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  • ASP.net hiding panel using javascript

    - by Zaps
    Hi, I have a radioButtonList with 2 items in it. A radiobutton with a "Yes" value and a radionButton with a "No" value. Below that I have a panel which I want made visible when "Yes" radioButton is selected and hidden when "No" is selected. I had originally implemented this using the AutoPostBack attribute but I want to do it in Javascript so that it doesn't cause a postback. Here's the code. Any help would be greatly appreciated. <asp:RadioButtonList ID="rbl1" runat="server" onClick="changed(this);" > <asp:ListItem Value="Yes">Yes</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="No">No</asp:ListItem> <asp:Panel ID="panel1" runat="server"> <--other controls here --> </asp:Panel> function changed(rbl) { //not sure what to put in here } Thanks in advance, Zaps

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  • counting employee attendance

    - by jjj
    i am trying to write a statment for counting the employees attendance and execute thier id , name and the days that he has working on the last 3 months by counting the duplicate id on NewTimeAttendance for month 1 , 2 and 3 .. i tried to count : Select COUNT(employeeid) from NewTimeAttendance where employeeid=1 and (month=1 or month =2 or month = 3) This is absolutely working ,but just for one employee... the secound try: SELECT COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID) FROM NewEmployee INNER JOIN NewTimeAttendance ON NewEmployee.EmployeeID = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and (month=1 or month =2 or month = 3) This is working , but it counts all employees .. and i want it to execute each EmployeeId, EmployeeName and number of days as new record last try: (before you see the code ... it is wrong ..but i am trying) for i in 0..27 loop SELECT COUNT(NewEmployee.EmployeeID),NewEmployee.EmployeeId,EmployeeName FROM NewEmployee INNER JOIN NewTimeAttendance ON NewEmployee.EmployeeID(i) = NewTimeAttendance.EmployeeID and (month=1 or month =2 or month = 3) end loop i realy need help...thanks in advance

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  • Is it possible to write a SQL query to return specific rows, but then join some columns of those row

    - by Rob
    I'm having trouble wrapping my head around how to write this query. A hypothetical problem that is that same as the one I'm trying to solve: Say I have a table of apples. Each apple has numerous attributes, such as color_id, variety_id and the orchard_id they were picked from. The color_id, variety_id, and orchard_id all refer to their respective tables: colors, varieties, and orchards. Now, say I need to query for all apples that have color_id = '3', which refers to yellow in the colors table. I want to somehow obtain this yellow value from the query. Make sense? Here's what I was trying: SELECT * FROM apples, colors.id WHERE color_id = '3' LEFT JOIN colors ON apples.color_id = colors.id

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  • Is there a single query that can update a "sequence number" across multiple groups?

    - by Drarok
    Given a table like below, is there a single-query way to update the table from this: | id | type_id | created_at | sequence | |----|---------|------------|----------| | 1 | 1 | 2010-04-26 | NULL | | 2 | 1 | 2010-04-27 | NULL | | 3 | 2 | 2010-04-28 | NULL | | 4 | 3 | 2010-04-28 | NULL | To this (note that created_at is used for ordering, and sequence is "grouped" by type_id): | id | type_id | created_at | sequence | |----|---------|------------|----------| | 1 | 1 | 2010-04-26 | 1 | | 2 | 1 | 2010-04-27 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | 2010-04-28 | 1 | | 4 | 3 | 2010-04-28 | 1 | I've seen some code before that used an @ variable like the following, that I thought might work: SET @seq = 0; UPDATE `log` SET `sequence` = @seq := @seq + 1 ORDER BY `created_at`; But that obviously doesn't reset the sequence to 1 for each type_id. If there's no single-query way to do this, what's the most efficient way? Data in this table may be deleted, so I'm planning to run a stored procedure after the user is done editing to re-sequence the table.

