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  • GlassFish Security Realm, Active Directory and Referral

    - by Allan Lykke Christensen
    I've setup up a Security Realm in Glassfish to authenticate against an Active Directory server. The configuration of the realm is as follows: Class Name: com.sun.enterprise.security.auth.realm.ldap.LDAPRealm JAAS context: ldapRealm Directory: ldap://172.16.76.10:389/ Base DN: dc=smallbusiness,dc=local search-filter: (&(objectClass=user)(sAMAccountName=%s)) group-search-filter: (&(objectClass=group)(member=%d)) search-bind-dn: cN=Administrator,CN=Users,dc=smallbusiness,dc=local search-bind-password: abcd1234! The realm is functional and I can log-in, but when ever I log in I get the following error in the log: SEC1106: Error during LDAP search with filter [(&(objectClass=group)(member=CN=Administrator,CN=Users,dc=smallbusiness,dc=local))]. SEC1000: Caught exception. javax.naming.PartialResultException: Unprocessed Continuation Reference(s); remaining name 'dc=smallbusiness,dc=local' at com.sun.jndi.ldap.LdapCtx.processReturnCode(LdapCtx.java:2820) .... .... ldaplm.searcherror While searching for a solution I found that it was recommended to add java.naming.referral=follow to the properties of the realm. However, after I add this it takes 20 minutes for GlassFish to authenticate against Active Directory. I suspect it is a DNS problem on the Active Directory server. The Active Directory server is a vanilla Windows Server 2003 setup in a Virtual Machine. Any help/recommendation is highly appreciated!

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  • IIS 7.5 refuses to load 64-bit assembly - possible CAS problem?

    - by Rune
    Hi, I just downloaded the Orchard CMS, opened it up in VS2008 and hit F5: Everything runs fine. I then created a website in IIS 7.5 and pointed it to the web project's directory and set up permissions correctly (I hope). I downloaded the 64-bit version System.Data.SQLite as suggested here: Orchard Work Item 14798 and here: SO: Could not load file or assembly 'System.Data.SQLite'. The site runs in Full Trust. When I point my browser to the site running through IIS I get Could not load file or assembly 'System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.65.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139' or one of its dependencies. Failed to grant minimum permission requests. I don't know much about Code Access Security (if that is even what's at play here), so I am at a loss here. What am I doing wrong / not understanding / not seeing? How do I provide appropriate permissions and to whom / what? Is there any hope of ever deploying this application to a hoster where I am only allowed to run in Medium Trust? Any help, pointers or suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. NOTE: the question is not why this initially worked when run through Cassini. The answer to that question is contained in the answer to the SO question referenced above.

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  • OpenNETCF.Stopwatch -> only ticks changing, not Elapsed

    - by pithyless
    I've been trying to track down a bug I thought was thread-related, but I think instead there is an issue with the way I am using OpenNETCF's Stopwatch. I am using OpenNETCF.IoC in my application, but for the sake of simplicity I moved the following code directly into a view: public partial class WorkoutView : SmartPart { ... private Stopwatch stopwatch; public WorkoutView() { ... stopwatch = new Stopwatch(); stopwatch.Reset(); stopwatch.Start(); WorkoutDisplayTimer = new Timer(); WorkoutDisplayTimer.Interval = 500; WorkoutDisplayTimer.Tick += new EventHandler(WorkoutDisplayTimer_Tick); WorkoutDisplayTimer.Enabled = true; } void WorkoutDisplayTimer_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { ... stopwatch.Stop(); lbl.Text = stopwatch.ElapsedTicks.ToString() + "NOT WORKING: " + stopwatch.Elapsed.ToString(); stopwatch.Start(); } ... } Long story short, looking at stopwatch in the debugger, the only values that ever get updated are ElapsedTicks, mElapsed, mStartPerfCount. Everything else is always zero. Is this expected behavior? Do I need to call an additional method to have the stopwatch calculate the Elapsed struct? (Note: stopwatch.ElapsedMilliseconds is also zero)

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  • Pros and cons of making database IDs consistent and "readable"

