've looked in the Transaction documentation and got shocked from google's solution which is to catch the exception and retry in a loop. Any solution that I'm missing - it's hard to believe that there's no way to have an atomic operation in this environment. (btw - i could use 'syncronize' inside the servlet but i think it's not valid as there's no way to ensure that there's only one instance of the servlet object, isn't it? same applies to static variable solution) Any idea on how to solve??? (here's the google solution: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html#Entity_Groups look at: Key k = KeyFactory.createKey("Employee", "k12345"); Employee e = pm.getObjectById(Employee.class, k); e.counter += 1; pm.makePersistent(e); This requires a transaction because the value may be updated by another user after this code fetches the object, but before it saves the modified object. Without a transaction, the user's request will use the value of counter prior to the other user's update, and the save will overwrite the new value. With a transaction, the application is told about the other user's update. If the entity is updated during the transaction, then the transaction fails with an exception. The application can repeat the transaction to use the new data. THANKS!

    Read the article

  • .NET framework execution aborted while executing CLR stored procedure?

    - by Sean Ochoa
    I constructed a stored procedure that does the equivalent of FOR XML AUTO in SQL Server 2008. Now that I'm testing it, it gives me a really unhelpful error message. What does this error mean? Msg 10329, Level 16, State 49, Procedure ForXML, Line 0 .NET Framework execution was aborted. System.Threading.ThreadAbortException: Thread was being aborted. System.Threading.ThreadAbortException: at System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.PtrToStringUni(IntPtr ptr, Int32 len) at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.CXVariantBase.WSTRToString() at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.SqlWSTRLimitedBuffer.GetString(SmiEventSink sink) at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.RowData.GetString(SmiEventSink sink, Int32 i) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Server.ValueUtilsSmi.GetValue(SmiEventSink_Default sink, ITypedGettersV3 getters, Int32 ordinal, SmiMetaData metaData, SmiContext context) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Server.ValueUtilsSmi.GetValue200(SmiEventSink_Default sink, SmiTypedGetterSetter getters, Int32 ordinal, SmiMetaData metaData, SmiContext context) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReaderSmi.GetValue(Int32 ordinal) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReaderSmi.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DataReaderContainer.CommonLanguageSubsetDataReader.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.SchemaMapping.LoadDataRow() at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillLoadDataRow(SchemaMapping mapping) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillFromReader(DataSet dataset, DataTable datatable, String srcTable, DataReaderContainer dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.Fill(DataTable[] dataTables, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillInternal(DataSet dataset, DataTable[] datatables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable[] dataTables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable dataTable) at ForXML.GetXML...

    Read the article

  • Flex Tree Properties, Null Reference?

    - by mvrak
    I am pulling down a large XML file and I have no control over it's structure. I used a custom function to use the tag name to view the tree structure as a flex tree, but then it breaks. I am guessing it has something to do with my other function, one that calls attribute values from the selected node. See code. <mx:Tree x="254" y="21" width="498" height="579" id="xmllisttree" labelFunction="namer" dataProvider="{treeData}" showRoot="false" change="treeChanged(event)" /> //and the Cdata import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; [Bindable] private var fullXML:XMLList; private function contentHandler(evt:ResultEvent):void{ fullXML = evt.result.page; } [Bindable] public var selectedNode:Object; public function treeChanged(event:Event):void { selectedNode=Tree(event.target).selectedItem; } public function namer(item:Object):String { var node:XML = XML(item); var nodeName:QName = node.name(); var stringtest:String ="bunny"; return nodeName.localName; } The error is TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. Where is the null reference?

    Read the article

  • c# How to find if two objects are equal

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I'm needing to know the best way to compare two objects and to find out if there equal. I'm overriding both GethashCode and Equals. So a basic class looks like: public class Test { public int Value { get; set; } public string String1 { get; set; } public string String2 { get; set; } public override int GetHashCode() { return Value ^ String1.GetHashCode() ^ String2.GetHashCode(); } public override bool Equals( object obj ) { return GetHashCode() == obj.GetHashCode(); } } So for testing purposes I created two objects: Test t = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 ="One", String2 = "One" }; Test t2 = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 = "Two", String2 = "Two" }; bool areEqual = t.Equals( t2 ); In testing this areEqual returns true event though both objects are different. I realise this is because String1 and String2 are the same value in each object and thus cancels each other out when hashing. Is there a better way off hashing object that the method I have that will resolve my issue?