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  • Optimizing sparse dot-product in C#

    - by Haggai
    Hello. I'm trying to calculate the dot-product of two very sparse associative arrays. The arrays contain an ID and a value, so the calculation should be done only on those IDs that are common to both arrays, e.g. <(1, 0.5), (3, 0.7), (12, 1.3) * <(2, 0.4), (3, 2.3), (12, 4.7) = 0.7*2.3 + 1.3*4.7 . My implementation (call it dict) currently uses Dictionaries, but it is too slow to my taste. double dot_product(IDictionary<int, double> arr1, IDictionary<int, double> arr2) { double res = 0; double val2; foreach (KeyValuePair<int, double> p in arr1) if (arr2.TryGetValue(p.Key, out val2)) res += p.Value * val2; return res; } The full arrays have about 500,000 entries each, while the sparse ones are only tens to hundreds entries each. I did some experiments with toy versions of dot products. First I tried to multiply just two double arrays to see the ultimate speed I can get (let's call this "flat"). Then I tried to change the implementation of the associative array multiplication using an int[] ID array and a double[] values array, walking together on both ID arrays and multiplying when they are equal (let's call this "double"). I then tried to run all three versions with debug or release, with F5 or Ctrl-F5. The results are as follows: debug F5: dict: 5.29s double: 4.18s (79% of dict) flat: 0.99s (19% of dict, 24% of double) debug ^F5: dict: 5.23s double: 4.19s (80% of dict) flat: 0.98s (19% of dict, 23% of double) release F5: dict: 5.29s double: 3.08s (58% of dict) flat: 0.81s (15% of dict, 26% of double) release ^F5: dict: 4.62s double: 1.22s (26% of dict) flat: 0.29s ( 6% of dict, 24% of double) I don't understand these results. Why isn't the dictionary version optimized in release F5 as do the double and flat versions? Why is it only slightly optimized in the release ^F5 version while the other two are heavily optimized? Also, since converting my code into the "double" scheme would mean lots of work - do you have any suggestions how to optimize the dictionary one? Thanks! Haggai

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  • How do you write a recursive stored procedure

    - by Grayson Mitchell
    I simply want a stored procedure that calculates a unique id and inserts it. If it fails it just calls itself to regenerate said id. I have been looking for an example, but cant find one, and am not sure how I should get the sp to call itself, and set the appropriate output parameter. I would also appreciate someone pointing out how to test this sp also. ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[DataContainer_Insert] @SomeData varchar(max), @DataContainerId int out AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; BEGIN TRY SELECT @UserId = MAX(UserId) From DataContainer INSERT INTO DataContainer (UserId, SomeData) VALUES (@UserId, SomeData) SELECT @DataContainerId = scope_identity() END TRY BEGIN CATCH --try again exec DataContainer_Insert @DataContainerId, @SomeData END CATCH END

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  • How to link to a folder in document library from sharepoint list item?

    - by kyrisu
    Hi, Background: I have an items on the sharepoint list. I also have a corresponding folder in a document library that contains documents about this item. I want to be able to get to this folder straight from the item properties. I have tried to create a lookup column containing folder ID, but that doesn't help cause folder is not a type and it just doesn't work. Other solution would be to create link column but if I will create it staticly - after creating alternative mapping (and getting to the page from the internet for example) it won't work. (so solution posted here won't work for me). I want to create this link from sharepoint workflow. I have a custom action that can return any info about the folder I want (ID, URL etc). Question: How to link from sharepoint list item to a folder in document library?

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  • SQLite: does data type depend on the quotes?

    - by Septagram
    In SQLite, the datatype of a value is associated with the value itself, not with the column type. So suppose we have a table with an integer primary key "id" and an integer column "some_number". If I do a query like this: INSERT INTO mytable (id, some_number) VALUES (NULL, "1234") Will 123 be inserted as an integer or as string? What consequences it will have later for me, say, when I'm comparing it with other value like "234" (as a number 1234 234, as a string "1234" < "234", right?)?

