Search Results

Search found 20283 results on 812 pages for 'security context'.

Page 705/812 | < Previous Page | 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712  | Next Page >

• architecture and tools for a remote control application?

  - by slothbear

  I'm working on the design of a remote control application. From my iPhone or a web browser, I'll send a few commands. Soon my home computer will perform the commands and send back results. I know there are remote desktop apps, but I want something programmable, something simpler, and something that I wrote. My current direction is to use Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) as the message bus. The iPhone places some messages in a queue. My local Java/JRuby program notices the messages on the queue, performs the work and sends back status via a different queue. This will be a very low-volume application. At $1.00 for a million requests (plus a handful of data transfer charges), Amazon SQS looks a lot more affordable than having my own server of any type. And super reliable, that's important for me too. Are there better/standard toolkits or architectures for this kind of remote control? Cost is not a big issue, but I prefer the tons I learn by doing it myself. I'm moderately concerned about security, but doubt it will be a problem. The list of commands recognized will be very short, and only recognized in specific contexts. No "erase hard drive" stuff. update: I'll probably distribute these programs to some other people who want the same function, but who don't have Amazon SQS accounts. For now, they'll use anonymous access to my queues, with random 80-character queue names.

  Read the article

• Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

  - by Neil T.

  I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

  Read the article

• how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

  - by praksant

  Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

  Read the article

• How to implement a 'safe' periodical executer without using the Rails helpers?

  - by Robbie

  I am very new to Ruby on Rails and was never really big on writing JavaScript, so the built in helpers were like a tiny silce of heaven. However I have recently learned that using the helper methods creates "obtrusive javascript" so I am doing a tiny bit of refactoring to get all this messy code out of my view. I'm also using the Prototype API to figure out what all these functions do. Right now, I have: <%= periodically_call_remote(:url => {:action => "tablerefresh", :id => 1 }, :frequency => '5', :complete => "load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)")%> Which produces: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ new PeriodicalExecuter(function() {new Ajax.Request('/qrpsdrail/grids/tablerefresh/1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onComplete:function(request){load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)}, parameters:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('dfG7wWyVYEpelfdZvBWk7MlhzZoK7VvtT/HDi3w7gPM=')})}, 5) //]]> </script> My concern is that the "encodeURIComponent" and the presence of "authenticity_token" are generated by Rails. I'm assuming these are used to assure the validity of a request. (Ensuring a request comes from a currently active session?) If that is the case, how can I implement this in application.js 'safely'? It seems that the built in method, although obtrusive, does add some beneficial security. Thanks, in advance, to all who answer.

  Read the article

• Recursion in prepared statements

  - by Rob

  I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

  Read the article

• Is it possible to definitively identify whether a DML command was issued from a stored procedure?

  - by Ed Harper

  I have inherited a SQL Server 2008 database to which calling applications have access through stored procedures. Each table in the database has a shadow audit table into which Insert/Update/Delete operations for are logged. Performance testing on populating the audit tables showed that inserting the audit records using OUTPUT clauses was 20% or so faster than using triggers, so this has been implemented in the stored procedures. However, because this design cannot track changes made directly to the tables through DML statements issued directly against the tables, triggers have also been implemented which use the value of @@NESTLEVEL to determine whether or not to run the trigger (the assumption being that all DML run through stored procedures will have @@NESTLEVEL 1). i.e. the body of the trigger code looks something like: IF @@NESTLEVEL = 1 -- implies call is direct sql so generate history from here BEGIN ... insert into audit table This design is flawed because it won't track updates where DML statements are executed in dynamic SQL, or any other context where @@NESTLEVEL is raised above 1. Can anyone suggest a completely reliable method we can use in the triggers to execute them only if not triggered by a stored procedure? Or is this (as I suspect) not possible?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC URL Routing problem

