Search Results

Search found 22641 results on 906 pages for 'use case'.

Page 705/906 | < Previous Page | 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712  | Next Page >

• How to get rid of the GUI access from shared library.

  - by Inso Reiges

  Hello, In my project i have a shared library with cross-platform code that provides a very convenient abstraction for a number of its clients. To be more specific, this library provides data access to encrypted files generated by main application on a number of platforms. There is a great deal of complicated code there that implements cryptographic protocols and as such is very error-prone and should be shared as much as possible across clients and platforms. However parsing all this encrypted stuff requires asking user for a number of different secrets ones in a while. The secret can be either a password, a number of shared passwords or a public key file and this list is a hot target for extension in the future. I can't really ask the user for any of those secrets beforehand from main application, because i really don't know what i need to ask for until i start working with the encrypted data directly in the library code. So i will have to create dialogs and call them from the library code. However i really see this as a bad idea, because (among other things) there is a possibility of a windows service using it and services can't have GUI access. The question is, are there any known ways or patterns to get rid of the GUI calls that are suitable for my case? Thank you.

  Read the article

• How Can I: Generate 40/64 Bit WEP Key In Python?

  - by Aktariel

  So, I've been beating my head against the wall of this issue for several months now, partly because it's a side interest and partly because I suck at programming. I've searched and researched all across the web, but have not had any luck (except one small bit of success; see below), so I thought I might try asking the experts. What I am trying to do is, as the title suggests, generate a 40/64 bit WEP key from a passphrase, according to the "de facto" standard. (A site such as [http://www.powerdog.com/wepkey.cgi] produces the expected outputs.) I have already written portions of the script that take inputs and write them to a file; one of the inputs would be the passphrase, sanitized to lower case. For the longest time I had no idea what the defacto standard was, much less how to even go about implementing it. I finally stumbled across a paper (http://www.lava.net/~newsham/wlan/WEP_password_cracker.pdf) that sheds as much light as I've had yet on the issue (page 18 has the relevant bits). Apparently, the passphrase is "mapped to a 32-bit value with XOR," the result of which is then used as the seed for a "linear congruential PRNG (which one of the several PRNGs Python has would fit this description, I don't know), and then from that result several bits of the result are taken. I have no idea how to go about implementing this, since the description is rather vague. What I need is help in writing the generator in Python, and also in understanding how exactly the key is generated. I'm not much of a programmer, so explanations are appreciated as well. (Yes, I know that WEP isn't secure.)

  Read the article

• getting proxies of the correct type in nhibernate

  - by Nir

  I have a problem with uninitialized proxies in nhibernate The Domain Model Let's say I have two parallel class hierarchies: Animal, Dog, Cat and AnimalOwner, DogOwner, CatOwner where Dog and Cat both inherit from Animal and DogOwner and CatOwner both inherit from AnimalOwner. AnimalOwner has a reference of type Animal called OwnedAnimal. Here are the classes in the example: public abstract class Animal { // some properties } public class Dog : Animal { // some more properties } public class Cat : Animal { // some more properties } public class AnimalOwner { public virtual Animal OwnedAnimal {get;set;} // more properties... } public class DogOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } public class CatOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } The classes have proper nhibernate mapping, all properties are persistent and everything that can be lazy loaded is lazy loaded. The application business logic only let you to set a Dog in a DogOwner and a Cat in a CatOwner. The Problem I have code like this: public void ProcessDogOwner(DogOwner owner) { Dog dog = (Dog)owner.OwnedAnimal; .... } This method can be called by many diffrent methods, in most cases the dog is already in memory and everything is ok, but rarely the dog isn't already in memory - in this case I get an nhibernate "uninitialized proxy" but the cast throws an exception because nhibernate genrates a proxy for Animal and not for Dog. I understand that this is how nhibernate works, but I need to know the type without loading the object - or, more correctly I need the uninitialized proxy to be a proxy of Cat or Dog and not a proxy of Animal. Constraints I can't change the domain model, the model is handed to me by another department, I tried to get them to change the model and failed. The actual model is much more complicated then the example and the classes have many references between them, using eager loading or adding joins to the queries is out of the question for performance reasons. I have full control of the source code, the hbm mapping and the database schema and I can change them any way I want (as long as I don't change the relationships between the model classes). I have many methods like the one in the example and I don't want to modify all of them. Thanks, Nir