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  • SQL use comma-separated values with IN clause

    - by user342944
    I am developing an ASP.NET application and passing a string value like "1,2,3,4" into a procedure to select those values which are IN (1,2,3,4) but its saying "Conversion failed when converting the varchar value '1,2,3,4' to data type int." Here is the aspx code: private void fillRoles() { /*Read in User Profile Data from database */ Database db = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase(); DbCommand cmd = db.GetStoredProcCommand("sp_getUserRoles"); db.AddInParameter(cmd, "@pGroupIDs", System.Data.DbType.String); db.SetParameterValue(cmd, "@pGroupIDs", "1,2,3,4"); IDataReader reader = db.ExecuteReader(cmd); DropDownListRole.DataTextField = "Group"; DropDownListRole.DataValueField = "ID"; while (reader.Read()) { DropDownListRole.Items.Add((new ListItem(reader[1].ToString(), reader[0].ToString()))); } reader.Close(); } Here is my procedure: CREATE Procedure [dbo].[sp_getUserRoles](@pGroupIDs varchar(50)) AS BEGIN SELECT * FROM CheckList_Groups Where id in (@pGroupIDs) END

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  • Ruby On Rails Routes

    - by Kezzer
    I can't figure out how to get the following routes. Here's an extract from my routes.rb file: map.resources :treatments map.root :controller => "home" map.connect ':controller/:action/:id' map.connect ':controller/:action/:id.:format' map.connect ':action', :controller => 'home' # replaces the need to manually map pure actions to a default controller map.resources :bookings map.resource :dashboard map.resource :home Now I do realise that the ordering matters, but I can't seem to get them to work correctly. What I want is so http://localhost:3000/bookings/new actually takes you to an action http://localhost:3000/bookings/signmeup if you're either not signed in, or haven't got a login. The problem is that if I change my routes around, when I attempt to create a new booking after I have logged in, then it doesn't POST the form submission and just takes me back to the view page. This is definitely because of the routes as if I rearrange map.resources :bookings to be before all of them, then it works. Any ideas?

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  • C# GroupJoin effectiveness

    - by bsnote
    without using GroupJoin: var playersDictionary = players.ToDictionary(player => player.Id, element => new PlayerDto { Rounds = new List<RoundDto>() }); foreach (var round in rounds) { PlayerDto playerDto; playersDictionary.TryGetValue(round.PlayerId, out playerDto); if (playerDto != null) { playerDto.Rounds.Add(new RoundDto { }); } } var playerDtoItems = playersDictionary.Values; using GroupJoin: var playerDtoItems = from player in players join round in rounds on player.Id equals round.PlayerId into playerRounds select new PlayerDto { Rounds = playerRounds.Select(playerRound => new RoundDto {}) }; Which of these two pieces is more efficient?

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  • How to pass some data to JQuery AJAX in CAKEPHP

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am learning how to use JQuery to help check data availability. To start with it, I wrote a few lines of codes using cakePHP. I have written a function in a Controller for checking data input, and the URL is like this: http://www.mywebsite.com/controllers/action/avariable I was trying to pass the value in a Input TextBox field using the JQuery Ajax to the URL above,but I don't know why it is not working in passing a variable to the Controller's action. Could you help me out please? <Script language="javascript"> //<!-- $(document).ready(function(){ $(document).change(function() { var usr = $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); if(usr.length >= 3){ $("#username").append('<span><img align="absmiddle" src="loader.gif" />Checking</span>'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://www.mywebsite.com/controllers/action/", data: usr, success: function(msg){ if(msg == 'OK') { $("#username").append('<span><img align="absmiddle" src="accepted.png"/></span>'); } else { $("#username").append('<span>'+msg+'</span>'); } } }); } else { $("#username").append('<span>The username should have at least 3 characters.</span>'); } }); }); //--> </Script> <form name="adduser" id="adduser" method="post" action="/controllers/action2"> <table border=0 width="100%"> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td> <div id="username"> <input type=text name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]"> </div> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="submit" value="Send"> </td> </tr> </table> </form>

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  • Can jQuery's fadeIn work without AJAX?

    - by Thierry Lam
    I'm submitting a form, sometimes I have some messages that I want to show to the user. I want those messages to jQuery fadeIn after they click on the submit button. Is it possible to achieve that if the submission doesn't involve any AJAX? Here's a sample Django/Python code: # View code message = 'feedback to user' # Template <div id="messages">{{ message }}</div> The equivalent PHP code of the above might be: <?php $message = 'feedback to user'; ?> <div id="messages"><?= $message ?></div> I want #messages above to fade in after a POST. How can I achieve that?

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  • Can't parse XML from AJAX response.

