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  • How to make active services highly available?

    - by Jader Dias
    I know that with Network Load Balancing and Failover Clusteringwe can make passive services highly available. But what about active apps? Example: One of my apps retrieves some content from a external resource in a fixed interval. I have imagined the following scenarios: Run it in a single machine. Problem: if this instance falls, the content won't be retrieved Run it in each machine of the cluster. Problem: the content will be retrieved multiple times Have it in each machine of the cluster, but run it only in one of them. Each instance will have to check some sort of common resource to decide whether it its turn to do the task or not. When I was thinking about the solution #3 I have wondered what should be the common resource. I have thought of creating a table in the database, where we could use it to get a global lock. Is this the best solution? How does people usually do this? By the way it's a C# .NET WCF app running on Windows Server 2008

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  • jquery touch punch - draggable on ipad

    - by dshuta
    i am starting to work with the jquery touch punch extensions in order to allow draggability on ipad, but i am getting tripped up right away. probably something terribly dumb on my part. the draggable example from the developer works fine on my ipad: http://furf.com/exp/touch-punch/draggable.html but not for me: http://danshuta.com/touchpunch/ this works fine in my desktop browser, but on the ipad it just focuses on the block and scrolls the entire page as i drag, as if it were just an image or other normal embedded object. as this is what happens normally with jquery/ui on ipad, this makes me think it is not loading or otherwise ignoring the "punch" code from my site (though if i host the jquery files on my site via the same path, those load and function fine in desktop browser). here's the entire code, very basic: <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <title>Touchpunchtest</title> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.8.17/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery.ui.touch-punch.js"></script> </head> <body> <div id="draggybox" onclick="void(0)" style="width: 150px; height: 150px; background: green;"></div> <script>$('#draggybox').draggable();</script> </body> </html> what am i missing?!

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  • accepts_nested_attributes with Model.update for multiple models

    - by Ohad
    Hi, I'm trying to follow http://railscasts.com/episodes/198-edit-multiple-individually but I would like to save objects which are nested (accepts_nested_attributes_for). I've added the following in my controller: def edit_multiple @people = Person.find(params[:person_ids], :include => [:parameters]) end def update_multiple keys = params[:people].keys if keys.empty? flash[:error] = "Please select at least one person" redirect_to :back and return end values = keys.map {|k| params[:people][k]} @people = Person.update(keys,values).reject { |h| h.errors.empty? } if @people.empty? flash[:notice] = 'Updated people!' redirect_to person_path else redirect_to edit_multiple_path end end and in the view: <% form_tag update_multiple_people_path, :method => :post do %> <% for person in @people %> <% fields_for "people[]", host do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages :object_name => "person" %> <h3><%= h person.name %></h3> <% for parameter in person.parameters %> <% f.fields_for "person_parameters[]", parameter do |builder| -%> <%= render "common/parameters", :f => builder %> <% end -%> <% end -%> <p><%= link_to_add_fields "Add a parameter", f, :person_parameters, "common/parameters" %></p> <% end %> <% end %> <p><%= submit_tag "Edit these Parameter(s)" %></p> <% end %> but I'm always getting a mistmatch - e.g. ActiveRecord::AssociationTypeMismatch and Parameter(#70341811965140) expected, got Array(#70341874300460) Thanks!

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  • firefox lead dot in cookie issue

    - by Jon
    Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

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  • How can I protect my .NET assemblies from decompilation?

    - by Holli
    One if the first things I learned when I started with C# was the most important one. You can decompile any .NET assembly with Reflector or other tools. Many developers are not aware of this fact and most of them are shocked when I show them their source code. Protection against decompilation is still a difficult task. I am still looking for a fast, easy and secure way to do it. I don't want to obfuscate my code so my method names will be a,b,c or so. Reflector or other tools should be unable to recognize my application as .NET assembly at all. I know about some tools already but they are very expensive. Is there any other way to protect my applications? EDIT: The reason for my question is not to prevent piracy. I only want to stop competitors from reading my code. I know they will and they already did. They even told me so. Maybe I am a bit paranoid but business rivals reading my code doesn't make me feel good.

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  • How to use Data aware controls "correctly"?