  Read the article

• Configuring zend to use gmail smtp: Windows Apache dev-environment: "Could not open socket" error - repeatedly - going mad

  - by confused

  My dev environment is Win XP SP2 / Apache 2.something PHP 5.something_or_other My prod env is Linux Ubuntu / Apache 2.something_else PHP 5.something_or_other_else The code is all Zend Framework Version: 1.11.1 I can telnet to: smtp.gmail.com 465 from the PC. I have Mercury configured on my PC to use gmail as it's smtp host and it works just fine. (MercuryC SMTP Client). Mercury is set to use port 465 and SSL on smtp.gmail.com -- No problem. Zend mail works just fine on my production environment using the production mail server to send out mail. It's the same basic application.ini but with different values in the mail variables. On my local PC dev setup, my application.ini contains: (same values as I use in Mercury) mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "myAccount" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.gmail.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "myPassWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I have been doing trial and error for hours trying to get a single email out with no success. In every case, regardless of server or port settings it throws an error and reports: Could not open socket. Both Apache and Mercury Core are exceptions in my Windows Firewall config. Mercury seems to be having no problem. I have searched stackoverflow before posting this and have been googling for hours -- with no success. I am slowly losing my mind I would be very much obliged for any tip as to what might be wrong. Thanks for reading. =================== BTW When I use the SAME application.ini values on my local PC as on the production host, I get the same "Could not open socket" error. Those values are: mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "otherUser" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.otherServer.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "otherPAssWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I know these work in the production (Ubuntu) environment. I'm utterly baffled.

  Read the article

• Calling a SLSB with Seam security from a servlet

  - by wilth

  Hello, I have an existing application written in SEAM that uses SEAM Security (http://docs.jboss.org/seam/2.1.1.GA/reference/en-US/html/security.html). In a stateless EJB, I might find something like this: @In Identity identity; ... if(identity.hasRole("admin")) throw new AuthException(); As far as I understand, Seam injects the Identity object from the SessionContext of the servlet that invokes the EJB (this happens "behind the scenes", since Seam doesn't really use servlets) and removes it after the call. Is this correct? Is it now possible to access this EJB from another servlet (in this case, that servlet is the server side of a GWT application)? Do I have to "inject" the correct Identity instance? If I don't do anything, Seam injects an instance, but doesn't correctly correlate the sessions and instances of Identity (so the instances of Identity are shared between sessions and sometimes calls get new instances etc.). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

  Read the article

• Divide a path into N sections using Java or PostgreSQL/PostGIS

  - by Guido

  Imagine a GPS tracking system that is following the position of several objects. The points are stored in a database (PostgreSQL + PostGIS). Each path is composed by a different number of points. That is the reason why, in order to compare a pair of paths, I need to divide every path in a set of 100 points. Do you know any PostGIS function that already implement this algorithm? I've not been able to find it. If not, I'd like to solve it using Java. In this case I'd like to know an efficient and easy to implement algorithm to divide a path into N points. The most simple example could be to divide this path into three points: position 1 : x=1, y=2 position 2 : x=1, y=3 And the result should be: position 1 : x=1, y=2 (starting point) position 2 : x=5, y=2.5 position 3 : x=9, y=3 (end point) Edit: By 'compare a pair of paths' I mean to calculate the distance between two paths. I plan to divide each path in 100 points, and sum the euclidean distance between each one of these points as the distance between the two paths.