  - by Sadegh

  hi, i have defined a route as below: context.MapRoute("SearchEngineWebSearch", "search/web/{query}/{index}/{size}", new { controller = "search", action = "web", query = "", index = 0, size = 5 }); and action method to handle request match with that: public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Web(string query = "", int index = 0, int size = 5) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) return RedirectToRoute("SearchEngineBasicSearch"); var search = new Search(); var results = search.PerformSearch(query, index, size); ViewData["Query"] = query; if (results != null && results.Count() > 0) { ViewData["Results"]= results; return View("Web"); } else return View("Not-Found"); } and form to sent parameter to action method: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Web", "Search", FormMethod.Post)) { %> <input name="query" type="text" value="<%: ViewData["Query"]%>" class="search-field" /> <input type="submit" value="Search" class="search-button" /> <input type="hidden" name="index" value="2" /> <input type="hidden" name="size" value="2" /> <%} %> now after click on submit and sending value to action method all route values updated but url values still is equals to first time of sending parameter. for example if i sent for first time request such as http://localhost/search/web/google and for next time http://localhost/search/web/yahoo, query parameter which passed to action method is yahoo but url after postback is http://localhost/search/web/google still! can anybody help me plz? ;)

  Read the article

• Model-binding an object from the repository by several keys

  - by Anton

  Suppose the following route: {region}/{storehouse}/{controller}/{action} These two parameters region and storehouse altogether identify a single entity - a Storehouse. Thus, a bunch of controllers are being called in the context of some storehouse. And I'd like to write actions like this: public ActionResult SomeAction(Storehouse storehouse, ...) Here I can read your thoughts: "Write custom model binder, man". I do. However, the question is How to avoid magic strings within custom model binder? Here is my current code: public class StorehouseModelBinder : IModelBinder { readonly IStorehouseRepository repository; public StorehouseModelBinder(IStorehouseRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { var region = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("region").AttemptedValue; var storehouse = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("storehouse").AttemptedValue; return repository.GetByKey(region, storehouse); } } If there was a single key, bindingContext.ModelName could be used... Probably, there is another way to supply all the actions with a Storehouse object, i.e. declaring it as a property of the controller and populating it in the Controller.Initialize.

  Read the article

• need to display info for user within active-directory

  - by Brad

  The following code will search for the user within the domain controller, but I want to display the info of each thing noted within the justthese variable: "displayname","mail","samaccountname","sn","givenname","department","telephonenumber" $dn = "dc=xxx,dc=xxx"; $justthese = array("displayname","mail","samaccountname","sn","givenname","department","telephonenumber"); $sr=ldap_search($ldapconn, $dn,'SAMAccountName=username', $justthese); $info = ldap_get_entries($ldapconn, $sr); echo "<h3>".$info["count"]." entries returned</h3>"; foreach($justthese as $key=>$value){ print '<p><strong>'.$value.'</strong></p>'; } It displays each item within the $justthese array, I want to display the info for that user for each thing noted in $justthese array. Right now it outputs it like this: displayname mail samaccountname sn givenname department telephonenumber I want it to have the actual data to the right of it, which I know I am doing something wrong with the foreach loop, any help is appreciated. So it'd look like this displayname Chuck mail [email protected] samaccountname chucknorris sn chuckisthebest givenname Chuck Norris department Security telephonenumber 555-555-5555

  Read the article

• Skipping the BufferedReader readLine() method in java

  - by DDP

  Is there a easy way to skip the readLine() method in java if it takes longer than, say, 2 seconds? Here's the context in which I'm asking this question: public void run() { boolean looping = true; while(looping) { for(int x = 0; x<clientList.size(); x++) { try { Comm s = clientList.get(x); String str = s.recieve(); // code that does something based on the string in the line above } // other stuff like catch methods } } } Comm is a class I wrote, and the receive method, which contains a BufferedReader called "in", is this: public String recieve() { try { if(active) return in.readLine(); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Comm Error 2: "+e); } return ""; } I've noticed that the program stops and waits for the input stream to have something to read before continuing. Which is bad, because I need the program to keep looping (as it loops, it goes to all the other clients and asks for input). Is there a way to skip the readLine() process if there's nothing to read? I'm also pretty sure that I'm not explaining this well, so please ask me questions if I'm being confusing.

