Search Results

Search found 30838 results on 1234 pages for 'html dom'.

Page 704/1234 | < Previous Page | 700 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711  | Next Page >

  • SWIG interface to receive an opaque struct reference in Java through function argument

    - by Beeo
    I am trying to use SWIG in order to use the Spotify API (libspotify) for Android: https://developer.spotify.com/technologies/libspotify/ I am having trouble defining the SWIG interface file to be able to successfully call the following native C function: sp_error sp_session_create(const sp_session_config * config, sp_session ** sess); Which in C would be called like this: //config struct defined previously sp_session *sess; sp_session_create(&config, &sess); But in Java I would need to call it like this: //config object defined previously sp_session javaSess = new sp_session(); sp_session_create(config, javaSess); sp_session is an opaque struct and is only defined in libspotify's API.h file as: typedef struct sp_session sp_session; I'm expecting the libspotify library to create it and give me a reference to it. The only thing I need that reference for then is to pass to other functions in the API. I believe the answer lies within the SWIG interface and typemaps, but I have been unsuccessful in trying to apply the examples I found in the documentation: http://www.swig.org/Doc2.0/SWIGDocumentation.html#Java_struct_pointer_pointer `http://www.swig.org/Doc2.0/SWIGDocumentation.html#Java_using_typemaps_return_arguments Help!

    Read the article

  • I am looking for an actual functional web browser type control for .NET, maybe a C++ LIBRARY#$??$?

    - by Joshua
    I am trying to emulate a web browser in order to execute JavaScript code and then parse the DOM. The System.Windows.Forms.WebBrowser object does not give me the functionality I need. It let's me set the headers, but you cannot set the proxy or clear cookies. Well you can, but it is not ideal and messes with IE's settings. I've been extending the WebBrowser control pinvoking native windows functions so far, but it is really one hack on top of another. I can mess with the proxy and also clear cookies and such, but this control has its issues as I mentioned. I found something called WebKit .NET (http://webkitdotnet.sourceforge.net/), but I don't see support for setting proxies or cookie manipulation. Can someone recommend a c++/.NET/whatever library to do this: Basically tell me what I need to do to get an interface to similar this in .NET: string FetchBrowserParsedHtml(Uri url, WebProxy p, int timeoutSeconds, byte[] headers, byte[] postdata); void ClearCookies(); I am not responsible for my actions.

    Read the article

  • How to write a file that called from a database on a page?

    - by Mehmet Kaleli
    Hi. I have a "news" page that belongs to a company. All news have a header, detail and html page and they come from database. So i have to print those html pages in a repeater on my "news.aspx". But i couldnt write dynamically. How can i do it or is there anyway else? <asp:Repeater ID="news" runat="server" OnItemDataBound="news_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID="newsid" runat="server" Value='<%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsid") %>' /> <tr> <td class="haberler-sayfasi-habermetni" style="width:580px;padding-bottom:30px;"> <h1 class="haberler-sayfasi-haberbasligi" style="background-image:url(images/haber-ikon.jpg); background-repeat:no-repeat;padding-left:25px;"> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsheader") %>/h1> <br /> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"newsspot") %> <br /><br /> <% **Response.WriteFile('dynamical filename with path');** %> </td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

    Read the article

  • Although not [required] List field shows up as required and Model State is not Valid due to it bein

    - by VJ
    I have the following code- View- <% Html.BeginForm(); %> <div> <%= Html.DropDownList("DropDownSelectList", new SelectList( Model.DropDownSelectList, "Value", "Text"))%> Controller- public ActionResult Admin(string apiKey, string userId) { ChallengesAdminViewModel vm = new ChallengesAdminViewModel(); vm.ApiKey = apiKey; vm.UserId = userId; vm.DropDownSelectList = new List<SelectListItem>(); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem1); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem2); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem3); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem4); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem5); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem6); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem7); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Admin(ChallengesAdminViewModel vm) { if (ModelState.IsValid)//Due to the null dropdownlist gives model state invalid { } } ViewModel- public class ChallengesAdminViewModel { [Required] public string ApiKey { get; set; } [Required] public string UserId { get; set; } public List<SelectListItem> DropDownSelectList { get; set; } } I dont know why it still requires the list although not required. I want to have only two attributes as required. So I wanted to know how do i declare or change that list to be not required and have my Model State Valid.