    - by Pavel
    Hi everyone. I'm having some problems with parsing the xml response from my ajax script. The XML looks like this: <IMAGE> <a href="address"> <img width="300" height="300" src="image.png class="image" alt="" title="LINKING"/> </a> </IMAGE> <LINK> www.address.com </LINK> <TITLE> This <i>is title</i> </TITLE> <EXCERPT> <p> And some excerpt </p> </EXCERPT> The code for js looks like this. function loadTab(id) { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlDoc=xmlhttp.responseXML; var title=""; var image=""; x=xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("TITLE"); for (i=0;i<1;i++) { title=title + x[i].childNodes[0].nodeValue; } document.getElementById("ntt").innerHTML=title; x1=xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("IMAGE"); for (j=0;j<1;j++) { image=image + x1[j].childNodes[0].nodeValue; } document.getElementById("nttI").innerHTML=image; } } var url = 'http://www.factmag.com/staging/page/?id='+id; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(); } When I'm parsing it it pulls out the title but not the IMAGE tag contents. What I'm doing wrong? Can someone please tell me? Thanks in advance!

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  • Large strings: Text files or SQL DB?

    - by Tommo
    I am coding a forum system using PHP. I am currently storing a threads ID, title, author, views and other attributes in an SQL database and then storing the thread body (the HTML and BBcode) in text files inside a folder named after the thread ID. In practise it's really simple to grab the database values then just grab the thread body from the text file, but I was wondering if this is the 'proper way'? I have personally no problems doing this but if it turns out it is massively inefficient and I should instead store both the thread body HTML and BBcode in the database instead then I will change. However, to me it seems wrong to store such a (very possibly) huge string of multi-line text along with lots of different characters in a database - I was taught that databases are more for short field 'values' rather than website content. I would just like a definitive answer to this because it's been bugging me for ages as to wherever I’ve been doing it properly. Does anyone know how popular forum systems store threads?

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  • Insert something .after a set of elements if the first in the set has a certain class.

    - by Adripants
    I would like to add a label AFTER a group of radio inputs IF the first has a certain class <label>Has the strategy and all of it's relevant background documents been uploaded</label> <label for="Radio1"><input type="radio" name="uploaded" class="required cat1" id="Radio1">Yes</label> <label for="Radio2"><input type="radio" name="uploaded" id="Radio2">No</label> Radio1 has the class, but I'd like to insert a label after the last (in this case Radio2) I thought I could use this: $('input[type="radio"].cat1').siblings('input:last').after('<label>Hi!</label>'); But it doesn't work. Can you pick what I am doing wrong?

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  • Return NSArray from NSDictionary