    - by gmale
    Question Is it a good rule of thumb for database IDs to be "meaningless?" Conversely, are there significant benefits from having IDs structured in a way where they can be recognized at a glance? What are the pros and cons? Background I just had a debate with my coworkers about the consistency of the IDs in our database. We have a data-driven application that leverages spring so that we rarely ever have to change code. That means, if there's a problem, a data change is usually the solution. My argument was that by making IDs consistent and readable, we save ourselves significant time and headaches, long term. Once the IDs are set, they don't have to change often and if done right, future changes won't be difficult. My coworkers position was that IDs should never matter. Encoding information into the ID violates DB design policies and keeping them orderly requires extra work that, "we don't have time for." I can't find anything online to support either position. So I'm turning to all the gurus here at SA! Example Imagine this simplified list of database records representing food in a grocery store, the first set represents data that has meaning encoded in the IDs, while the second does not: ID's with meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 101 Apple 102 Banana 103 Orange 201 Lettuce 202 Onion 203 Carrot Location 41 Aisle four top shelf 42 Aisle four bottom shelf 51 Aisle five top shelf 52 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 10141 Apple on aisle four top shelf 10241 Banana on aisle four top shelf //just by reading the ids, it's easy to recongnize that these are both Fruit on Aisle 4 ID's without meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 1 Apple 2 Banana 3 Orange 4 Lettuce 5 Onion 6 Carrot Location 1 Aisle four top shelf 2 Aisle four bottom shelf 3 Aisle five top shelf 4 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 1 Apple on aisle four top shelf 2 Banana on aisle four top shelf //given the IDs, it's harder to see that these are both fruit on aisle 4 Summary What are the pros and cons of keeping IDs readable and consistent? Which approach do you generally prefer and why? Is there an accepted industry best-practice?

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  • Drag-n-Drop on contentEditable elements

    - by Raybiez
    There are numerous WYSIWYG editors available on the internet, but I'm yet to find one that implements some form of drag-n-drop implementation. It is easy to create one's own editor, but I want to the user to be able to drag elements (ie. tokens) from outside the editable area and have them drop it at a location of their choice inside the editable area. It is easy to inject html at a specific location of an editable element, but how do one determine where the caret should be when the user is dragging a DIV over some element in the editable area. To better illustrate what I'm trying to explain, see the following scenario. The editable area (either an IFRAME in edit mode or a DIV with its contentEditable attribute set to true) already contains the following text: "Dear , please take note of ...." The user now drags an element representing some token from a list of elements, over the editable area, moving the cursor over the text until the caret appear just before the comma (,) in the text as shown above. When the user releases the mouse button at that location, HTML will be injected which could result in something like this: "Dear {UserFirstName}, please take note of ...". I do not know if anyone has ever done anything similar to this, or at least know of how one would go about doing this using JavaScript. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • InstallUtil Publishing WMI Schema to 64 Bit Directory Instead of 32 Bit Directory

    - by Nick
    This is similar to this question, but it doesn't look like a good solution was ever determined, so I'm opening a new one with clarified details. We wrote a .NET service, which among other things, publishes some of the class hierarchy using WMI. On a 64-Bit machine, we are running the 32-bit version of InstallUtil to install the service. It installs successfully, but when the service runs, we receive the following error message when publishing a WMI class using Instrumentation.Publish() DirectoryNotFoundException - (Could not find a part of the path 'C:\Windows\system32\WBEM\Framework\root\MyNamespace\MyService'.) However, this directory does exist in the C:\Windows\syswow64 directory. If we manually copy that directory structure to the system32 directory, then everything works. However, we are looking for automated solution, because we have this packaged up in an MSI which we distribute onto many servers. We have tried running the 64-Bit version of InstallUtil, to see if that would work, however... and this is the really weird part... it gives us an error on install that says Installing WMI Schema: Started An exception occurred during the Install phase. System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundException: Could not find a part of the path 'C:\Windows\system32\WBEM\Framework\root\MyNamespace\MyService.mof'. It looks as if somehow, the WMI installer flipped around. Has anyone else experienced this, or know of a work around?

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  • Call Multiple Stored Procedures with the Zend Framework

    - by Brian Fisher
    I'm using Zend Framework 1.7.2, MySQL and the MySQLi PDO adapter. I would like to call multiple stored procedures during a given action. I've found that on Windows there is a problem calling multiple stored procedures. If you try it you get the following error message: SQLSTATE[HY000]: General error: 2014 Cannot execute queries while other unbuffered queries are active. Consider using PDOStatement::fetchAll(). Alternatively, if your code is only ever going to run against mysql, you may enable query buffering by setting the PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_USE_BUFFERED_QUERY attribute. I found that to work around this issue I could just close the connection to the database after each call to a stored procedure: if (strtoupper(substr(PHP_OS, 0, 3)) === 'WIN') { //If on windows close the connection $db->closeConnection(); } This has worked well for me, however, now I want to call multiple stored procedures wrapped in a transaction. Of course, closing the connection isn't an option in this situation, since it causes a rollback of the open transaction. Any ideas, how to fix this problem and/or work around the issue. More info about the work around Bug report about the problem

