Search Results

Search found 2071 results on 83 pages for 'parrot owner'.

Page 71/83 | < Previous Page | 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78  | Next Page >

• BWToolkit inclusion crashing

  - by Schroedinger

  Hey guys I'm using the latest version of XCode (3.2.2) and I've linked the framework using the tutorial. I was building my app and tested it and I get a BWToolkit exception on decoding. I've included the Framework in the frameworks and added it to the copy files stage. I even created a new dummy app including the framework and adding it to the copy files stage and it still crashes when I try to run. Any ideas? Do I need to include it somewhere in the app? I'm worried I've overlooked something really simple. 2010-04-13 14:14:24.540 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] An uncaught exception was raised 2010-04-13 14:14:24.543 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] *** -[NSKeyedUnarchiver decodeObjectForKey:]: cannot decode object of class (BWSplitView) 2010-04-13 14:14:24.545 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidUnarchiveOperationException', reason: '*** -[NSKeyedUnarchiver decodeObjectForKey:]: cannot decode object of class (BWSplitView)' *** Call stack at first throw: ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77d24 __exceptionPreprocess + 180 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff82ba00f3 objc_exception_throw + 45 2 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77b47 +[NSException raise:format:arguments:] + 103 3 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77ad4 +[NSException raise:format:] + 148 4 Foundation 0x00007fff83804aa6 _decodeObjectBinary + 2427 5 Foundation 0x00007fff83805825 -[NSKeyedUnarchiver _decodeArrayOfObjectsForKey:] + 1229 6 Foundation 0x00007fff83805d65 -[NSArray(NSArray) initWithCoder:] + 462 7 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 8 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 9 AppKit 0x00007fff8069fbfb -[NSView initWithCoder:] + 362 10 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 11 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 12 AppKit 0x00007fff806adfbb -[NSWindowTemplate initWithCoder:] + 3824 13 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 14 Foundation 0x00007fff83805825 -[NSKeyedUnarchiver _decodeArrayOfObjectsForKey:] + 1229 15 Foundation 0x00007fff83805268 -[NSSet(NSSet) initWithCoder:] + 447 16 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 17 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 18 AppKit 0x00007fff8062fcde -[NSIBObjectData initWithCoder:] + 1983 19 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 20 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 21 AppKit 0x00007fff8062f40d loadNib + 146 22 AppKit 0x00007fff8062e96d +[NSBundle(NSNibLoading) _loadNibFile:nameTable:withZone:ownerBundle:] + 248 23 AppKit 0x00007fff8062e7a5 +[NSBundle(NSNibLoading) loadNibNamed:owner:] + 326 24 AppKit 0x00007fff8062bd27 NSApplicationMain + 279 25 BWTestFramework 0x0000000100001891 main + 33 26 BWTestFramework 0x0000000100001868 start + 52 ) terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' That's the crash report

  Read the article

• SVN checkout or export for production environment?

  - by Eran Galperin

  In a project I am working on, we have an ongoing discussion amongst the dev team - should the production environment be deployed as a checkout from the SVN repository or as an export? The development environment is obviously a checkout, since it is constantly updated. For the production, I'm personally for checking out the main trunk, since it makes future updates easier (just run svn update). However some of the devs are against it, as svn creates files with the group/owner and permissions of the svn process (this is on a linux OS, so those things matter), and also having the .svn directories on the production seem to them to be somewhat dirty. Also, if it is a checkout - how do you push individual features to the production without including in-development code? do you use tags or branch out for each feature? any alternatives? EDIT: I might not have been clear - one of the requirement is to be able to constantly be able to push fixes to the production environment. We want to avoid a complete build (which takes much longer than a simple update) just for pushing critical fixes.

  Read the article

• are projects with high developer turn over rate really a bad thing?

  - by John

  I've inherited a lot of web projects that experienced high developer turn over rates. Sometimes these web projects are a horrible patchwork of band aid solutions. Other times they can be somewhat maintainable mozaics of half-done features each built with a different architectural style. Everytime I inherit these projects, I wish the previous developers could explain to me why things got so bad. What puzzles me is the reaction of the owners (either a manager, a middle man company, or a client). They seem to think, "Well, if you leave, I'll just find another developer." Or they think, "Oh, it costs that much money to refactor the system? I know another developer who can do it at half the price. I'll hire him if I can't afford you." I'm guessing that the high developer turn over rate is related to the owner's mentality of "If you think it's a bad idea to build this, I'll just find another (possibly cheaper) developer to do what I want". For the owners, the approach seems to work because their business is thriving. Unfortunately, it's no fun for the developers that go AWOL 3-4 months after working with poor code, strict timelines, and little feedback. So my question is the following: Are the following symptoms of a project really such a bad thing for business? high developer turn over rate poorly built technology - often a patchwork of different and inappropriately used architectural styles owners without a clear roadmap for their web project, and they request features on a whim I've seen numerous businesses prosper while experiencing the symptoms above. So as a programmer, even though my instincts tell me the above points are terrible, I'm forced to take a step back and ask, "are things really that bad in the grand scheme of things?" If not, I will re-evaluate my approach to these projects.