  Read the article

• DAL Layer : EF 4.0 or Normal Data access layer with Stored Procedure

  - by Harryboy

  Hello Experts, Application : I am working on one mid-large size application which will be used as a product, we need to decide on our DAL layer. Application UI is in Silverlight and DAL layer is going to be behind service layer. We are also moving ahead with domain model, so our DB tables and domain classes are not having same structure. So patterns like Data Mapper and Repository will definitely come into picture. I need to design DAL Layer considering below mentioned factors in priority manner Speed of Development with above average performance Maintenance Future support and stability of the technology Performance Limitation : 1) As we need to strictly go ahead with microsoft, we can not use NHibernate or any other ORM except EF 4.0 2) We can use any code generation tool (Should be Open source or very cheap) but it should only generate code in .Net, so there would not be any licensing issue on per copy basis. Questions I read so many articles about EF 4.0, on outset it looks like that it is still lacking in features from NHibernate but it is considerably better then EF 1.0 So, Do you people feel that we should go ahead with EF 4.0 or we should stick to ADO .Net and use any code geneartion tool like code smith or any other you feel best Also i need to answer questions like what time it will take to port application from EF 4.0 to ADO .Net if in future we stuck up with EF 4.0 for some features or we are having serious performance issue. In reverse case if we go ahead and choose ADO .Net then what time it will take to swith to EF 4.0 Lastly..as i was going through the article i found the code only approach (with POCO classes) seems to be best suited for our requirement as switching is really easy from one technology to other. Please share your thoughts on the same and please guide on the above questions

  Read the article

• razor websites not working and all dlls are present

  - by Michael Tot Korsgaard

  I've uploaded a .cshtml website to a surftown server, and I got some problems running the code. But I have a problem with it running the Razor code. This is how the page renders:(Default.cshtml) I've already checked for internal communication problems. And this is my result: But then why isn't it working, and how can I fix it? I've heard that it can be a problem with views but how whould I fix this if that's the case? My websites folder tree: (And some files too) App_Code App_Data packages Microsoft.AspNet.Razor.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.Administration.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.Data.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.WebData.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Web.Infrastructure.1.0.0.0 NuGet.Core.1.6.2 bin packages jQuery.2.0.3 Content Scripts Tools Microsoft.AspNet.Mvc.4.0.30506.0 lib net40 Microsoft.AspNet.Razor.2.0.30506.0 lib net40 Microsoft.AspNet.WebPages.2.0.30506.0 lib net40 Pages Chapters Read.cshtml Edit Move Chapter.cshtml Entry.cshtml Entries EnterEntry.cshtml EnterNote.cshtml Login Login.cshtml Search Result.cshtml Scripts Addons TinyMCE Styles CSS Views _Layout.cshtml Default.cshtml My web.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0"> <buildProviders> <add extension=".cshtml" type="System.Web.WebPages.Razor.RazorBuildProvider, System.Web.WebPages.Razor"/> </buildProviders> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </assemblies> </compilation> </system.web> <connectionStrings> <add connectionString="database connection" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> </configuration> EDIT: Is it a problem that all my files are .cshtml?

  Read the article

• Parsing basic math equations for children's educational software?

  - by Simucal

  Inspired by a recent TED talk, I want to write a small piece of educational software. The researcher created little miniature computers in the shape of blocks called "Siftables". [David Merril, inventor - with Siftables in the background.] There were many applications he used the blocks in but my favorite was when each block was a number or basic operation symbol. You could then re-arrange the blocks of numbers or operation symbols in a line, and it would display an answer on another siftable block. So, I've decided I wanted to implemented a software version of "Math Siftables" on a limited scale as my final project for a CS course I'm taking. What is the generally accepted way for parsing and interpreting a string of math expressions, and if they are valid, perform the operation? Is this a case where I should implement a full parser/lexer? I would imagine interpreting basic math expressions would be a semi-common problem in computer science so I'm looking for the right way to approach this. For example, if my Math Siftable blocks where arranged like: [1] [+] [2] This would be a valid sequence and I would perform the necessary operation to arrive at "3". However, if the child were to drag several operation blocks together such as: [2] [\] [\] [5] It would obviously be invalid. Ultimately, I want to be able to parse and interpret any number of chains of operations with the blocks that the user can drag together. Can anyone explain to me or point me to resources for parsing basic math expressions? I'd prefer as much of a language agnostic answer as possible.