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  • Google Chrome, IE problem with adjusting style before AJAX

    - by orokusaki
    When I'm using AJAX, I typically do something before each request to let the user know that they'll be waiting for a second. This is usually done by just adding an animated loading gif. When I do this, Firefox does what you'd expect and adds the gif before moving control to the next line (where the AJAX is called). In Chrome, it locks the browser and doesn't make any DOM changes at all (let alone load an image), including even changing the color of something, until the AJAX is done. This isn't just AJAX though. It's anything that holds control, and it never makes DOM changes until the control is given back to the window. Example (using jQuery): function submit_order() { $('#my_element').css('color', '#FF0000'); // Make text red before calling AJAX $.getJSON('/api/', my_callback) // Note, in IE and Chrome #my_element isn't turned red until the AJAX finishes and my_callback is run } Why does this happen, and how can I solve it? I can't use ASYNC because of the nature of the data (it would be a big mess). I experimented with using window.setTimeout(myajaxfunc, 150) after setting the style, to see if it would set the style, then do the timeout, but it appears it isn't an issue with just AJAX, but rather the control of the script in general (I think, hence the title making mention to AJAX because this is the only time I ever run into this problem). This doesn't have anything to do with it being in a function BTW.

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  • Cocoa Read NSInputStream from FTP connection

    - by Chuck
    Hi, I (apparently) manage to make a ftp connection, but fail to read anything from it, and with good cause: I don't reach the reading until the connection has timed out. Here's my code: NSHost *host = [NSHost hostWithAddress:@"127.0.0.1"]; [NSStream getStreamsToHost:host port:3333 inputStream:&iStream outputStream:&oStream]; NSMutableDictionary *settings = [NSMutableDictionary dictionaryWithCapacity:1]; [settings setObject:(NSString *)NSStreamSocketSecurityLevelTLSv1 forKey:(NSString *)kCFStreamSSLLevel]; [settings setObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:(NSString *)kCFStreamSSLAllowsAnyRoot]; [iStream retain]; [iStream setDelegate:self]; [iStream scheduleInRunLoop:[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] forMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode]; CFReadStreamSetProperty((CFReadStreamRef)iStream, kCFStreamPropertySSLSettings, (CFTypeRef)settings);forKey:NSStreamSocketSecurityLevelKey]; [iStream open]; [oStream retain]; [oStream setDelegate:self]; [oStream scheduleInRunLoop:[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] forMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode]; CFWriteStreamSetProperty((CFWriteStreamRef)oStream, kCFStreamPropertySSLSettings, (CFTypeRef)settings); forKey:NSStreamSocketSecurityLevelKey]; [oStream open]; NSMutableData *returnMessage = [NSMutableData dataWithLength: 300]; [iStream read: [returnMessage mutableBytes] maxLength: 300]; NSString *readData = [[NSString alloc] initWithBytes: [returnMessage bytes] length: 300 encoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSRunAlertPanel(@"response", readData, nil, nil, nil); I have not sent a request to the FTP to switch to ssl yet. Any help is greatly appreciated as I find Xcode quite horrible for debugging (no exception or error msg on failed steps what so ever). Chuck

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  • Java & Maven generating -and using- my own archetype

    - by Random
    Hello again! I have been busy in my project creating a webapp (in struts) that manages maven, using maven-2.2.1-uber.jar link text. The problem comes when the boss says it has to use some archetypes the company has created (so no predefined archetypes for you naughty boy!). So ok, I use the -DarchetypeRepository option (with ServletWrapper I get my complete web direction, becouse the repository will be inside the app), and the log seems to find it, but then the build fails -miserably- with this little text 'Build Failure - The defined artifact is not an archetype' as simple as that. Of course I have a lot of INFO lines that say abslutily nothig related. I have read the maven definitive guide searching for some kind of help, but it has been disapointing at best. My thoughts are thatmaybe I am missing in somewhere of all the folders tree some xml that actually sais maven that my pom.xml is an archetype not a project. But I really, really, can't find anything on the net or in the manuals that explains easy-handed how the archetype:generate (with special parameters) works and where I have to put every folder and/or file. So just to say my thoughts aloud (and hopefully you understand what I am trying to ask): I have a template where I do some xml changes (variables, etc...), then I have to call maen and do an archetype:generate with a variable project. The problem seems to be that my actual confuguration doesn't like what I am doing. After the generation of the archetype, witch luckly will create some directory trees and leave me a POM.xml somewhere I still have to do some variable changes and more xml manage stuff, so it whould be very kind from maven to don't destroy anything in this process. Any ideas why this maven-thing is not happly-ever-after asuming that my archetype is defintly an archetype? Allthought I think the code is ok, it could be wrong, as I am using maven-ubber and I call the actual CSMavenCli.main(String[, ClassWorld), I don't think it is the case this time. Thanks and all! :) Random.