    - by lyborko
    Hi, I would like to ask experienced users, if you prefer to use data aware controls to add, insert, delete and edit data in DB or you favor to do it manualy. I developed some DB applications, in which for the sake of "user friendly policy" I run into complicated web of table events (afterinsert, afteredit, after... and beforeedit, beforeinsert, before...). After that it was a quite nasty work to debug the application. Aware of this risk (later by another application) I tried to avoid this problem, so I paid increased attention to write code well, readable and comprehensive. It seemed everything all right from the beginning, but as I needed to handle some preprocessing stuff before sending and loading data etc, I run into the same problems again, "slowly and inevitably". Sometime I could not use dataaware controls anyway, and what seemed to be a "cool" feature of DAControl at the beginning it turned to an obstacle on the end. I "had to" write special routine for non-dataaware controls, in order to behave as dataaware. Then I asked myself, why on earth should I use dataaware controls? Is it better to found application architecture on non-dataaware controls? It requires more time to write bug-proof code, of course, but does it worth of it? I do not know... I happened to me several times, like jinxed : paradise on the beginning hell on the end... I do not know, if I use wrong method to write DB program, if there is some standard common practice how to proceed. Or if it is common problem to everybody? Thanx for advices and your experiences

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  • ASP.NET MVC jQuery autocomplete with url.action helper in a script included in a page.

    - by Boob
    I have been building my first ASP.NET MVC web app. I have been using the jQuery autocomplete widget in a number of places like this: <head> $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); </head> The thing is I have this jQuery code in a number of different places through my web app. So i thought I would create a seperate javascript script (script.js) where I could put this code and then just include it in the master page. Then i can put all these repeated pieces of code in that script and just call them where I need too. So I did this. My code is shown below: In the site.js script I put this function: function doAutoComplete() { $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); } On the page I have: <head> <script src="../../Scripts/site.js" type="text/javascript"></script> doAutoComplete(); </head> But when I do this I get an Invalid Argument exception and the autocomplete doesnt work. What am I doing wrong? Any ideas?Do i need to pass something to the doAutoComplete function?

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  • TFS How does merging work?

    - by Johannes Rudolph
    I have a release branch (RB, starting at C5) and a changeset on trunk (C10) that I now want to merge onto RB. The file has changes at C3 (common to both), one in CS 7 on RB, and one in C9 (trunk) and one in C10). So the history for my changed file looks like this: RB: C5 -> C7 Trunk: C3 -> C9 -> C10 When I merge C10 from trunk to RB, I'd expect to see a merge window showing me C10 | C3 | C7 since C3 is the common ancestor revision and C10 and C7 are the tips of my two branches respectively. However, my merge tool shows me C10 | C9 | C7. My merge tool is configured to show %1(OriginalFile)|%3(BaseFile)|%2(Modified File), so this tells me TFS chose C9 as the base revision. This is totally unexpected and completely contrary to the way I'm used to merges working in Mercurial or Git. Did I get something wrong or is TFS trying to drive me nuts with merging? Is this the default TFS Merge behavior? If so, can you provide insight into why they chose to implement it this way? I'm using TFS 2008 with VS2010 as a Client.

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  • How to include external classes in a GAE deployment?

    - by kodra
    I am using the Google plug-in for Eclipse and have the following problem: The project consists of a GWT based GUI talking to a server running on GAE and using JPA. Additionally there is a project to migrate the legacy data to the new datastore. Since these both project use common data model, I have extracted a set of interfaces and enums into a separate project and set the other two projects dependencies on it. The Java App project seems to work, but the GWT/GAE only works if I manually copy the classes into the WEB-INF/classes directory. Obviously this is only working when using the housted mode. Anybody knows how to configure such a multi project setup in Eclipse? Also, I am not sure if the multi project layout is the best solution. The set of common model objects is used in all 3 areas: user client (GWT project compiling standard folders client and shared) server side (providing services for GWT-RPC, uploading and different feeds) migration application (posting the legacy data to the upload servlet) What are the architectural options to keep the amount of duplicated classes on minimum?

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  • How to create custom omniauth provider (how to return data)