    - by Jon
    I have a fetch that returns an array with dictionary in it of an attribute of a core data object. Here is my previous question: Create Array From Attribute of NSObject From NSFetchResultsController This is the fetch: NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [request setEntity:entity]; [request setResultType:NSDictionaryResultType]; [request setReturnsDistinctResults:NO]; //set to YES if you only want unique values of the property [request setPropertiesToFetch :[NSArray arrayWithObject:@"timeStamp"]]; //name(s) of properties you want to fetch // Execute the fetch. NSError *error; NSArray *objects = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; When I log the NSArray data, I get this: The content of data is( { timeStamp = "2011-06-14 21:30:03 +0000"; }, { timeStamp = "2011-06-16 21:00:18 +0000"; }, { timeStamp = "2011-06-11 21:00:18 +0000"; }, { timeStamp = "2011-06-23 19:53:35 +0000"; }, { timeStamp = "2011-06-21 19:53:35 +0000"; } ) What I want is an array with this format: [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"2011-11-01 00:00:00 +0000", @"2011-12-01 00:00:00 +0000", nil];' Edit: This is the method for which I want to replace the data array with my new data array: - (NSArray*)calendarMonthView:(TKCalendarMonthView *)monthView marksFromDate:(NSDate *)startDate toDate:(NSDate *)lastDate { NSLog(@"calendarMonthView marksFromDate toDate"); NSLog(@"Make sure to update 'data' variable to pull from CoreData, website, User Defaults, or some other source."); // When testing initially you will have to update the dates in this array so they are visible at the // time frame you are testing the code. NSArray *data = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"2011-01-01 00:00:00 +0000", @"2011-12-01 00:00:00 +0000", nil]; // Initialise empty marks array, this will be populated with TRUE/FALSE in order for each day a marker should be placed on. NSMutableArray *marks = [NSMutableArray array]; // Initialise calendar to current type and set the timezone to never have daylight saving NSCalendar *cal = [NSCalendar currentCalendar]; [cal setTimeZone:[NSTimeZone timeZoneForSecondsFromGMT:0]]; // Construct DateComponents based on startDate so the iterating date can be created. // Its massively important to do this assigning via the NSCalendar and NSDateComponents because of daylight saving has been removed // with the timezone that was set above. If you just used "startDate" directly (ie, NSDate *date = startDate;) as the first // iterating date then times would go up and down based on daylight savings. NSDateComponents *comp = [cal components:(NSMonthCalendarUnit | NSMinuteCalendarUnit | NSYearCalendarUnit | NSDayCalendarUnit | NSWeekdayCalendarUnit | NSHourCalendarUnit | NSSecondCalendarUnit) fromDate:startDate]; NSDate *d = [cal dateFromComponents:comp]; // Init offset components to increment days in the loop by one each time NSDateComponents *offsetComponents = [[NSDateComponents alloc] init]; [offsetComponents setDay:1]; // for each date between start date and end date check if they exist in the data array while (YES) { // Is the date beyond the last date? If so, exit the loop. // NSOrderedDescending = the left value is greater than the right if ([d compare:lastDate] == NSOrderedDescending) { break; } // If the date is in the data array, add it to the marks array, else don't if ([data containsObject:[d description]]) { [marks addObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES]]; } else { [marks addObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:NO]]; } // Increment day using offset components (ie, 1 day in this instance) d = [cal dateByAddingComponents:offsetComponents toDate:d options:0]; } [offsetComponents release]; return [NSArray arrayWithArray:marks]; }

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  • A better understanding of the relations beetween database tables

    - by Nistor Alexandru
    Hi I am trying to get a better understanding of relational databases and there is something that I keep bumping into and don't understand.Let's take this two tables: In this case Login.ID is the primary key with auto_increment set and Profile.ID_LOGIN is the Foreign KEY.When a user is created and it's username and password is stored in the login database does the ID coresponding to the curesnt username and password get automaticly added into ID_LOGIN or do I have to create an SQL statement to do this? If I have to create a SQL statement how should I aproach adding the ID_LOGIN to make sure I am adding it corectly?

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  • Hibernate - One design problem

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am learning Hibernate from the tutorial on JBoss website. I have a confusion in a code example located here. There is a Cat class code at 4.1. A simple POJO example. This Cat class has a reference to his mother as private Cat mother; Q1. If the class has an identifier property as id, then wouldn't it be better to store the cat's mother's id instead of cat's mother object. means instead of private Cat mother; wouldn't it be better to have private long motherId; `

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  • Pointers in For loops

    - by Bobby
    Quick question: I am a C# guy debugging a C++ app so I am not used to memory management. In the following code: for(int i = 0; i < TlmMsgDB.CMTGetTelemMsgDBCount(); i++) { CMTTelemetryMsgCls* telm = TlmMsgDB.CMTGetTelemetryMsg(i); CMT_SINT32_Tdef id = telm->CMTGetPackingMapID(); ManualScheduleTables.SetManualMsg(i,id); ManualScheduleTables.SetManExec(i,false); } Am I leaking memory every iteration b/c of CMTTelemetryMsgCls* telm = TlmMsgDB.CMTGetTelemetryMsg(i);? The "CMTGetTelemetryMsg(int)" method returns a pointer. Do I have to "delete telm;" at the end of each iteration?

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  • Jquery form submit() call back not working

    - by Aneesh
    I have an iframe and a form. Form's target is iframe. When I submit form, the result page should load in iframe. I have attached the code below: <script type="text/javascript"> function submitForm() { $("form#testForm").submit(function(){ alert('hii') }); } </head> <body> <iframe name="testFrame" id="testFrame" frameborder="1" scrolling="no" width="500" height="200"></iframe> <form name="testForm" id="testForm" action="http://www.yahoo.com" target="testFrame"> </form> <button name="testBtn" value="submit" onclick="submitForm();">submit</button> </body> </html> The alert is not coming....Help me please...