    Read the article

  • Submit form with POST data in Android app

    - by datguywhowanders
    I've been searching the web for a way to do this for about a week now, and I just can't seem to figure it out. I'm trying to implement an app that my college can use to allow users to log in to various services on the campus with ease. The way it works currently is they go to an online portal, select which service they want, fill in their user name and pwd, and click login. The form data is sent via post (it includes several hidden values as well as just the user name and pwd) to the corresponding login script which then signs them in and loads the service. I've been trying to come at the problem in two ways. I first tried a WebView, but it doesn't seem to want to support all of the html that normally makes this form work. I get all of the elements I need, fields for user and pwd as well as a login button, but clicking the button doesn't do anything. I wondered if I needed to add an onclick handler for it, but I can't see how as the button is implemented in the html of the webview not using a separate android element. The other possibility was using the xml widgets to create the form in a nice relative layout, which seems to load faster and looks better on the android screen. I used EditText fields for the input, a spinner widget for the service select, and the button widget for the login. I know how to make the onclick and item select handlers for the button and spinner, respectively, but I can't figure out how to send that data via POST in an intent that would then launch a browser. I can do an intent with the action url, but can't get the POST data to feed into it. Anyone have any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Does/Will autofac's ASP.NET integration support PreInit or Init events?

    - by David Rubin
    I see from poking around in the 1.4.4 source that Autofac's ASP.NET integration (via Autofac.Integration.Web) peforms injection of properties on the Page as part of the HttpContext.PreRequestHandlerExecute event handling, but that the page's child controls don't get their properties injected until Page.PreLoad. What this means, though is that the injected properties of child controls are unavailable for use in the OnInit event handler. For example, this works fine: HelloWorld.aspx: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="HelloWorld.aspx.cs" Inherits="HelloWorld" %> <html> <body> <asp:Label runat="server" id="lblMsg" OnInit="HandleInit"/> </body> </html> HelloWorld.aspx.cs: ... protected void HandleInit() { lblMsg.Text = _msgProvider.GetMessage(); } public IMsgProvider _msgProvider { private get; set; } // <-- Injected But changing the HelloWorld Page to a UserControl (.acsx) and putting the UserControl in another page doesn't work because _msgProvider isn't injected early enough. Is there a way to make Autofac inject properties of child controls earlier? Or is this something that can be addressed in a future build? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

    - by meosoft
    Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

    Read the article

  • cURL gets Internal Server Error when posting to aspx page

    - by Mihai
    I have a big problem. I have some applications made on an unix based system, and I use PHP with cURL to post an XML question to an IIS server with asp.net. Every time I ask the server something I get error: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Date: Tue, 04 May 2010 07:36:08 GMT Server: Microsoft-IIS/6.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 Cache-Control: private Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: 3032 But if I ask same question on another server, almost identically to this one (BOTH configured by me) I get results like it should and the headers: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Tue, 04 May 2010 07:39:37 GMT Server: Microsoft-IIS/6.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 Cache-Control: private Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: 9169 I tried everything, searched hundreds of forums, but i don't find anything. In IIS logs I only get: 2010-05-04 07:36:08 W3SVC1657587027 80.xx.xx.xx POST /XML_SERV/XmlAPI.aspx - 80 - 80.xx.xx.xx Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+6.0;+Windows+NT+5.1 500 0 0 any ideas where to look what is going on? I forgot to mention! If I use an XML request software, and ask same question, it works.

    Read the article

  • jquery ajax post not working with .load in codeigniter

    - by bravo
    i wish to .load multiple views result with jquery ajax the original code (js) $(document).ready(function(){ $("#uid").change( function(){ var uid=$("#uid").val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail') ?>", dataType: "json", data: "uid="+uid, cache:false, success: function(data){ $("#content").html(data); } }); return false; }); }); this return only one result in what if i want to load 3 results like in <div id="content"></div> <div id="content1"></div> <div id="content2"></div> content could be userid content2 could be user first name content3 could be user last name my js should using .load instead of html right? let me know if i'm wrong. success: function(data){ $("#content").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); $("#content2").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); $("#content3").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); } i stuck with this thing for whole day.. please anyone show me the right way to do the controller and js code.