    - by user2803917
    I searched all around the net, how to create a custom provider for omniauth.. and i succedded partly.. I created a gem, and it worked perfectly, except the part, that i cant understand how to return the gathered data to sessions controller, like other providers do.. here is the code in auth gem: require 'multi_json' require 'digest/md5' require 'rest-client' module OmniAuth module Strategies class Providername < OmniAuth::Strategies::OAuth attr_accessor :app_id, :api_key, :auth def initialize(app, app_id = nil, api_key = nil, options = {}) super(app, :providername) @app_id = app_id @api_key = api_key end protected def request_phase redirect "http://valid_url" end def callback_phase if request.params['code'] && request.params['status'] == 'ok' response = RestClient.get("http://valid_url2/?code=#{request.params['auth_code']}") auth = MultiJson.decode(response.to_s) unless auth['error'] @auth_data = auth if @auth_data @return_data = OmniAuth::Utils.deep_merge(super, { 'uid' => @auth_data['uid'], 'nickname' => @auth_data['nick'], 'user_info' => { 'first_name' => @auth_data['name'], 'last_name' => @auth_data['surname'], 'location' => @auth_data['place'], }, 'credentials' => { 'apikey' => @auth_data['apikey'] }, 'extra' => {'user_hash' => @auth_data} }) end end else fail!(:invalid_request) end rescue Exception => e fail!(:invalid_response, e) end end end end and here i call it in my initializers: Rails.application.config.middleware.use OmniAuth::Builder do provider "providername", Settings.providers.providername.app_id, Settings.providers.providername.app_secret end in this code, everything works fine so far, the provider gets called, i get the info from provider, i create a hash (@auth_data) with info, but how do i return it

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  • Parsing XML in C# from stream

    - by Phillip
    I've tried several methods, from Linq to loading the data to an XML document, but i can't seem to be able to return the result that i need. here's the example XML: <serv:message xmlns:serv="http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/service" xmlns:com="http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/common" xmlns:event="http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/service/event"><serv:header><serv:response><serv:result>SUCCESS</serv:result><serv:gsbStatus>PRIMARY</serv:gsbStatus></serv:response></serv:header><serv:body><serv:bodyContent xsi:type="event:createEventResponse" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"><event:sessionKey>11111111</event:sessionKey><event:guestToken>111111111111111111111</event:guestToken></serv:bodyContent></serv:body></serv:message> And, here's what i've tried to do: StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(dataStream); XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.LoadXml(reader.ReadToEnd()); XmlNamespaceManager ns = new XmlNamespaceManager(doc.NameTable); XmlNamespaceManager ns2 = new XmlNamespaceManager(doc.NameTable); XmlNamespaceManager ns3 = new XmlNamespaceManager(doc.NameTable); ns.AddNamespace("serv", "http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/service"); ns2.AddNamespace("com", "http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/common"); ns3.AddNamespace("event", "http://www.webex.com/schemas/2002/06/service/event"); XmlNode node = doc.SelectSingleNode("result",ns); Yet, for some reason i cannot ever seem to return the actual result, which should be either 'SUCCESS' or 'FAILURE' based on the actual xml above. How can i do this?

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  • jQuery .html not writing span on page load, rights the span on ajax response

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a bit of a calendar I'm building with events that go beyond the boundary of one day. I've got a graph which shows how many events are running concurrently. In order to graph out the events which go into another day, I look for hours24, and run an extra bit of code. jQuery('li#hour'+placeGroup+'_'+schedDay2+'_'+thisHour,nextDay).data('count', numStaff).html(''+printHour+''+numEvents+' scheduled').css('height',numEvents*5+'px'); The code is working, the li items are being found, proper height is the css is being applied, data is set, which I've checked by running alert(jQuery('li#hour'+placeGroup+'_'+schedDay2+'_'+thisHour,nextDay).data('count')); right after the pervious bit of code. The only thing that isn't being done is the .html(add span) stuff. I run this code in two places. Once when the page loads, and once when an action is taken which changes the number of events via an ajax response. The li DOM object I'm writting to is created before the script is run, and the height is being applied, but not the span, and only on page load. Any ideas on this one? I'm stumped.

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  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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  • How to query AD to get name email from lan id

    - by Kumar
    I have some code in asp.net ( kindly given by someone else ) to query AD to get user name and email etc. using System.DirectoryServices; using System.DirectoryServices.ActiveDirectory; using ActiveDs; DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(new DirectoryEntry(), string.Format("(samaccountname={0})", id)); if (search == null) return id; if (search.FindOne() == null) return id; DirectoryEntry usr = search.FindOne().GetDirectoryEntry(); IADsUser oUsr = (IADsUser)usr.NativeObject; return string.Format("{0} {1}", usr.Properties["givenname"].Value, usr.Properties["sn"].Value); However this requires impersonation with an id that's required to be changed every 2 weeks and then updated in the web.config which is often forgotten Is there any non impersonation code to achieve the same result ? UPDATE - it's a config tool and it looks up name, email id etc. I like the service a/c idea Q - How is it possible to run ( impersonate ) just the AD code with a "service" a/c ? any samples/code ? how do you impersona

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  • Returning a variable in a public void...