  Read the article

• Tomcat deploy: make included scripts executable

  - by AlexS

  I'm devellopping a WebApplication (for Tomcat) using netbeans on Windows 7. For the Webapplication to run I need to run a insall-script once. This script (*.bat for windows and *.sh for linux is included in my war-file (WEB_INF). Now everytime I deploy the WAR-file and want to run the script on linux I have to call chmod +x install.sh first. Is there a way that this script can be made executable by default? I don't want to have to execute some extra commands after the deploy to make the script executable. For clarification: I'm not new to Linux and I know how to set executable-rights on files. That's not the problem. My problem is: What do I have to do, so that this script is executable right after tomcat deployed my *.war-file (unpacked it). If I would be using Linux for development as well, I would try to set the rights according in my sources (maybe I'll try it when I have a little more spare time). But I am using Windows and netbeans. Are there any attributes I can set to achive my goal, or is it possible to achive this using ant? By the way: Are there security related issues with this approach? The script looks for java executable and calls a javabased GUI-installer...

  Read the article

• How do I create a Status Icon / System Tray Icon with custom text and transparent background using P

  - by Raugturi

  Here is the code that I have so far to define the icon: icon_bg = gtk.gdk.pixbuf_new_from_file('gmail.png') w, h = icon_bg.get_width(), icon_bg.get_height() cmap = gtk.gdk.Colormap(gtk.gdk.visual_get_system(), False) drawable = gtk.gdk.Pixmap(None, w, h, 24) drawable.set_colormap = cmap gc = drawable.new_gc() drawable.draw_pixbuf(gc, icon_bg, 0, 0, 0, 0, w, h) drawn_icon = gtk.gdk.Pixbuf(gtk.gdk.COLORSPACE_RGB, False, 8, w, h) drawn_icon.get_from_drawable(drawable, cmap, 0, 0, 0, 0, w, h) icon = gtk.status_icon_new_from_pixbuf(drawn_icon) This works to get the png into the icon, but falls short in two areas. First, transparency is not working. If I use a 22x22 png with transparent background and the image centered, I end up with sections of other active icons showing up inside of mine, like this: http://i237.photobucket.com/albums/ff311/Raugturi/22x22_image_with_transparency.png The icon it choose to steal from is somewhat random. Sometimes it's part of the dropbox icon, others the NetworkManager Applet. If I instead use this code: icon_bg = gtk.gdk.pixbuf_new_from_file('gmail.png') w, h = icon_bg.get_width(), icon_bg.get_height() cmap = gtk.gdk.Colormap(gtk.gdk.visual_get_system(), False) drawable = gtk.gdk.Pixmap(None, w, h, 24) drawable.set_colormap = cmap gc = drawable.new_gc() drawable.draw_pixbuf(gc, icon_bg, 0, 0, 0, 0, w, h) drawn_icon = gtk.gdk.Pixbuf(gtk.gdk.COLORSPACE_RGB, False, 8, 22, 22) drawn_icon.get_from_drawable(drawable, cmap, 0, 0, 3, 6, w, h) icon = gtk.status_icon_new_from_pixbuf(drawn_icon) And an image that is only 16x11 with the transparent edges removed, what I end up with is this: Same URL but file is 16x11_image_positioned_in_middle.png So how do I end up with a transparent block like the 1st one that doesn't pull in stuff from other icons? As for the second problem, I need the ability to write on the image before converting it to the icon. I tried using draw_glyphs and it told me I should be using Pango layout/context instead. Unfortunately all the Pango tutorials I could find deal with actual windows, not the status icon. Is there a good tutorial out there for Pango that would apply to this issue (and also maybe have at least some explanation of how to tell it what font to use as all of them that I found seem to lack this and it won't write anything without it). Note: Sorry for the lack of actual images and only one working link, apparently this is a spam prevention feature due to my lack of reputation.