    Read the article

  • using jquery selector to change attribute in variable returned from ajax request

    - by Blake
    I'm trying to pull in a filename.txt (contains html) using ajax and change the src path in the data variable before I load it into the target div. If I first load it into the div the browser first requests the broken image and I don't want this so I would like to do my processing before I load anything onto the page. I can pull the src values fine but I can't change them. In this example the src values aren't changed. Is there a way to do this with selectors or can they only modify DOM elements? Otherwise I may have to do some regex replace but using a selector will be more convenient if possible. $.ajax( { url: getDate+'/'+name+'.txt', success: function(data) { $('img', data).attr('src', 'new_test_src'); $('#'+target).fadeOut('slow', function(){ $('#'+target).html(data); $('#'+target).fadeIn('slow'); }); } }); My reason is I'm building a fully standalone javascript template system for a newsletter and since images and other things are upload via a drupal web file manager I want the content creators to keep their paths very short and simple and I can then modify them before I load in the content. This will also be distributed on a CD so I can need to change the paths for that so they still work.

    Read the article

  • Script tag in ASPX page is written partially (output stopped at random)

    - by Nir
    I have an aspx page where I put a script tag with .net "if" and "else". The problem is that the output gets cut at random points each time. Sometimes it's ok, sometimes I get cropped output. The code itself (Simplified example): <body id="body" runat="server"> <form id="form1" runat="server">some HTML <script type="text/javascript"> window.addEvent('domready', function() { var x = "nothing"; <% if(someCondition){%> x = "2"; <%} else {%> x = "3"; <%}%> }); </script> </form> </body> The cropped output: <body id="body" runat="server"> <form id="form1" runat="server">some HTML <script type="text/javascript"> window.addEvent('domready', function() { var x = "nothi </script> </form> </body> Does anybody have a clue?

    Read the article

  • Java Servlet: getInitParameter not work in Service()

    - by Gabriele
    I've added some parameters in my web.xml config file, as follow: <context-param> <param-name>service1</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>service2</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> ... I try to get the parameter in my servlet, in particular in my service method: protected void service(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { System.out.println(this.getServletContext().getInitParameter("service1")); ... but at runtime I have a NullPointerException... How can I get the parameter value included in web.xml? This is the stacktrace: GRAVE: Servlet.service() for servlet DispatcherServlet threw exception java.lang.NullPointerException at javax.servlet.GenericServlet.getServletContext(GenericServlet.java:160) at it.servlethope.DispatcherServlet.service(DispatcherServlet.java:66) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.handleRewrite(RuleChain.java:176) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.doRules(RuleChain.java:145) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriter.processRequest(UrlRewriter.java:92) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriteFilter.doFilter(UrlRewriteFilter.java:381) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:127) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:298) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:852) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:588) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:489) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) DispatcherServlet.java:66 is the line where I try the getInitParameter()

    Read the article

  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

    Read the article

  • Using C# to HttpPost data to a web page

    - by druffmuff
    I want to log in into a website using C# code. Here's the html code of the example form: <form action="http://www.site.com/login.php" method="post" name="login" id="login"> <table border="0" cellpadding="2" cellspacing="0"> <tbody> <tr><td><b>User:</b></td><td colspan=\"2\"><b>Password:</b></td></tr> <tr> <td><input class="inputbg" name="user" type="text"></td> <td><input class="inputbg" name="password" type="password"></td> <td><input type="submit" name="user_control" value="Submit" class="buttonbg"></td> </tr> </tbody></table> </form> This is what I have tried so far with unsuccessful results: HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.site.com/login.php"); request.Method = "POST"; using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.ASCII)) { writer.Write("user=user&password=pass&user_control=Eingabe"); } HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream())) { stream = new StreamWriter("login.html"); stream.Write(reader.ReadToEnd()); stream.Close(); } Any Ideas, why this is failing?