  Read the article

• Join + IEqualityComparer<T> and HashCode

  - by Jesus Rodriguez

  Im writing my own LINQ reference but Im getting troubles with some of the more complicated operators implementations. There is a Join implementation that takes a IEqualityComparer Im getting just crazy. Im trying to understand it first before I write (obviously) Image this two lists: List<string> initials = new List<string> {"A", "B", "C", "D", "E"}; List<string> words = new List<string> {"Ant", "Crawl", "Pig", "Boat", "Elephant", "Arc"}; Nothing weird here. I want to join both lists by the Initial, something like: Initial=A Word=Ant Initial=A Word=Arc Initial=B Word=Boat ... I need a comparator, I wrote this: public class InitialComparator : IEqualityComparer<string> { public bool Equals(string x, string y) { return x.StartsWith(y); } public int GetHashCode(string obj) { return obj[0].GetHashCode(); } } The Join itself: var blah = initials.Join(words, initial => initial, word => word, (initial, word) => new {Initial = initial, Word = word}, new InitialComparator()); It's the first time Im using HashCodes, after a good session of debugging I see that every word go to the comparator and look at its HashCode, if another word has the same HashCode it calls equals. Since I want to compare just the initial I though that I just need the first letter Hash (Am I wrong?) The thing is that this is not working correctly. Its says that "Ant" and "Arc" are equals, Ok, its comparing every word in the same list or not, But it adds only the last word it finds, in this case Arc, ignoring Ant and Ant is equals to "A" too... If I put "Ant" and "Ant" it add both. In short, What is the way of doing something like that? I know that Im doing something wrong. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Multhreading in Java

  - by Vijay Selvaraj

  I'm working with core java and IBM Websphere MQ 6.0. We have a standalone module say DBcomponent that hits the database and fetches a resultset based on the runtime query. The query is passed to the application via MQ messaging medium. We have a trigger configured for the queue which invokes the DBComponent whenever a message is available in the queue. The DBComponent consumes the message, constructs the query and returns the resultset to another queue. In this overall process we use log4j to log statements on a log file for auditing. The connection is pooled to the database using Apache pool. I am trying to check whether the log messages are logged correctly using a sample program. The program places the input message to the queue and checks for the logs in the log file. Its expected for the trigger method invocation to complete before i try to check for the message in log file, but every time my program to check for log message gets executed first leading my check to failure. Even if i introduce a Thread.sleep(time) doesn't solves the case. How can i make it to keep my method execution waiting until the trigger operation completes? Any suggestion will be helpful.

  Read the article

• PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

  - by sunwukung

  Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

  Read the article

• PHP $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] vs. $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], am I understanding the man pages correctly?

  - by Jeff

  I did a lot of searching and also read the PHP $_SERVER man page. Do I have this right regarding which to use for my PHP scripts for simple link definitions used throughout my site? $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'] is based on your web servers' config file (Apache2 in my case), and varies depending on a few directives: (1) VirtualHost, (2) ServerName, (3) UseCanonicalName, etc. $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is based on the request from the client. Therefore, it would seem to me that the proper one to use in order to make my scripts as compatible as possible would be $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST']. Is this assumption correct? Followup comments: I guess I got a little paranoid after reading this article and noting that someone said "they wouldn't trust any of the $_SERVER vars": http://markjaquith.wordpress.com/2009/09/21/php-server-vars-not-safe-in-forms-or-links/ and also: http://www.php.net/manual/en/reserved.variables.server.php (comment: Vladimir Kornea 14-Mar-2009 01:06) Apparently the discussion is mainly about $_SERVER['PHP_SELF'] and why you shouldn't use it in the form action attribute without proper escaping to prevent XSS attacks. My conclusion about my original question above is that it is "safe" to use $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] for all links on a site without having to worry about XSS attacks, even when used in forms. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