  Read the article

• Properly maintain sorted state of Array/Set

  - by Jeff

  I'm trying to get data out of my MOC and then create some new objects based on those objects, and put it all back together, while keeping my sort state. The securities come out of the MOC in proper order. And everything seems to be fine until I do the assignment to the game at the bottom from setWithArray. The documentation says that setWithArray removed the duplicate objects, if there are any. I'm wonder if that's messing up my data, but I don't see a good alternative. The data is ultimately being pulled out into a UITableView. When I add items to the game manually, then they stay sorted, so I don't think the breaking of the sort is beyond the scope of what I've included here. NSError *error; NSArray *allTheSecurities = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; if (allTheSecurities == nil) { // Handle the error. } [request release]; /**/ NSLog( @"Enumerate..." ); NSEnumerator *enumerator = [allTheSecurities objectEnumerator]; id anObject; NSMutableArray *portfolioStocks = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; while (anObject = [enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog( @"Iteration... %@", [anObject name] ); NSLog( @"Build a stock..." ); PortfolioStocks *this_stock = (PortfolioStocks *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"PortfolioStocks" inManagedObjectContext:context]; NSLog( @"Set a value..." ); [this_stock setSecurity:(Security *)anObject]; [this_stock setQuantity:[NSNumber numberWithInt:0]]; NSLog( @"Add to portfolioStocks..." ); [portfolioStocks addObject:this_stock]; } //Sorted properly up to here! NSLog( @"Add to portfolio..." ); [game setPortfolio:[NSSet setWithArray:portfolioStocks]]; // <-- This is where it's not sorted anymore.

  Read the article

• GridView will not update underlying data source

  - by John Christensen

  So I'm been pounding on this problem all day. I've got a LinqDataSource that points to my model and a GridView that consumes it. When I attempt to do an update on the GridView, it does not update the underlying data source. I thought it might have to do with the LinqDataSource, so I added a SqlDataSource and the same thing happens. The aspx is as follows (the code-behind page is empty): <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="Data Source=devsql32;Initial Catalog=Steam;Persist Security Info=True;" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient" SelectCommand="SELECT [LangID], [Code], [Name] FROM [Languages]" UpdateCommand="UPDATE [Languages] SET [Code]=@Code WHERE [LangID]=@LangId"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:GridView ID="_languageGridView" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="LangId" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1"> <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowDeleteButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LangId" HeaderText="Id" ReadOnly="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Code" HeaderText="Code" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:LinqDataSource ID="_languageDataSource" ContextTypeName="GeneseeSurvey.SteamDatabaseDataContext" runat="server" TableName="Languages" EnableInsert="True" EnableUpdate="true" EnableDelete="true"> </asp:LinqDataSource> What in the world am I missing here? This problem is driving me insane.

  Read the article

• Django 1.1 template question

  - by Bovril

  Hi All, I'm a little stuck trying to get my head around a django template. I have 2 objects, a cluster and a node I would like a simple page that lists... [Cluster 1] [associated node 1] [associated node 2] [associated node 3] [Cluster 2] [associated node 4] [associated node 5] [associated node 6] I've been using Django for about 2 days so if i've missed the point, please be gentle :) Models - class Node(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=30) description = models.TextField() cluster = models.ForeignKey(Cluster) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class Cluster(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=30) description = models.TextField() def __unicode__(self): return self.name Views - def DSAList(request): clusterlist = Cluster.objects.all() nodelist = Node.objects.all() t = loader.get_template('dsalist.html') v = Context({ 'CLUSTERLIST' : clusterlist, 'NODELIST' : nodelist, }) return HttpResponse(t.render(v)) Template - <body> <TABLE> {% for cluster in CLUSTERLIST %} <tr> <TD>{{ cluster.name }}</TD> {% for node in NODELIST %} {% if node.cluster.id == cluster.id %} <tr> <TD>{{ node.name }}</TD> </tr> {% endif %} {% endfor %} </tr> {% endfor %} </TABLE> </body> Any ideas ?