  Read the article

• Why does my .NET 4 application know .NET 4 is not installed

  - by Tergiver

  I developed an application that targeted .NET 4 the other day and XCOPY-installed it to a Windows XP machine. I had told the owner of the machine that they would need to install .NET Framework 4 to run my app and he told me he did (not a reliable source). When I ran the application I was presented with a message box that said this app requires .NET Framework 4, would I like to install it? Clicking the Yes button took me to the Microsoft web site and a few clicks later .NET 4 was installed, and the application successfully launched. Now I normally don't develop applications that target the latest version of .NET, I always target the lowest version I can (what features do I really need?). So this was my first .NET 4 app (and I only targeted 4 because it used a library that did). In the past, XCOPY-installing .NET applications to a machine that didn't have the correct version of .NET installed resulted in the application simply crashing on startup with no useful information presented to the user. Was it built into my app because I targeted .NET X? Was it something already installed on the target machine? I love the feature, I just want to know precisely how to leverage it in the future.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to order by a composite key with JPA and CriteriaBuilder

  - by Kjir

  I would like to create a query using the JPA CriteriaBuilder and I would like to add an ORDER BY clause. This is my entity: @Entity @Table(name = "brands") public class Brand implements Serializable { public enum OwnModeType { OWNER, LICENCED } @EmbeddedId private IdBrand id; private String code; //bunch of other properties } Embedded class is: @Embeddable public class IdBrand implements Serializable { @ManyToOne private Edition edition; private String name; } And the way I am building my query is like this: CriteriaBuilder cb = em.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<Brand> q = cb.createQuery(Brand.class).distinct(true); Root<Brand> root = q.from(Brand.class); if (f != null) { f.addCriteria(cb, q, root); f.addOrder(cb, q, root, sortCol, ascending); } return em.createQuery(q).getResultList(); And here are the functions called: public void addCriteria(CriteriaBuilder cb, CriteriaQuery<?> q, Root<Brand> r) { } public void addOrder(CriteriaBuilder cb, CriteriaQuery<?> q, Root<Brand> r, String sortCol, boolean ascending) { if (ascending) { q.orderBy(cb.asc(r.get(sortCol))); } else { q.orderBy(cb.desc(r.get(sortCol))); } } If I try to set sortCol to something like "id.edition.number" I get the following error: javax.ejb.EJBException: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to resolve attribute [id.name] against path Any idea how I could accomplish that? I tried searching online, but I couldn't find a hint about this... Also would be great if I could do a similar ORDER BY when I have a @ManyToOne relationship (for instance, "id.edition.number")

  Read the article

• SharePoint The My Site of <user name> is scheduled for deletion.

  - by Linda

  Hi there, In my email today I got the following: The My Site of is scheduled for deletion. As their manager you are now the temporary owner of their site. This temporary ownership gives you access to the site to copy any business-related information you might need. To access the site use this URL: http://mysites.freud.com/personal/ I click on the link and I can see that there site is there. I do not want there site to be deleted at all what can I do. When I search for the user using the PeopleSearchBoxEx web part the user comes up but when I click on there name I get the error: Server Error in '/' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- User not found. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: Microsoft.SharePoint.SPException: User not found. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SPException: User not found.] Microsoft.SharePoint.Portal.WebControls.ProfilePropertyLoader.OnInit(EventArgs e) +4415 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +333 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +210 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +378 Any idea how I can stop this person from being "delete" and get there profile to work again?

  Read the article

• Prevent two users from editing the same data

  - by Industrial

  Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

  Read the article

• accessing a method from a button within a class?