    - by James Rattray
    Hello, I'm abit new to programming Android App's, however I have come across a problem, I can't find a way to make global variables -unlike other coding like php or VB.NET, are global variables possible? If not can someone find a way (and if possible implement the way into the code I will provide below) to get a value from the variable 'songtoplay' so I can use in another Public Void... Here is the code: final Spinner hubSpinner = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.myspinner); ArrayAdapter adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.colours, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter .setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); hubSpinner.setAdapter(adapter); // hubSpinner.setOnItemSelectedListener(new OnItemSelectedListener() { public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView, View selectedItemView, int position, long id) { //code Object ttestt = hubSpinner.getSelectedItem(); final String test2 = ttestt.toString(); Toast message1 = Toast.makeText(Textbox.this, test2, Toast.LENGTH_LONG); message1.show(); String songtoplay = test2; // Need songtoplay to be available in another 'Public Void' } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView) { //Code } }); Basically, it gets the value from the Spinner 'hubSpinner' and displays it in a Toast. I then want it to return a value for string variable 'songtoplay' -or find a way to make it global or useable in another Public Void, (Which is will a button, -loading the song to be played) Please help me, Thanks alot. James

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  • Programming Concepts: What should be done when an exception is thrown?

    - by Dooms101
    This does not really apply to any language specifically, but if it matters I am using VB.NET in Visual Studio 2008. I can't seem to find anything really that useful using Google about this topic, but I was wondering what is common practice when an exception is thrown and caught but since it has been thrown the application cannot continue operating. For example I have exceptions that are thrown by my FileLoader class when a file cannot be found or when a file is deemed corrupt. The exception is only thrown within the class and is not handled really. If the error is detected, then the exception is thrown and whatever function is was thrown is basically quits. So in the code trying to create that object or call one of its members I use a Try...Catch statement. However, I was wondering, what should even do when this exception is caught? My application needs these files to be intact, and if they are not, the application is almost useless. So far I just pop up a message box telling the user their is an error and to reinstall. What else can I do, or better, what's common practice in these situations?

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  • to connect matlab with java

    - by user304005
    Through the below given code I was able to connect to matlab. But I was not able to execute the script file containing matlab code...Please help me to modify the code so as to execute the matlab code.... Here luck2 is a .m file.... import java.io.InputStreamReader; import java.io.*; public class matlab { private static File myMATLABScript; public static String runScript(File luck2) { String output = "" ; String error = ""; try { String commandToRun ="C:\\Program Files\\MATLAB\\R2009a\\bin\\matlab -nodisplay <" + "Z:\\sem\\java\\luck2"; //String commandToRun = "matlab -nosplash -r myMATLABScript -nodisplay -nodesktop < " + opentxt; System.out.println(commandToRun); Process p = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(commandToRun); String s; BufferedReader stdInput = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getInputStream())); BufferedReader stdError = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getErrorStream())); System.out.println("\nHere is the standard output of the command:\n"); while ((s = stdInput.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println("haiiiiiiiiiiii"); output = s + "\n"; System.out.println(s); } while ((s = stdError.readLine()) != null) { error = s + "\n"; System.out.println(s); } } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("exception happened here what I know:"); e.printStackTrace(); System.exit(-1); } return output + error; } public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { matlab m = new matlab(); matlab.runScript(myMATLABScript); //matlab.runScript(); } }

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  • Using XPath on String in Android (JAVA)

    - by Rav
    I am looking for some examples of using xpath in Android? Or if anyone can share their experiences. I have been struggeling to make tail or head of this problem :-( I have a string that contains a standard xml file. I believe I need to convert that into an xml document. I have found this code which I think will do the trick: public static Document stringToDom(String xmlSource) throws SAXException, ParserConfigurationException, IOException { DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder builder = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); return builder.parse(new InputSource(new StringReader(xmlSource))); } Next steps Assuming the code above is OK, I need to apply xpath to get values from cat: "/animal/mammal/feline/cat" I look at the dev doc here: http://developer.android.com/reference/javax/xml/xpath/XPath.html and also look online, but I am not sure where to start! I have tried to use the following code: XPathFactory xPathFactory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); // To get an instance of the XPathFactory object itself. XPath xPath = xPathFactory.newXPath(); // Create an instance of XPath from the factory class. String expression = "SomeXPathExpression"; XPathExpression xPathExpression = xPath.compile(expression); // Compile the expression to get a XPathExpression object. Object result = xPathExpression.evaluate(xmlDocument); // Evaluate the expression against the XML Document to get the result. But I get "Cannot be resolved". Eclipse doesn't seem to be able to fix this import. I tried manually entering: javax.xml.xpath.XPath But this did not work. Does anyone know any good source code that I can utilise, for Android platform? 1.5

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  • Is it OK to use WPF assemblies in a web app?