  Read the article

• How do you slow down the output from a DOS / windows command prompt

  - by JW

  I have lots of experience of writing php scripts that are run in the context of a webserver and almost no epxerience of writing php scripts for CLI or GUI output. I have used the command line for linux but do not have much expereince with DOS. Lets say I have php script that is: <?php echo('Hello world'); for ($idx = 0 ; $idx < 100 ; $idx++ ) { echo 'I am line '. $idx . PHP_EOL; } Then, I run it in my DOS Command prompt: # php helloworld.php Now this will spurt out the output quckly and i have to scroll the DOS command window up to see the output. I want to see the output one 'screen full' at a time. How do you do that from the perspective of a DOS user? Furthermore, although this is not my main main question, I would be also interested in knowing how to make the php script 'wait for input' from the command prompt.

  Read the article

• Different standard streams per POSIX thread

  - by Roman Nikitchenko

  Is there any possibility to achieve different redirections for standard output like printf(3) for different POSIX thread? What about standard input? I have lot of code based on standard input/output and I only can separate this code into different POSIX thread, not process. Linux operation system, C standard library. I know I can refactor code to replace printf() to fprintf() and further in this style. But in this case I need to provide some kind of context which old code doesn't have. So doesn't anybody have better idea (look into code below)? #include <pthread.h> #include <stdio.h> void* different_thread(void*) { // Something to redirect standard output which doesn't affect main thread. // ... // printf() shall go to different stream. printf("subthread test\n"); return NULL; } int main() { pthread_t id; pthread_create(&id, NULL, different_thread, NULL); // In main thread things should be printed normally... printf("main thread test\n"); pthread_join(id, NULL); return 0; }

  Read the article

• sql server mdf file database attachment

  - by jnsohnumr

  hello all i'm having a bear of a time getting visual studio 2010 (ultimate i think) to properly attach to my database. it was moved from original spot to #MYAPP#/#MYAPP#.Web/App_Data/#MDF_FILE#.mdf. I have three instances of sql server running on this machine. i have tried to replace the old mdf file with my new one and cannot get the connectionstring right for it. what i'm really wanting to do is to just open some DB instance, run a DB create script. Then I can have a DB that was generated via my edmx (generate database from model) in silverlight business application (c#) right now, when i go to server explorer in VS, choose add new connection, choose MS SQL Server Database FIle (SqlClient), choose my file location (app_data directory), use windows authentication, and hit the Test Connection button I get the following error: Unable to open the physical file "". Operating system error 5: "5(Access Denied.)". An attempt to attach to an auto-named database for file"" failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. The mdf file was created on the same machine by connecting to (local) on the sql server management studio, getting a new query, pasting in the SQL from the generated ddl file, adding a CREATE DATABASE [NcrCarDatabase]; GO before the pasted SQL, and executing the query. I then disconnected from the DB in management studio, closed management studio, navigated to the DATA directory for that instance, and copying the mdf and ldf files to my application's app_data folder. I am then trying to connect to the same file inside visual studio. I hope that gives more clarity to my problems :). Connection string is: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=C:\SourceCode\NcrCarDatabase\NcrCarDatabase.Web\App_Data\NcrCarDatabase.mdf;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True

  Read the article

• Using SMO to call Database.ExecuteNonQuery() concurrently?