    Read the article

  • how to bind a list to a dropdown list in gridview

    - by user3721173
    I have a GridView that it contain a Drop-down list.I have a list that wanna to bind this list to drop-down in gridview. <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False"OnSelectedIndexChanged="GridView1_SelectedIndexChanged" OnRowDataBound="GridView1_RowDataBound"> <Columns> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList3" runat="server" AppendDataBoundItems="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="DropDownList3_SelectedIndexChanged1" > </asp:DropDownList> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> and protected void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { DropDownList dropdown = (DropDownList)e.Row.FindControl("DropDownList3"); ClassDal obj = new ClassDal(); List<phone> list = obj.GetAll(); dropdown.DataTextField = "phone"; dropdown.DataValueField = "id"; dropdown.DataSource = list.ToList(); dropdown.DataBind(); } and namespace sample_table { public class ClassDal { public List<phone> GetAll() { using (PracticeDBEntities1 context = new PracticeDBEntities1()) { return context.phone.ToList(); } } } } but i received this exception :Object reference not set to an instance of an object on the row: dropdown.DataTextField = "phone";

    Read the article

  • Mysterious HttpSession and session-config dependency

    - by OneMoreVladimir
    Good day. I'm developing a Java web app with Servlets\JSP using Tomcat 7.0. During request from client I put and object into the session and use forward. After the forward processing the same request the object can be retreived if the secure parameter is false otherwise it is not stored in session. <session-config> <session-timeout>15</session-timeout> <cookie-config> <http-only>true</http-only> <secure>true</secure> </cookie-config> <tracking-mode>COOKIE</tracking-mode> </session-config> I've figured out that "...cookies can be created with the 'secure' flag, which ensures that the browser will never transmit the specified cookie over non-SSL...". I've configured Tomcat to use SSL, but that haven't helped. Changing the tracking mode to SSL haven't helped as well. How do session-config and HttpSession object correlate in this case? What could be the problem?

    Read the article

  • Django Getting RequestContext in custom tag

    - by greggory.hz
    I'm trying to create a custom tag. Inside this custom tag, I want to be able to have some logic that checks if the user is logged in, and then have the tag rendered accordingly. This is what I have: class UserActionNode(template.Node): def __init__(self): pass def render(self, context): if context.user.is_authenticated(): return render_to_string('layout_elements/sign_in_register.html'); else: return render_to_string('layout_elements/logout_settings.html'); def user_actions(parser, test): return UserActionNode() register.tag('user_actions', user_actions) When I run this, I get this error: Caught AttributeError while rendering: 'Context' object has no attribute 'user' The view that renders this looks like this: return render_to_response('start/home.html', {}, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) Why doesn't the tag get a RequestContext object instead of the Context object? How can I get the tag to receive the RequestContext instead of the Context? EDIT: Whether or not it's possible to get a RequestContext inside a custom tag, I'd still be interested to know the "correct" or best way to determine a user's authentication state from within the custom tag. If that's not possible, then perhaps that kind of logic belongs elsewhere? Where?

    Read the article

  • dynamic inheritance without touching classes

    - by Jasper
    I feel like the answer to this question is really simple, but I really am having trouble finding it. So here goes: Suppose you have the following classes: class Base; class Child : public Base; class Displayer { public: Displayer(Base* element); Displayer(Child* element); } Additionally, I have a Base* object which might point to either an instance of the class Base or an instance of the class Child. Now I want to create a Displayer based on the element pointed to by object, however, I want to pick the right version of the constructor. As I currently have it, this would accomplish just that (I am being a bit fuzzy with my C++ here, but I think this the clearest way) object->createDisplayer(); virtual void Base::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } virtual void Child::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } This works, however, there is a problem with this: Base and Child are part of the application system, while Displayer is part of the GUI system. I want to build the GUI system independently of the Application system, so that it is easy to replace the GUI. This means that Base and Child should not know about Displayer. However, I do not know how I can achieve this without letting the Application classes know about the GUI. Am I missing something very obvious or am I trying something that is not possible?