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  • conceptually different entities with a few similar properties should be stored in one table or more?

    - by Haghpanah
    Assume A and B are conceptually different entities that have a few similar properties and of course their own specific properties. In database design, should I put those two entities in one big aggregated table or two respectively designed tables. For instance, I have two types of payment; Online-payment and Manual-payment with following definition, TABLE [OnlinePayments] ( [ID] [uniqueidentifier], [UserID] [uniqueidentifier], [TrackingCode] [nvarchar](32), [ReferingCode] [nvarchar](32), [BankingAccID] [uniqueidentifier], [Status] [int], [Amount] [money], [Comments] [nvarchar](768), [CreatedAt] [datetime], [ShopingCartID] [uniqueidentifier], ) And TABLE [ManualPayments] ( [ID] [uniqueidentifier], [UserID] [uniqueidentifier], [BankingAccID] [uniqueidentifier], [BankingOrgID] [uniqueidentifier], [BranchName] [nvarchar](64), [BranchCode] [nvarchar](16), [Amount] [money], [SlipNumber] [nvarchar](64), [SlipImage] [image], [PaidAt] [datetime], [Comments] [nvarchar](768), [CreatedAt] [datetime], [IsApproved] [bit], [ApprovedByID] [uniqueidentifier], ) One of my friends told me that creating two distinct tables for such similar entities is not a well design method and they should be put in one single table for the sake of performance and ease of data manipulations. I’m now wondering what to do? What is the best practice in such a case?

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  • ManyToManyField error when having recursive structure. How to solve it?

    - by luc
    Hello, I have the following table in the model with a recursive structure (a page can have children pages) class DynamicPage(models.Model): name = models.CharField("Titre",max_length=200) parent = models.ForeignKey('self',null=True,blank=True) I want to create another table with manytomany relation with this one: class UserMessage(models.Model): name = models.CharField("Nom", max_length=100) page = models.ManyToManyField(DynamicPage) The generated SQL creates the following constraint: ALTER TABLE `website_dynamicpage` ADD CONSTRAINT `parent_id_refs_id_29c58e1b` FOREIGN KEY (`parent_id`) REFERENCES `website_dynamicpage` (`id`); I would like to have the ManyToMany with the page itself (the id) and not with the parent field. How to modify the model to make the constraint using the id and not the parent? Thanks in advance

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  • Cant append "used" DOMObject in IE

    - by Kein
    I have some objects, that keep created DOMObjects, like here: function category(){ var domBlock; this.block = function(){ if (!domBlock){ // Here dom-object constructor $('<div></div>'); etc } return domBlock; // jquery object, // but i test and native document.createElement } } Then i clear category's area, and append old and new received(with Ajax) objects: area.html(''); for(id in category_list){ area.append( category_list[id].block() ); } where category_list is list that contain category objects. Area is jQuery object. In other browsers (except IE) i get area with all needed categories, but in IE i get only new received categories(that just create DomObject), other old objects that keeped old DomObject not show. I know it possible make with innerHTML, but i wont keep DomObject, not text. Because DomObject keep many events. And it very hard for browser attach events for each DomObject after refresh area.

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  • Use from value from backing bean in javascript

    - by AlfonsSocken
    What I want is to use a boolean value from applicationContext.xml (Jboss configuration file) in my javascript. Currently I use Spring to inject a value configured in applicationContext.xml into my backingbean. Then I put an output text in my jsp like this <h:outputText id="idValue" styleClass="foo" value="" rendered="#{bean.isRendered}"/> In my JavaScript I try following jQuery(function(){ bRedirect = jQuery("#foo").value != undefined; ... All this looks so terrible to me, even though it works fine. There must be a smarter way than doing what I do. Note that I am running JSF1.2 and therefore must use jQuery instead of $ and also select by unique class (foo) and not by id, which may be bad practice as well. Thank you in advance. alfons

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