  - by flo

  #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

  Read the article

• Accessing we.config from Sharepoint web part

  - by philj

  I have a VS 2008 web parts project - in this project is a web.config file: something like this: ……. In my web part I am trying to access values in the appSetting section: I've tried all of the code below and each returns null: string Owner = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff1 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff3 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff4 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff2 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFowner".ToString()]; I've tried this code I found: NameValueCollection sAll; sAll = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings; string a; string b; foreach (string s in sAll.AllKeys) { a = s; b = sAll.Get(s); } and stepped through it in debug mode - that is getting things like : FeedCacheTime FeedPageURL FeedXsl1 ReportViewerMessages which is NOT coming from anything in my web.config file....maybe a config file in sharepoint itself? How do I access a web.config (or any other kind of config file!) local to my web part??? thanks, Phil J

  Read the article

• UITableView with Custom Cell only loads one row of data at a time

  - by Anton

  For my table, I've created a custom cell that has two labels. I also have two arrays with data, that I use to respectively assign each label in the cell. My problem, is that when the table is viewed, only the first row has data, and the rest of the data "sorta" loads when I start scrolling down. By "sorta", only the first row will load at a time. The only time I get to see all the data, is when I scroll to the bottom, then scroll up again. I've used the cellForRowAtIndexPath method to load the data into my cell. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CustomCellIdentifier = @"CustomCellIdentifier"; CustomCell *cell = (CustomCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CustomCellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { NSArray *nib = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"CustomCell" owner:self options:nil]; for (id oneObject in nib) if ([oneObject isKindOfClass:[CustomCell class]]) cell = (CustomCell *)oneObject; } NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; //I have two tables to fill up, hence the tag if statement if ([tableView tag] == 0) { cell.arriveTimeLabel.text = [homeBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; cell.departTimeLabel.text = [homeBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; } else if ([tableView tag] == 1) { cell.arriveTimeLabel.text = [workBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; cell.departTimeLabel.text = [workBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; } return cell; } Is it possible that its only getting called when the top cell is being called?

  Read the article

• FluentNHibernate mapping of composite foreign keys

  - by Faron

  I have an existing database schema and wish to replace the custom data access code with Fluent.NHibernate. The database schema cannot be changed since it already exists in a shipping product. And it is preferable if the domain objects did not change or only changed minimally. I am having trouble mapping one unusual schema construct illustrated with the following table structure: CREATE TABLE [Container] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item] ( [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Container_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) The existing domain model has the following class structure: The Property class contains other members representing the property's name and value. The ContainerProperty and ItemProperty classes have no additional members. They exist only to identify the owner of the Property. The Container and Item classes have methods that return collections of ContainerProperty and ItemProperty respectively. Additionally, the Container class has a method that returns a collection of all of the Property objects in the object graph. My best guess is that this was either a convenience method or a legacy method that was never removed. The business logic mainly works with Item (as the aggregate root) and only works with a Container when adding or removing Items. I have tried several techniques for mapping this but none work so I won't include them here unless someone asks for them. How would you map this?

  Read the article

• iPhone Adding Controls (UIButton, UILabel etc.) on a Playing Video!

  - by Taimur Hamza

  I have been assigned an 'easy' task of adding a button over a playing video. I m terming it easy as i have got the sample code downloaded from Apple's sample code. http://rapidshare.com/files/393248642/MoviePlayer_iPhone.zip Anybody who wants to reply to my query and intends to help should download this project and run it otherwise it wudnt be easy to understand my problem. Thanks! And now the weird problem i am facing is: In the sample project developer has added the view ( UILabel and UIButton ) in the Appdelegate. And i want it other xib files not the App delegate . Fine i added a view 'myButtonABC' instead of 'My Overlay View'. And added this code in my xib file's implementation file. (void)viewDidLoad { TaimurAppDelegate *appDelegate = (TaimurAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [appDelegate initAndPlayMovie:[self localMovieURL]]; NSArray *windows = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] windows]; if ([windows count] 1) { UIWindow *moviePlayerWindow = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow]; [moviePlayerWindow addSubview:self.myABC]; } } Now my question is do i need to declare a UIWindow object in the header file here. As i am not working in the app delegate class. As i said previously i have to add this button over a video in other screen and not on the main screen. The third question is can anyone, which in fact is the most imp of all. In my view , if i am able to do this one my problem would be solved. As i have spend considerable amount of time on this task so far. The question is " How can i connect myABCButton (which is a view added to my xib file ) to the File's Owner. Thanks for your patience. Replies Appreciated ! Taimur

  Read the article

• Using CSS to insert text

  - by abelenky

  I'm relatively new to CSS, and have used it to change the style and formatting of text. I would now like to use it to insert text as shown below: <span class="OwnerJoe">reconcile all entries</span> Which I hope I could get to show as: Joe's Task: reconcile all entries That is, simply by virtue of being of class "Owner Joe", I want the text Joe's Task: to be displayed. I could do it with code like: <span class="OwnerJoe">Joe's Task:</span> reconcile all entries. But that seems awfully redundant to both specify the class and the text. Is it possible to do what I'm looking for? EDIT One idea is to try to set it up as a ListItem <li> where the "bullet" is the text "Joe's Task". I see examples of how to set various bullet-styles and even images for bullets. Is it possible to use a small block of text for the list-bullet?