    - by Chris
    I have an ASP.NET MVC 2 app targeting .NET 4 that needs to be able to resize images on the fly and write them to the response. I have code that does this and it works. I am using System.Drawing.dll. However, I want to enhance my code so that not only am I resizing the image, but I am dropping it from 24bpp down to 4bit grayscale. I could not, for the life of me, find code on how to do this with System.Drawing.dll. But I did find a bunch of WPF stuff. This is my working/sample code (runs in LinqPad). // Load the original 24 bit image var bitmapImage = new BitmapImage(); bitmapImage.BeginInit(); bitmapImage.UriSource = new Uri(@"C:\Temp\Resized\18_appa2_015.png", UriKind.Absolute); //bitmapImage.DecodePixelWidth = 600; bitmapImage.EndInit(); // Create the destination image var formatConvertedBitmap = new FormatConvertedBitmap(); formatConvertedBitmap.BeginInit(); formatConvertedBitmap.Source = bitmapImage; formatConvertedBitmap.DestinationFormat = PixelFormats.Gray4; formatConvertedBitmap.EndInit(); // Encode and dump the image to disk var encoder = new PngBitmapEncoder(); encoder.Frames.Add(BitmapFrame.Create(formatConvertedBitmap)); using (var fileStream = File.Create(@"C:\Temp\Resized\18_appa2_015_s2.png")) { encoder.Save(fileStream); } It uses System.Xaml.dll, WindowsBase.dll, PresentationCore.dll, and PresentationFramework.dll. The namespaces used are: System.Windows.Controls, System.Windows.Media, and System.Windows.Media.Imaging. Is there any problem using these namespaces in my web application? It doesn't seem right. If anyone knows how to drop the bit depth without all this WPF stuff (which I barely understand, BTW) I would be thrilled to see that too.

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  • Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object?

    - by Bill
    I am programming in C#; the code was working about a week ago, however it throws an exception and I don't understand at all what could be wrong with it. Var root = new CalculationNode(); -> Throw exception. In the call stack thats the only thing listed, I've been told that it could be that I need a clean build, but I am open to any ideas or suggestions. Thanks, -Bill Update: Exception's Detail System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled by user code Message=Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object. Source=Calculator.Logic StackTrace: at ~.Calculator.Logic.MyBaseExpressionParser.Parse(String expression) in ~\Source\Calculator.Logic\MyBaseExpressionParser.cs:line 44 at ~.Calculator.Logic.Tests.MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.BasicMathDivision() in ~\Projects\Tests\Calculator.Logic.Tests\MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.cs:line 60 InnerException: CalculationNode's code: public sealed calss CalculationNode { public CalculationNode() { this.Left = null; this.Right = null; this.Element = new CalculationElement(); } public CalculationNode Left {get;set;} public CalculationNode Right {get;set;} public CalculationElement Element {get; set;} } CalculationElement's code: public sealed class CalculationElement { public CalculationElement() { Value = string.Empty; IsOperator = false; } public string Value {get; set} public bool IsOperator {get; set} }

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  • How do I add two alternating UITableViews to an existing UINavigationController view?

    - by Ron Flax
    I'm new to iPhone development and I am writing an iPhone app that needs two different table views, which are selectable using a button bar or tab bar. These table views are both the same size, but only cover about two thirds of the screen from the bottom up. The top portion of the screen remains the same when either of these tables is displayed. I'd also like to animate (flip) these views when the user selects one or the other. The view that these two tables will be displayed on is the detail view of my app where the user has already selected an item from the primary screen's table. I'm using a UINavigationController to manage the primary and detail views and I have this working. I also have the first of these two detail tables working as part of my detail view, but I think it makes more sense to isolate the code for these two tables and not duplicate all of the code for the part of the detail view that doesn't change. I don't really care how these two table views are created (either in code or via IB). I've tried several things and I can't seem to figure it out. Any help or ideas (with sample code) would be greatly appreciated!