  Read the article

• Phonegap bluetooth plugin not working

  - by user2907333

  First time poster here , so I'm sorry if this question is asked incorrect or if there are any issues. I'm working on a phonegap app for which I need to be able to set up a bluetooth connection between a tablet (android in this case) and a Win CE PC. Currently i'm trying to get the bluetooth part to work on the tablet and i'm using the plug in you can find at https://github.com/tanelih/phonegap-bluetooth-plugin And for the momemt I'm just trying to enable and disable the Bluetooth on the device. In my bluetoothpage.js file i'm using the following method window.bluetooth.prototype.enable(bluetoothTestSucces(),bluetoothTestFail()); The bluetoothTestSucces and bluetoothTestFail functions just show an alert, nothing else. And if i understand the working of phonegap plugins correctly this uses the following code in my bluetooth.js file Bluetooth.prototype.enable = function(onSuccess, onError) { exec(onSuccess, onError, "Bluetooth", "enable", []); } which calls private void enable(JSONArray args, CallbackContext callbackCtx) { try { _bluetooth.enable(); callbackCtx.success(); } catch(Exception e) { this.error(callbackCtx, e.getMessage(), BluetoothError.ERR_UNKNOWN); } } in my BluetoothPlugin.java file. And if the java file returns Succes bluetoothTestSucces() is used and if the java file returns an error bluetoothTestFail() is used. But for some reason it runs both and does not turn on bluetooth on my device. I'm almost certain I've forgotten a link to a file or have linked it wrong somewhere. But I've followed the instructions that were included in the plugin. I've included the Bluetooth permission in my AndoridManifest file which is located in the root directory of my app I've included the plugin in my config.xml file which is located in res/xml I've required the plugin after the deviceready event as follows document.addEventListener("deviceready", onDeviceReady, false); function onDeviceReady() { window.bluetooth = cordova.require("cordova/plugin/bluetooth"); } Could anyone tell me how to fix this or what i've done wrong? thanks Martijn PS: I'm sorry for any language errors, English isn't my native language. edit: forgot to include some code

  Read the article

• How is conversion of float/double to int handled in printf?

  - by Sandip

  Consider this program int main() { float f = 11.22; double d = 44.55; int i,j; i = f; //cast float to int j = d; //cast double to int printf("i = %d, j = %d, f = %d, d = %d", i,j,f,d); //This prints the following: // i = 11, j = 44, f = -536870912, d = 1076261027 return 0; } Can someone explain why the casting from double/float to int works correctly in the first case, and does not work when done in printf? This program was compiled on gcc-4.1.2 on 32-bit linux machine. EDIT: Zach's answer seems logical, i.e. use of format specifiers to figure out what to pop off the stack. However then consider this follow up question: int main() { char c = 'd'; // sizeof c is 1, however sizeof character literal // 'd' is equal to sizeof(int) in ANSI C printf("lit = %c, lit = %d , c = %c, c = %d", 'd', 'd', c, c); //this prints: lit = d, lit = 100 , c = d, c = 100 //how does printf here pop off the right number of bytes even when //the size represented by format specifiers doesn't actually match //the size of the passed arguments(char(1 byte) & char_literal(4 bytes)) return 0; } How does this work?

  Read the article

• Calling QAxWidget method outside of the GUI thread

  - by user304361

  I'm beginning to wonder if this is impossible, but I thought I'd ask in case there's a clever way to get around the problems I'm having. I have a Qt application that uses an ActiveX control. The control is held by a QAxWidget, and the QAxWidget itself is contained within another QWidget (I needed to add additional signals/slots to the widget, and I couldn't just subclass QAxWidget because the class doesn't permit that). When I need to interact with the ActiveX control, I call a method of the QWidget, which in turn calls the dynamicCall method of the QAxWidget in order to invoke the appropriate method of the ActiveX control. All of that is working fine. However, one method of the ActiveX control takes several seconds to return. When I call this method, my entire GUI locks up for a few seconds until the method returns. This is undesirable. I'd like the ActiveX control to go off and do its processing by itself and come back to me when it's done without locking up the Qt GUI. I've tried a few things without success: Creating a new QThread and calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall from the new thread Connecting a signal to the appropriate slot method of the QAxWidget and calling the method using signals/slots instead of using dynamicCall Calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall using QtConcurrent::run Nothing seems to affect the behavior. No matter how or where I use dynamicCall (or trigger the appropriate slot of the QAxWidget), the GUI locks until the ActiveX control completes its operation. Is there any way to detach this ActiveX processing from the Qt GUI thread so that the GUI doesn't lock up while the ActiveX control is running a method? Is there something clever I can do with QAxBase or QAxObject to get my desired results?