    Read the article

  • How should I organize complex SQL views in Rails?

    - by Benjamin Oakes
    I manage a research database with Ruby on Rails. The data that is entered is primarily used by scientists who prefer to have all the relevant information for a study in one single massive table for use in their statistics software of choice. I'm currently presenting it as CSV, as it's very straightforward to do and compatible with the tools people want to use. I've written many views (the SQL kind, not the Rails HTML/ERB kind) to make the output they expect a reality. Some of these views are quite large and have a fair amount of complexity behind them. I wrote them in SQL because there are many calculations and comparisons that are more easily done with SQL. They're currently loaded into the database straight from a file named views.sql. To get the requested data, I do a select * from my_view;. The views.sql file is getting quite large. Part of the problem is that we're still figuring out what the data we collect means, so there's a lot of changes being made to the views all the time -- and a ton of them are being created. Many of them need to be repeatable. I've recently run into issues organizing and testing these views. Rails works great for user interface stuff and business logic, but I'm not aware of much existing structure for handling the reporting we require. Some options I've thought of: Should I move them into the most relevant models somehow? Several of the views interact with each other, which makes this situation more complex than just doing a single find_by_sql, so I don't know if they should only be part of the model. Perhaps they should be treated as a "view" in the MVC sense? (That is, they could be moved into app/views/ and live alongside the HTML, perhaps as files named something like my_view.csv.sql which return CSV.) How would you deal with a complex reporting problem like this?

    Read the article

  • Jquery click event propagation

    - by ozsenegal
    I've a table with click events bind to it rows (tr). Also,there're A elements with it owns click events assigned inside those rows. Problem is when i click on A element,it also fires click event from TD.And Im dont want this behavior,i just want to fire A click's event. Code: //Event row TR $("tr:not(:first)").click(function(){ $(".window,.backFundo,.close").remove(); var position = $(this).offset().top; position = position < 0 ? 20 : position; $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("backFundo")); $("body").append($("<div></div>").addClass("window").html("<span class=close><img src=Images/close.png id=fechar /></span>").append("<span class=titulo>O que deseja fazer?</span><span class=crud><a href=# id=edit>Editar</a></span><span class=crud><a href=# id=delete codigo=" + $(this).children("td:first").html() + ">Excluir</a></span>").css({top:"20px"}).fadeIn("slow")); $(document).scrollTop(0); }); //Element event $("a").live("click",function(){alert("clicked!");}); Whenever you click the anchor it fires event from it parent row.Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Using different versions of jQuery on the same page

    - by nimcap
    Users of my service includes a JS in their pages that I provide. I am hosting the script they are including. My script does some manipulation on their content. I am sick of writing my own DOM manipulators/selectors and wasting hours for jobs that can be done with 1 line of code if I can use jQuery. Some of the users of my service already uses jQuery (or Prototype etc.) on their pages, so if I include jQuery there will be a conflict. Because there will be version differences, I don't want to use their jQuery selectors, methods either in case jQuery exists. Keeping in mind that I have no control over their pages, how can I include jQuery and avoid conflict?

    Read the article

  • How to prevent BeautifulSoup from stripping lines

    - by Oli
    I'm trying to translate an online html page into text. I have a problem with this structure: <div align="justify"><b>Available in <a href="http://www.example.com.be/book.php?number=1"> French</a> and <a href="http://www.example.com.be/book.php?number=5"> English</a>. </div> Here is its representation as a python string: '<div align="justify"><b>Available in \r\n<a href="http://www.example.com.be/book.php?number=1">\r\nFrench</a>; \r\n<a href="http://www.example.com.be/book.php?number=5">\r\nEnglish</a>.\r\n</div>' When using: html_content = get_html_div_from_above() para = BeautifulSoup(html_content) txt = para.text BeautifulSoup translate it (in the 'txt' variable) as: u'Available inFrenchandEnglish.' It probably strips each line in the original html string. Do you have a clean solution about this problem ? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • In Javascript, by what mechanism does setting an Image src property trigger an image load?