  - by JimDaniel

  I have been banging my head against the wall trying to figure out how I can run update scripts concurrently against multiple databases in a single SQL Server instance using SMO. Our environments have an ever-increasing number of databases which need updating, and iterating through one at a time is becoming a problem (too slow). From what I understand SMO does not support concurrent operations, and my tests have bore that out. There seems to be shared memory at the Server object level, for things like DataReader context, keeps throwing exceptions such as "reader is already open." I apologize for not having the exact exceptions I am getting. I will try to get them and update this post. I am no expert on SMO and just feeling my way through to be honest. Not really sure I am approaching it the right way, but it's something that has to be done, or our productivity will slow to a crawl. So how would you guys do something like this? Am I using the wrong technology with SMO? All I am wanting to do is execute sql scripts against databases in a single sql server instance in parallel. Thanks for any help you can give, Daniel

  Read the article

• error invoking store procedure with input parameter from ADO.Net

  - by George2

  Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + .Net 3.5 + ADO.Net. Here is my code and related error message. The error message says, @Param1 is not supplied, but actually it is supplied in my code. Any ideas what is wrong? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Procedure or function 'Pr_Foo' expects parameter '@Param1', which was not supplied. class Program { private static SqlCommand _command; private static SqlConnection connection; private static readonly string _storedProcedureName = "Pr_Foo"; private static readonly string connectionString = "server=.;integrated Security=sspi;initial catalog=FooDB"; public static void Prepare() { connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); _command = connection.CreateCommand(); _command.CommandText = _storedProcedureName; _command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; } public static void Dispose() { connection.Close(); } public static void Run() { try { SqlParameter Param1 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param1", SqlDbType.Int, 300101); Param1.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; SqlParameter Param2 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param2", SqlDbType.Int, 100); portal_SiteInfoID.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; SqlParameter Param3 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param3", SqlDbType.Int, 200); portal_RoleInfoID.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; _command.ExecuteScalar(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e); } } static void Main(string[] args) { try { Prepare(); Thread t1 = new Thread(Program.Run); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); Dispose(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message + "\t" + ex.StackTrace); } } } thanks in avdance, George

  Read the article

• How do I use Core Data with the Cocoa Text Input system?

  - by the Joel

  Hobbyist Cocoa programmer here. Have been looking around all the usual places, but this seems relatively under-explained: I am writing something a little out of the ordinary. It is much simpler than, but similar to, a desktop publishing app. I want editable text boxes on a canvas, arbitrarily placed. This is document-based and I’d really like to use Core Data. Now, The cocoa text-handling system seems to deal with a four-class structure: NSTextStorage, NSLayoutManager, NSTextContainer and finally NSTextView. I have looked into these and know how to use them, sort of. Have been making some prototypes and it works for simple apps. The problem arrives when I get into persistency. I don't know how to, by way of Cocoa Bindings or something else, store the contents of NSTextStorage (= the actual text) in my managed object context. I have considered overriding methods pairs like -words, -setWords: in these objects. This would let me link the words to a String, which I know how to store in Core Data. However, I’d have to override any method that affects the text - and that seems a little much. Thankful for any insights.

  Read the article

• PreparedStatement question in Java against Oracle.

  - by fardon57

  Hi everyone, I'm working on the modification of some code to use preparedStatement instead of normal Statement, for security and performance reason. Our application is currently storing information into an embedded derby database, but we are going to move soon to Oracle. I've found two things that I need your help guys about Oracle and Prepared Statement : 1- I've found this document saying that Oracle doesn't handle bind parameters into IN clauses, so we cannot supply a query like : Select pokemon from pokemonTable where capacity in (?,?,?,?) Is that true ? Is there any workaround ? ... Why ? 2- We have some fields which are of type TIMESTAMP. So with our actual Statement, the query looks like this : Select raichu from pokemonTable where evolution = TO_TIMESTAMP('2500-12-31 00:00:00.000', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS.FF') What should be done for a prepared Statement ? Should I put into the array of parameters : 2500-12-31 or TO_TIMESTAMP('2500-12-31 00:00:00.000', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS.FF') ? Thanks for your help, I hope my questions are clear ! Regards,

  Read the article

• VS2010 Web Deploy: how to remove absolute paths and automate setAcl?