  Read the article

• Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

  - by manu08

  I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Combo box in a scrollable panel causing problems

  - by Dennis

  I have a panel with AutoScroll set to true. In it, I am programmatically adding ComboBox controls. If I add enough controls to exceed the viewable size of the panel a scroll bar appears (so far so good). However, if I open one of the combo boxes near the bottom of the viewable area the combo list isn't properly displayed and the scrollable area seems to be expanded. This results in all of the controls being "pulled" to the new bottom of the panel with some new blank space at the top. If I continue to tap on the drop down at the bottom of the panel the scrollable area will continue to expand indefinitely. I'm anchoring the controls to the left, right and top so I don't think anchoring is involved. Is there something obvious that could be causing this? Update: It looks like the problem lies with anchoring the controls to the right. If I don't anchor to the right then I don't get the strange behavior. However, without right anchoring the control gets cut off by the scroll bar. Here's a simplified test case I built that shows the issue: public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); Panel panel = new Panel(); panel.Size = new Size(80, 200); panel.AutoScroll = true; for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { ComboBox cb = new ComboBox(); cb.Anchor = AnchorStyles.Left | AnchorStyles.Right | AnchorStyles.Top; cb.Items.Add("Option 1"); cb.Items.Add("Option 2"); cb.Items.Add("Option 3"); cb.Items.Add("Option 4"); cb.Location = new Point(0, i * 24); panel.Controls.Add(cb); } Controls.Add(panel); } If you scroll the bottom of the panel and tap on the combo boxes near the bottom you'll notice the strange behavior.

  Read the article

• I deleted a full set of columns in a save, but have the original larger sheet, Can I get that back?

  - by Ben Henley

  I have an original sheet that has over 39000 lines in it. I knocked it down to 1800 lines that I want to improt into my database, however. The Dumb#$$ that I am, I selected only the visible cells and killed like 10 columns that I need. Is there a way to compare to the original sheet using a specific column... i.e. SKU and pull the data from the origianal to put back in the missing columns or do I have to just re-edit the whole thing down again. Please help as this takes a good day or two to minimize. Any and all help is much appreciated. Below is the column list on the edited sheet vs. the original sheet. SKU DESCRIPTION VENDOR PART # RETAIL UNIT CONVERSION RETAIL U/M RETAIL DEPARTMENT VENDOR NAME SELL PACK QUANTITY BREAK SELL PACK FLAG BLISH VENDOR # FINE LINE CLASS ITEM ACTION FLAG PRIMARY UPC STOCK U/M WEIGHT LENGTH WIDTH HEIGHT SHIP-VIA EXCLUSION HAZARDOUS CODE PRICE SUGGESTED RETAIL SKU DESCRIPTION RETAIL UNIT CONVERSION RETAIL U/M RETAIL DEPARTMENT VENDOR NAME SELL PACK QUANTITY BREAK SELL PACK FLAG FINE LINE CLASS HAZARDOUS CODE PRICE SUGGESTED RETAIL RETAIL SENSITIVITY CODE 2ND UPC CODE 3RD UPC CODE 4TH UPC CODE HEADLINE BULLET #1 BULLET #2 BULLET #3 BULLET #4 BULLET #5 BULLET #6 BULLET #7 BULLET #8 BULLET #9 SIZE COLOR CASE QUANTITY PRODUCT LINE Thanks, Ben