  Read the article

• Drupal WebForm with CCK content types. For anonymous users.

  - by thepearson

  I am probably asking a noob question... however: I have a Drupal site that the customer has a web form where anonymous users can fill in to order some posters (there is 3 to choose from). These are free and at the moment they user just states in the body of a textarea what posters they want. The site owner wants to now add more posters and now wants the ability to have each poster listed in the web form with a field for quantity next to them. When the web for is submitted it will post the node title and quantity to the web form along with the required information. I have researched using UC but it's too much of a eCom solution for such a simple requirement. I also looked at SimpleCart, Flag and Session favorites, all of which aren't really what I need. So I am looking for a simple way to itterate over all the "Poster" content types, and display them on the webform page with a quantity numerical field to be submitted with the web form for each poster. Currently I have: CCK Poster Title Image WebForm OrderPoster Name Email Address Details What I am looking for is a page that does the following: WebForm OrderPosters: Poster 1 [form qty text input for poster 1] Poster 2 [form qty text input for poster 2] Poster 3 [form qty text input for poster 3] ... Poster n [form qty text input for posters n] Name Email Address Details I'd imagine there is a simple way to do this, but I can't seem to find articles of customizing "WebForm" forms. Any help would be much appreciated.

  Read the article

• Sharepoint user details not visible to other users

  - by richardoz

  I am managing a SharePoint site that uses Form Based Authentication. We have several generic lists, document libraries and active task lists that users can create update and delete. Users can use the people pickers to select/search for everyone. But the users cannot see other users names, email addresses etc. in display lists or the people pickers. If I log in as the site collection administrator, I can see everyones details. So I know the data is available. Updated details on this problem (non-administrators) SharePoint users cannot see other users information. Example: User A assigns a task to user B. User A creates a new task and uses the people picker to find user B. User B is only visible by the login name “bname” and any information about user B is not visible or searchable within the people picker. Once user B is assigned the task, user A no longer sees the name in the task list – even though user A created it. No modified by, created by, assigned to or owner field data is visible to non-administrator users. Facts: Extranet site is configured to use Forms Based Authentication. Intranet uses windows based authentication Users of both the intranet and extranet have the same problem All databases are local The site uses SSRS integration SharePoint WSS on Windows 2003 Std -- After activating the verbose logging it looks like SharePoint is definately asking SQL server for only the user info for the currently logged in user: SELECT TOP 6 /lots-of-columns/ FROM UserData INNER MERGE JOIN Docs AS t1 ON ( 1 = 1 AND UserData.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND t1.SiteId = UserData.tp_SiteId AND t1.SiteId = @L2 AND t1.DirName = UserData.tp_DirName AND t1.LeafName = UserData.tp_LeafName AND t1.Level = UserData.tp_Level AND t1.IsCurrentVersion = 1 AND (1 = 1) ) LEFT OUTER JOIN AllUserData AS t2 ON ( UserData.[tp_Author]=t2.[tp_ID] AND UserData.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND t2.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND ( (t2.tp_IsCurrent = 1) ) AND t2.[tp_CalculatedVersion] = 0 AND t2.[tp_DeleteTransactionId] = 0x AND t2.tp_ListId = @L3 AND UserData.tp_ListId = @L4 AND t2.[tp_Author]=162 /* this is the currently logged in user */ ) WHERE (UserData.tp_IsCurrent = 1) AND UserData.tp_SiteId=@L2 AND (UserData.tp_DirName=@DN) AND UserData.tp_RowOrdinal=0 AND ( ( (UserData.[datetime1] IS NULL ) OR (UserData.[datetime1] = @L5DTP) ) AND t1.SiteId=@L2 AND (t1.DirName=@DN) ) ORDER BY UserData.[tp_Modified] Desc, UserData.[tp_ID] Asc Again, any ideas would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• How can you make a PHP application require a key to work?