    - by brainjam
    One of the things you learn early on when manipulating a DOM using Javascript is the following pattern: var img = new Image(); // Create new Image object img.onload = function(){ // execute drawImage statements here } img.src = 'myImage.png'; // Set source path As far as I know, in general when you set an object property there are no side effects. So what is the mechanism for triggering an image load? Is it just magic? Or can I use a similar mechanism to implement a class Foo that supports a parallel pattern? var foo = new Foo(); // Create new object foo.barchanged = function(){ // execute something after side effect has completed } foo.bar = 'whatever'; // Assign something to 'bar' property I'm vaguely aware of Javascript getters and setters. Is this how Image.src triggers a load?

    Read the article

  • convert date error when retrieving data in twig page through doctrine

    - by user201892
    I just find this error when I retrieve all my records on twig page from the database through doctrine here is my twig code : {% extends "gestionConferenceApplicationBundle::layout.html.twig" %} {% block title "Hello " ~ name %} {% block content %} je suis un debutant <table border=2 > <th>Numéro</th> <th>Titre</th> <th>Ville</th> <th>Lieu</th> <th>Date de début</th> <th>Date de fin</th> {% for item in conferences %} <tr> <td>{{ item.id }}</td> <td>{{ item.titre }}</td> <td>{{ item.ville }}</td> <td>{{ item.lieu }}</td>* <td>{{ item.dateDebut }}</td> <td>{{ item.dateFin }}</td> </tr> {% endfor %} </table> {% endblock %} the error in the date : here it is : An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Catchable Fatal Error: Object of class DateTime could not be converted to string in C:\wamp\www\Symfony\app\cache\dev\twig\3c\dd\40a703549de9b8769fa40b82230e.php line 72") in gestionConferenceApplicationBundle:acceuil:acceuil.html.twig at line 19. do you have any idea how to convert this date or any other things in the MySql I have dateTime field and in doctrine I have : /** * @var \DateTime $dateDebut * * @ORM\Column(name="date_debut", type="datetime", nullable=false) */ private $dateDebut;

    Read the article

  • jquery live and callbacks via wcf services

    - by vondip
    Hi all, I am writing a web app with asp.net, c# and jquery. Most of the time I'm writing dynamic html to the browser and using different web services to get the content needed. My call to the service: function WriteProducts(currentIndex, selectedCategoryId, callback) { var d = new Date(); MyAppServices.GetProducts(selectedCategoryId, currentIndex, 8, d.getTime().toString(), callback, function func() { alert('failure'); }); } The request usually gets translated to this (using firebug I monitored it): http://localhost:8080/MyApp/MyAppServices.svc/GetProducts?categoryId=0&fromIndex=0&toIndex=8&randomNumber=%221271800014441%22 The problem starts when part of the html controls dynamically rendered need to respond to click events. This is when I start using jquery's live method: $('.filter').live('click', function(event) { WriteProducts(0, selectedCategoryId, PopulateDivs); }); Now from some reason, the request passed to the server becomes this: http://localhost:8080/MyApp/MyAppServices.svc/GetProducts?categoryId=**%2217%22**&fromIndex=0&toIndex=8&randomNumber=%221271799783355%22 where did these %22 come from? If I take them out, the request passes successfully. I have no idea who inserted these %22, but they are causing havoc here! Guys, do you perhaps have a clue?

    Read the article

  • jboss cache as hibernate 2nd level - cluster node doesn't persist replicated data

    - by Sergey Grashchenko
    I'm trying to build an architecture basically described in user guide http://www.jboss.org/file-access/default/members/jbosscache/freezone/docs/3.2.1.GA/userguide_en/html/cache_loaders.html#d0e3090 (Replicated caches with each cache having its own store.) but having jboss cache configured as hibernate second level cache. I've read manual for several days and played with the settings but could not achieve the result - the data in memory (jboss cache) gets replicated across the hosts, but it's not persisted in the datasource/database of the target (not original) cluster host. I had a hope that a node might become persistent at eviction, so I've got a cache listener and attached it to @NoveEvicted event. I found that though I could adjust eviction policy to fully control it, no any persistence takes place. Then I had a though that I could try to modify CacheLoader to set "passivate" to true, but I found that in my case (hibernate 2nd level cache) I don't have a way to access a loader. I wonder if replicated data persistence is possible at all by configuration tuning ? If not, will it work for me to create some manual peristence in CacheListener (I could check whether the eviction event is local, and if not - persist it to hibernate datasource somehow) ? I've used mvcc-entity configuration with the modification of cacheMode - set to REPL_ASYNC. I've also played with the eviction policy configuration. Last thing to mention is that I've tested entty persistence and replication in project that has been generated with Seam. I guess it's not important though.