  Read the article

• setlocale to fr-FR in PHP and number formatting

  - by bateman_ap

  Hi, I am trying to create a French version of one of my sites. I have set setlocale(LC_ALL, 'fr_FR'); at the top of my page, and using strftime I am displaying dates correctly in the French style. However I am having some problems with a number. Part of the page uses data I am getting from a Web Service. I am assigning a returned value to a var like this: $overallRating = $returnArray['Overall']; I am then using the following code later to format it to 1 decimal place number_format($overallRating,1) In the English version the overallRating value might be 7.5 and returns a value such as 7.5 (the reason for running it through the number_format is if it returns 7 I want it to display 7.0) However in the French version if I print out the raw $overallRating value I get 7,5 which looks like it has translated it into french. This would be fine but if I run it through number_format I get the error: Notice: A non well formed numeric value encountered in /sites/index.php on line 250 Line 250 is the number_format line I presume the translation to 7,5 is messing it up, but not sure how to solve this... Using PHP 5.3 in case there is anything new that helps me

  Read the article

• [UNIX] Sort lines of massive file by number of words on line (ideally in parallel)

  - by conradlee

  I am working on a community detection algorithm for analyzing social network data from Facebook. The first task, detecting all cliques in the graph, can be done efficiently in parallel, and leaves me with an output like this: 17118 17136 17392 17064 17093 17376 17118 17136 17356 17318 12345 17118 17136 17356 17283 17007 17059 17116 Each of these lines represents a unique clique (a collection of node ids), and I want to sort these lines in descending order by the number of ids per line. In the case of the example above, here's what the output should look like: 17118 17136 17356 17318 12345 17118 17136 17356 17283 17118 17136 17392 17064 17093 17376 17007 17059 17116 (Ties---i.e., lines with the same number of ids---can be sorted arbitrarily.) What is the most efficient way of sorting these lines. Keep the following points in mind: The file I want to sort could be larger than the physical memory of the machine Most of the machines that I'm running this on have several processors, so a parallel solution would be ideal An ideal solution would just be a shell script (probably using sort), but I'm open to simple solutions in python or perl (or any language, as long as it makes the task simple) This task is in some sense very easy---I'm not just looking for any old solution, but rather for a simple and above all efficient solution

  Read the article

• Is there the equivalent of cloud computing for modems?

  - by morpheous

  I asked this question on SF, and someone recommended that I ask it here - (I don't think I have enough points to move a question from SF to SO - and in any case, I don't know how to do it - so here is the question again): I am interested in the concept of PAAS (platform as a service). However, all talk about SAAS/PAAS seems to focus on only the computer itself - not its peripherals. Is it possible to 'outsource' modems as a resource - so that an app running remotely can pump data to a modem in the cloud? As a bit of background to the question, a group of us are thinking of starting a company that offers similar services to companies like twilio etc - but I want to 'outsource' both the computing hardware (thats PAAS - the easy bit) and the modems (thats what I cant seem to find any info on). Does anyone know if modems can be bundled as part of a PAAS service? - alternatively, is there a way that an application running on one computer can communicate (i.e. pump data) to a remote modem residing on another machine?. I assume I can come up with some protocol over UDP or TCP - but there is no point reinventing the wheel - if such a protocol like that already exists (or if it some open source software allows one to do this). Any suggestions on how to solve this problem?

  Read the article

• Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

  - by Matt Davis

  I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

  Read the article

• HTTP POST prarameters order / REST urls

  - by pq

  Let's say that I'm uploading a large file via a POST HTTP request. Let's also say that I have another parameter (other than the file) that names the resource which the file is updating. The resource cannot be not part of the URL the way you can do it with REST (e.g. foo.com/bar/123). Let's say this is due to a combination of technical and political reasons. The server needs to ignore the file if the resource name is invalid or, say, the IP address and/or the logged in user are not authorized to update the resource. Looks like, if this POST came from an HTML form that contains the resource name first and file field second, for most (all?) browsers, this order is preserved in the POST request. But it would be naive to fully rely on that, no? In other words the order of HTTP parameters is insignificant and a client is free to construct the POST in any order. Isn't that true? Which means that, at least in theory, the server may end up storing the whole large file before it can deny the request. It seems to me that this is a clear case where RESTful urls have an advantage, since you don't have to look at the POST content to perform certain authorization/error checking on the request. Do you agree? What are your thoughts, experiences?

  Read the article

• ClassCastException When Calling an EJB Remotely that Exists on Same Server

  - by aaronvargas

  I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines. NOTE: This all worked correctly for EJB2

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712  | Next Page >