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  • XMLHttpRequest() and Google Analytics Tracking

    - by sjw
    I have implemented an XMLHttpRequest() call to a standalone html page which simply has an html, title & body tag which Google Analytics Tracking code. I want to track when someone makes a request to display information (i.e. phone number) to try and understand what portion of people look at my directory versus obtaining a phone number to make a call. It is very simple code: var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhReq.open("GET", "/registerPhoneClick.htm?id=" + id, false); xhReq.send(null); var serverResponse = xhReq.responseText Yet I cannot see the "hit" in Analytics... Has anyone had this issue? All the analytics tracking code does is call: <script type="text/javascript"> var gaJsHost = (("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://ssl." : "http://www."); document.write(unescape("%3Cscript src='" + gaJsHost + "google-analytics.com/ga.js' type='text/javascript'%3E%3C/script%3E")); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> try { var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("UA-XXXXXXX"); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {}</script> So realistically, my XmlHTTPRequest() calls an htm file within which a script is execute to make an outbound call to Google Analytics. Is there any reason why an XmlHTTPRequest() would not execute this? Does an XmlHTTPRequest() still bring the code to the client before execution? Help Please

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  • One big executable or many small DLL's?

    - by Patrick
    Over the years my application has grown from 1MB to 25MB and I expect it to grow further to 40, 50 MB. I don't use DLL's, but put everything in this one big executable. Having one big executable has certain advantages: Installing my application at the customer is really: copy and run. Upgrades can be easily zipped and sent to the customer There is no risk of having conflicting DLL's (where the customer has version X of the EXE, but version Y of the DLL) The big disadvantage of the big EXE is that linking times seem to grow exponentially. Additional problem is that a part of the code (let's say about 40%) is shared with another application. Again, the advantages are that: There is no risk on having a mix of incorrect DLL versions Every developer can make changes on the common code which speeds up developments. But again, this has a serious impact on compilation times (everyone compiles the common code again on his PC) and on linking times. The question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2387908/grouping-dlls-for-use-in-executable mentions the possibility of mixing DLL's in one executable, but it looks like this still requires you to link all functions manually in your application (using LoadLibrary, GetProcAddress, ...). What is your opinion on executable sizes, the use of DLL's and the best 'balance' between easy deployment and easy/fast development?

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  • Nested Class member function can't access function of enclosing class. Why?

    - by Rahul
    Please see the example code below: class A { private: class B { public: foobar(); }; public: foo(); bar(); }; Within class A & B implementation: A::foo() { //do something } A::bar() { //some code foo(); //more code } A::B::foobar() { //some code foo(); //<<compiler doesn't like this } The compiler flags the call to foo() within the method foobar(). Earlier, I had foo() as private member function of class A but changed to public assuming that B's function can't see it. Of course, it didn't help. I am trying to re-use the functionality provided by A's method. Why doesn't the compiler allow this function call? As I see it, they are part of same enclosing class (A). I thought the accessibility issue for nested class meebers for enclosing class in C++ standards was resolved. How can I achieve what I am trying to do without re-writing the same method (foo()) for B, which keeping B nested within A? I am using VC++ compiler ver-9 (Visual Studio 2008). Thank you for your help.

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  • Android GPS cloud of confusion!

    - by Anthony Forloney
    I am trying to design my first Android application with the use of GPS. As of right now, I have a drawable button that when clicked, alerts a Toast message of the longitude and latitude. I have tried to use the telnet localhost 5554 and then geo fix #number #number to feed in values but no results display just 0 0. I have also tried DDMS way of sending GPS coordinates and I get the same thing. My question is what exactly is the code equivalent to the geo fix and the DDMS way of sending coordinates. I have used Location, LocationManger and LocationListener but I am not sure which is the right choice. Could anyone explain to me what the code-equivalent just so I can get a better understanding of how to fix my application not working. Code is given, just in case if the error exists with the code @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); Button button = (Button) findViewById(R.id.track); button.setOnClickListener(this); LocationManager location =(LocationManager)getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); Location loc = location.getLastKnownLocation(location.GPS_PROVIDER); updateWithNewLocation(loc); } private final LocationListener locationListener = new LocationListener() { public void onLocationChanged(Location location) { updateWithNewLocation(location); } private void updateWithNewLocation(Location l) { longitude = l.getLongitude(); latitude = l.getLatitude(); provider = l.getProvider(); } public void onClick(View v) { Toast.makeText(this, "Your location is " + longitude + " and " + latitude + " provided by: " + provider, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }

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