    Read the article

  • VB.net/Excel- "Backwards" tab index For Each iteration with textboxes.

    - by MSD
    Hi there, I have a form with 3 textboxes and 1 button. textbox1 has tab index 0, and it's text = 1 textbox2 has tab index 1, and it's text = 2 textbox3 has tab index 2, and it's text = 3 I want to iterate thru the textboxes and place their values into cells so that... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "1") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "3") but what I am getting is... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "3") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "1") I have tried reversing the tab index for the text boxes, but it doesn't change the "backwards iteration". Is there something I can do to change this so that the loop runs from lowest tab index to highest? Thanks! Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click_1(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim objExcel As New Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application 'Declaring the object. objExcel.Visible = True 'Setting Excel to visible. Dim cntrl As Control With objExcel .Workbooks.Add() 'Adding a workbook. .Range("A1").Select() 'Selecting cell A1. End With 'Form contains 3 text boxes, with one number in each (1,2,3), and one button to fire the code in this sub. For Each cntrl In Me.Controls 'For every control on the form... If TypeOf (cntrl) Is TextBox Then 'If the control is a textbox, then... With objExcel .ActiveCell.Value = cntrl.Text 'place the control's text in the active cell and... .ActiveCell.Offset(1, 0).Activate() 'offset down one row. End With End If 'If the control is not a textbox (if it's the button), do nothing. Next 'Go to the next control. objExcel = Nothing 'Release the object. GC.Collect() 'Clean up. End Sub End Class

    Read the article

  • Which options do I have for Java process communication?

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    We have a place in a code of such form: void processParam(Object param) { wrapperForComplexNativeObject result = jniCallWhichMayCrash(param); processResult(result); } processParam - method which is called with many different arguments. jniCallWhichMayCrash - a native method which is intended to do some complex processing of it's parameter and to create some complex object. It can crash in some cases. wrapperForComplexNativeObject - wrapper type generated by SWIG processResult - a method written in pure Java which processes it's parameter by creation of several kinds (by the kinds I'm not meaning classes, maybe some like hierarchies) of objects: 1 - Some non-unique objects which are referencing each other (from the same hierarchy), these objects can have duplicates created from the invocations of processParam() method with different parameter values. Since it's costly to keep all the duplicates it's necessary to cache them. 2 - Some unique objects which are referencing each other (from the same hierarchy) and some of the objects of 1st kind. After processParam is executed for each of the arguments from some set the data created in processResult will be processed together. The problem is in fact that jniCallWhichMayCrash method may crash the entire JVM and this will be very bad. The reason of crash may be such that it can happen for one argument value and not for the other. We've decided that it's better to ignore crashes inside of JVM and just skip some chunks of data when such crashes occur. In order to do this we should run processParam function inside of separate process and pass the result somehow (HOW? HOW?! This is a question) to the main process and in case of any crashes we will only lose some part of data (It's ok) without lose of everything else. So for now the main problem is implementation of transport between different processes. Which options do I have? I can think about serialization and transmitting of binary data by the streams, but serialization may be not very fast due to object complexity. Maybe I have some other options of implementing this?

    Read the article

  • How do I format a Uri when binding an Image in Silverlight?

    - by Scott
    I haven't been able to find an answer to this. I have a database that has image paths in it ("images/myimage.jpg"). These images exist on my asp.net site which is also where I host the SL. I want to bind these images to my ListBox control so that the image displays. I have read that since I have a string value, "images/myimage.jpg", that I need to convert it to a BitMap image. I have done this: the xaml: <Image Source="{Binding ImageFile, Converter={StaticResource ImageConverter}}"/> the ImageConverter class: public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { try { Uri source= new Uri(value.ToString()); return new BitmapImage(source); } catch(Exception ex) { return new BitmapImage(); } } I get an error when creating the Uri, "The Format of the URI could not be determined". What am I doing wrong? If I create a Uri that looks like this: http://localhost:49723/images/myimage.jpg, it works just fine. Why doesn't just "images/myimage.jpg" work?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708  | Next Page >