  - by jasondavis

  About 4 years ago I used a php product called amember pro, it is a membership script which has plugins for lie 30 different payment processors, it was an easy way to set up an automated membership site where users would pay a payment and get access to a certain area. The script used ioncube http://www.ioncube.com/sa_encoder.php to prevent non-paying users from using the script, it requered that you register the domain that the script would be used on, you were then given a key to enter into the file that would make the system/script work. Now I am wanting to know how to do such a task, I know ioncube encoder just makes it hard to see the code, in the script I mention, they would just have a small section at the tp of 1 of the included pages that was encrypted and without that part of the code it would break and in addition if the owner of the script did not put you domain in the list and give you a valid key it would not work, also if you tried to use the script on a different domain it would not work. I realize that somewhere in the encrypted code that is must of sent you key to there server and checked that it was valid for the domain name it is on, or possibly it did not even do that, maybe the key would just verify that it matched the domain the script was on, that more likely what it did. Here is where the real question is, How would you make a script require the portion that is encrypted? If I made a script and had a small encrypted part at the top, it would seem a user would be able to easily just remove the encrypted part and figure out what the non encrypted part is doing and fix it to work. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

  - by rafek

  Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

  Read the article

• Is the m2eclipse mailing list being managed?

  - by sdoca

  Hi, I tried to subscribe to the m2eclipse mailing list by sending an email to [email protected] but it never sent me back any confirmation email. I sent an email to [email protected] asking if the mailing list was still running a couple of weeks ago and haven't received any response back to that either. Then I found another way to subscribe via http://xircles.codehaus.org/lists/info/search. So I did and am now receiving emails sent to the list. However, I can't send the list emails. They get bounced back with a failure notice: Hi. This is the qmail-send program at mail.codehaus.org. I'm afraid I wasn't able to deliver your message to the following addresses. This is a permanent error; I've given up. Sorry it didn't work out. <[email protected]>: Sorry, only subscribers may post. If you are a subscriber, please forward this message to [email protected] to get your new address included. (#5.7.2) I've forwarded this message as instructed twice now (once yesterday and once this morning) without result so far. Does anyone know if this mailing list is being managed? It sucks to be only able to read messages and not to send them. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Drupal advanced ACLs for "untrusted" administrators

  - by redShadow

  I have a multi-site Drupal-6 installation containing websites of different customers. On each site, there is an "administrator" role that includes mainly the customer's account. We want to give as many permissions as possible to this privileged user, but this could bring to security leaks using just the Drupal Core permissions management system. The main thing to avoid is the customer account being able to run PHP code on the server (that would be like being logged on the server as the www-data user.. sounds really bad). To avoid that, it is not sufficient to deny PHP code evaluation for the role. Since the administrator role must have permissions to manage users, he could also change the password of the user #1 and login in the site as superadmin. The second goal would be to deny also some "confusing" administrative pages (such as module selection) but not others (such as site informations configuration, or theme selection, etc.) I found the User One module that seems to fix the first problem, but I have no idea on how to solve the second one. I found some modules around, but no-one seems to fit.. it seems like the most ACLs are thought to protect the content, and not the site itself, as if the site administrator would always be the server owner itself..

  Read the article

• Get location of element you just pushed into vector C++

  - by Satchmo Brown

  I am curious about how pushing back into a vector works. I want a way to push back an element and then be able to add it's location in the vector to a double array serving as a type of map. Something like this: // Create a bomb Bomb b; b.currentTime = SDL_GetTicks(); b.explodeTime = SDL_GetTicks() + 3000; b.owner = player; b.power = 2; b.x = x; b.y = y; bombVec.push_back(b); bombs[y][x] = THIS_IS_WHAT_I_WANT; This way when I explode the bomb, I can check the map and then have an ID in the vector to deal with. Every non bomb square will have a -1. Also, just curious. Imagine I have 3 elements in a vector. I delete the second one and then add another. Does the new element go in the same location as the one that was deleted? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Google Maps API v3 not working