  - by Julien Lebosquain

  The integrated Web Deployment in Visual Studio 2010 is pretty nice. It can create a package ready to be deployed using MSDeploy on a target IIS machine. Problem is, this package will be redistributed to a client that will install it himself using the "Import Application" from IIS when MSDeploy is installed. The default package created always include the full path from the development machine, "D:\Dev\XXX\obj\Debug\Package\PackageTmp" in the source manifest file. It doesn't prevent installation of course since it was designed this way, but it looks ugly in the import dialog and has no meaning to the client. Worse he will wonder what are those paths and it looks quite confusing. By customizing the .csproj file (by adding MSBuild properties used by the package creation task), I managed to add additional parameters to the package. However, I spent most of the afternoon in the 2600 lines long Web.Publishing.targets trying to understand what parameter influenced the "development path" behavior, in vain. I also tried to use the setAcl to customize security on a given folder after deployment, but I only managed to do this with MSBuild by using a relative path... it shouldn't matter if I resolve the first problem though. I could modify the generated archive after its creation but I would prefer if everything was automatized using MSBuild. Does anyone know how to do that?

  Read the article

• Need help with strange Class#getResource() issue

  - by Andreas_D

  I have some legacy code that reads a configuration file from an existing jar, like: URL url = SomeClass.class.getResource("/configuration.properties"); // some more code here using url variable InputStream in = url.openStream(); Obviously it worked before but when I execute this code, the URL is valid but I get an IOException on the third line, saying it can't find the file. The url is something like "file:jar:c:/path/to/jar/somejar.jar!configuration.properties" so it doesn't look like a classpath issue - java knows pretty well where the file can be found.. The above code is part of an ant task and it fails while the task is executed. Strange enough - I copied the code and the jar file into a separate class and it works as expected, the properties file is readable. At some point I changed the code of the ant task to URL url = SomeClass.class.getResource("/configuration.properties"); // some more code here using url variable InputStream in = SomeClass.class.getResourceAsStream("/configuration.properties"); and now it works - just until it crashes in another class where a similiar access pattern is implemented.. Why could it have worked before, why does it fail now? The only difference I see at the moment is, that the old build was done with java 1.4 while I'm trying it with Java 6 now. Workaround Today I installed Java 1.4.2_19 on the build server and made ant to use it. To my totally frustrating surprise: The problem is gone. It looks to me, that java 1.4.2 can handle URLs of this type while Java 1.6 can't (at least in my context/environment). I'm still hoping for an explanation although I'm facing the work to rewrite parts of the code to use Class#getRessourceAsStream which behaved much more stable...

  Read the article

• Windows 7 Create Folder in "Program Files" failing in C# code even thought I have admin rights!

  - by Shiva

  Hi, I am unable to create a file under "program files" folder on my Windows 7 64-bit machine in VS 2008 WPF C# code. The error I get on the following code myFile = File.Create(logFile); is the following. (this is the innerException stack trace). at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options) at System.IO.File.Create(String path) at MyFirm.MyPricingApp.UI.App.InitializeLogging() in C:\Projects\MyPricingApp\App.xaml.cs:line 150 at MyFirm.MyPricingApp.UI.App.Application_Startup(Object sender, StartupEventArgs e) in C:\Projects\MyPricingApp\App.xaml.cs:line 38 at System.Windows.Application.OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Application.<.ctor>b__0(Object unused) at System.Windows.Threading.ExceptionWrapper.InternalRealCall(Delegate callback, Object args, Boolean isSingleParameter) at System.Windows.Threading.ExceptionWrapper.TryCatchWhen(Object source, Delegate callback, Object args, Boolean isSingleParameter, Delegate catchHandler) this seems like it has something to do with UAC in Windows 7, because why else would I get this since my user is already Admin on the machine ?! Also since the WinIOError has SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES, I am thinking this has something to do with a "new way" security is handled in Windows 7. I tried to browse to the "Program Files" folder, under which the log folder and file were to be created. I can create the folder by hand, but when i try to create the file, I get the similar "Access Denied" exception.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712  | Next Page >