    Read the article

  • document.getElementById in toString

    - by KooiInc
    edit Found my answers here. Bottom line: toString/valueOf can only return primitive types. So here the lack of native getters in javascript shows, I suppose. I would like to use the following simple function in an elementwrapper: function ElGetter(id){ var id = id; return { set: function(nwid){id = nwid;}, toString: function(){return document.getElementById(id);}, valueOf: function(){return document.getElementById(id);} }; } var myEl = ElGetter('myId'); console.log(myEl.innerHTML); //=> undefined But I can't get it to work. Is it a DOM/javascript restriction or am I missing something? Normally it works, as in: function Tester(){ var x = 1; return { toString: function(){return x}, valueOf: function(){return x} } } var myTest = Tester(); console.log(myTest); //=> 1

    Read the article

  • Using CookieJar in Python to log in to a website from "Google App Engine". What's wrong here?

    - by brilliant
    Hello everybody, I've been trying to find a python code that would log in to my mail box on yahoo.com from "Google App Engine" . Here (click here to see that page) I was given this code: import urllib, urllib2, cookielib url = "https://login.yahoo.com/config/login?" form_data = {'login' : 'my-login-here', 'passwd' : 'my-password-here'} jar = cookielib.CookieJar() opener = urllib2.build_opener(urllib2.HTTPCookieProcessor(jar)) form_data = urllib.urlencode(form_data) # data returned from this pages contains redirection resp = opener.open(url, form_data) # yahoo redirects to http://my.yahoo.com, so lets go there instead resp = opener.open('http://mail.yahoo.com') print resp.read() The author of this script looked into HTML script of yahoo log-in form and came up with this script. That log-in form contains two fields, one for users' Yahoo! ID and another one is for users' password. Here is how HTML code of that page for both of those fields looks like: User ID field: <input type="text" maxlength="96" class="yreg_ipt" size="17" value="" id="username" name="login"> Password field: <input type="password" maxlength="64" class="yreg_ipt" size="17" value="" id="passwd" name="passwd"> However, when I uploaded this code to Google App Engine I discovered that this log-in form keeps coming back to me, which, I assume, means that logging-in process didn't succeed. Why is it so?

    Read the article

  • Using CookieJar in Python to log in to a website from "Google App Engine". What's wrong here?

    - by brilliant
    Hello everybody, I've been trying to find a python code that would log in to my mail box on yahoo.com from "Google App Engine" . Here (click here to see that page) I was given this code: import urllib, urllib2, cookielib url = "https://login.yahoo.com/config/login?" form_data = {'login' : 'my-login-here', 'passwd' : 'my-password-here'} jar = cookielib.CookieJar() opener = urllib2.build_opener(urllib2.HTTPCookieProcessor(jar)) form_data = urllib.urlencode(form_data) # data returned from this pages contains redirection resp = opener.open(url, form_data) # yahoo redirects to http://my.yahoo.com, so lets go there instead resp = opener.open('http://mail.yahoo.com') print resp.read() The author of this script looked into HTML script of yahoo log-in form and came up with this script. That log-in form contains two fields, one for users' Yahoo! ID and another one is for users' password. Here is how HTML code of that page for both of those fields looks like: User ID field: <input type="text" maxlength="96" class="yreg_ipt" size="17" value="" id="username" name="login"> Password field: <input type="password" maxlength="64" class="yreg_ipt" size="17" value="" id="passwd" name="passwd"> However, when I uploaded this code to Google App Engine I discovered that this log-in form keeps coming back to me, which, I assume, means that logging-in process didn't succeed. Why is it so?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 700 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711  | Next Page >