  - by user1496322

  I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

  Read the article

• VB.NET trying simple captcha

  - by Pride Grimm

  I'm trying to write a simple captcha program in vb.net. I'm just wanting to make an image from random numbers and display it, check the answer, and then proceed. I'm pretty new to vb.net, so I found some code to generate the information. I will cite the owner when I find it again (http://www.knowlegezone.com/80/article/Technology/Software/Asp-Net/Simple-ASP-NET-CAPTCHA-Tutorial) This is in the onload() of default2.aspx Public Sub returnNumer() Dim num1 As New Random Dim num2 As New Random Dim numQ1 As Integer Dim numQ2 As Integer Dim QString As String numQ1 = num1.Next(10, 15) numQ2 = num2.Next(17, 31) QString = numQ1.ToString + " + " + numQ2.ToString + " = " Session("answer") = numQ1 + numQ2 Dim bitmap As New Bitmap(85, 35) Dim Grfx As Graphics = Graphics.FromImage(bitmap) Dim font As New Font("Arial", 18, FontStyle.Bold, GraphicsUnit.Pixel) Dim Rect As New Rectangle(0, 0, 100, 50) Grfx.FillRectangle(Brushes.Brown, Rect) Grfx.DrawRectangle(Pens.PeachPuff, Rect) ' Border Grfx.DrawString(QString, font, Brushes.Azure, 0, 0) Response.ContentType = "Image/jpeg" bitmap.Save(Response.OutputStream, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg) bitmap.Dispose() Grfx.Dispose() End Sub So I put this in a separate page, like this This all works find and dandy, but when I get the answer from the session like this Dim literal As String = Convert.ToString(Session("answer")) It's always one behind. So if The images adds to 32, the answer in session isn't 32. But after a refresh (and a new image) the session("answer") will be 32. Is there a way to refresh the session on page 1, after the default2.aspx loads? Is there a better way to do this? I though about trying to run the code all on one page, and trying to set the src of and image to returnNumber(), but I need a bit of help on that one.

  Read the article

• SQLAlchemy & Complex Queries

  - by user356594

  I have to implement ACL for an existing application. So I added the a user, group and groupmembers table to the database. I defined a ManyToMany relationship between user and group via the association table groupmembers. In order to protect some ressources of the app (i..e item) I added a additional association table auth_items which should be used as an association table for the ManyToMany relationship between groups/users and the specific item. item has following columns: user_id -- user table group_id -- group table item_id -- item table at least on of user_id and group_id columns are set. So it's possible to define access for a group or for a user to a specific item. I have used the AssociationProxy to define the relationship between users/groups and items. I now want to display all items which the user has access to and I have a really hard time doing that. Following criteria are used: All items which are owned by the user should be shown (item.owner_id = user.id) All public items should be shown (item.access = public) All items which the user has access to should be shown (auth_item.user_id = user.id) All items which the group of the user has access to should be shown. The first two criteria are quite straightforward, but I have a hard time doing the 3rd one. Here is my approach: clause = and_(item.access == 'public') if user is not None: clause = or_(clause,item.owner == user,item.users.contains(user),item.groups.contains(group for group in user.groups)) The third criteria produces an error. item.groups.contains(group for group in user.groups) I am actually not sure if this is a good approach at all. What is the best approach when filtering manytomany relationships? How I can filter a manytomany relationship based on another list/relationship? Btw I am using the latest sqlalchemy (6.0) and elixir version Thanks for any insights.

  Read the article

• Trouble creating calendar in Google API via Coldfusion

  - by KingErroneous

  I am trying to create a caledar using the Google API, and it just returns the list of calendars in my account, just like I sent a GET request. Here is my code: <cfxml variable="locals.xml"> <cfoutput> <entry xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" xmlns:gd="http://schemas.google.com/g/2005" xmlns:gCal="http://schemas.google.com/gCal/2005"> <title type="text">#arguments.argTitle#</title> <summary type="text">#arguments.argSummary#</summary> <cfif len(arguments.argTimezone)><gCal:timezone value="#arguments.argTimezone#"></gCal:timezone></cfif> <gCal:hidden value="false"></gCal:hidden> <gCal:accesslevel value="owner" /> <gCal:color value="#arguments.argColor#"></gCal:color> <gd:where rel='' label='' valueString='Oakland'></gd:where> </entry> </cfoutput> </cfxml> <cfhttp url="#variables.baseURL#/default/owncalendars/full" method="post" redirect="false" multiparttype="related" charset="utf-8"> <cfhttpparam type="header" name="Authorization" value="GoogleLogin auth=#getAuth(variables.serviceName)#"> <cfhttpparam type="header" name="Content-Type" value="application/atom+xml"> <cfhttpparam type="header" name="GData-Version" value="2"> <cfhttpparam type="body" value="#trim(locals.xml)#"> </cfhttp> Any help would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• When to drop an IT job

  - by Nippysaurus

  In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78  | Next Page >