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  • Java/BlackBerry build error overriding too many classes

    - by behrk2
    Hey everyone, Has anyone ever heard of overriding too many classes in Java? Perhaps this issue is just related to BlackBerry development, but I was wondering if it is an issue in Java, too. Let's say I have the following: LabelField lblTitle = new LabelField(title) { protected void paint(Graphics graphics) { graphics.setColor(0x00FFFFFF); graphics.clear(); super.paint(graphics); } }; LabelField lblSubTitle = new LabelField(releaseYear + ", " + rating) { protected void paint(Graphics graphics) { graphics.setColor(0x00FFFFFF); graphics.clear(); super.paint(graphics); } }; This code works. However, I've noticed that by overriding the paint() method multiple times in many different classes throughout my project, I receive the error: I/O Error: Cannot run program "jar": CreateProcess error=2, The system cannot find the file specified My only solution thus far is to clean up my GUI code...minimize it and reuse it. Perhaps its good that this happened so I can be less careless about creating GUI code all over my classes. Anyways, I was just wondering if anyone has heard of this before. If you are interested in reading more about the issue I have been facing, check out the following link: BlackBerry Java Development Forums

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  • Getting EXC_BAD_ACCESS without any helpful msg from NSZombieEnabled

    - by nefsu
    Hello guys. I'm a newbie to iphone development and I've been struggling with an EXC_BAD_ACCESS error I got a couple of days ago. I'm basically taking the Stanford iphone class independently and I am trying to pass an array of NSManagedObjects to a TableViewController that's supposed to display them. The application launches in the simulator and displays the data in the tableView but it immediately errors out with an EXC_BAD_ACCESS. I followed instructions here and other places on how to use NSZombieEnabled to identify prematurely released objects but this one comes without any helpful msgs even with NSZombieEnabled. My guess is it must be caused by something trying to access unassigned memory that wasn't released through release/autorelease. Or else it would have been picked up as zombie object like the other errors I have been able to fix. I'm not a c expert but does that mean something like that could happen if I were to declare an object and send it a message without ever instantiating it? I looked through my code to see if I had anything like that and I came up empty. I have the stack trace in the debugger for this but I'm not sure how to make use of it. I'm a little frustrated because I can't use breakpoints in the code to narrow down the problem any further since it seems to happen after the app has finished loading. I thought the app would just stay idle if there was no possible user interaction. Is it failing at the tail end of the load where I can't easy see it or is jut doing stuff in the background after it's done loading. And I would much appreciate any tips on how to read the stacktrace for this. Thanks for the help guys.

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  • Azure application working on emulator but not on azure cloud

    - by Hisham Riaz
    firstly i am developing my MVC3 application on visual web developer 2010 express, by migrating my MVC3 (cshtml) files on MVC2. it works great on local system using the emulator, but once i deploy the application on azure it gives runtime errors. example: The layout page "~/Views/Shared/test_page.cshtml" could not be found at the following path: "~/Views/Shared/test_page.cshtml". Source Error: Line 8: //Layout = "~/Views/Shared/upload.cshtml"; Line 9: //Layout = "~/Views/Shared/_Layout2.cshtml"; Line 10: Layout = "~/Views/Shared/test_page.cshtml"; Line 11: } Line 12: else CODE IS AS FOLLOWS: _ViewStart.cshtml file @{ string AccId = Request.QueryString["AccId"].ToString(); if (AccId=="0") { //Layout = "~/Views/Shared/upload.cshtml"; //Layout = "~/Views/Shared/_Layout2.cshtml"; Layout = "~/Views/Shared/test_page.cshtml"; } else { string LayOutPagePath = MVCTest.Models.ComponentClass.GetLayOutPagePath(AccId); Layout = LayOutPagePath; } } ......... how ever the page exist, and is working fine on azure emulator, but not in azure cloud. CODE FOR test_page.cshtml @{ var result = "1234567890"; var temp_xml = MVCTest.Models.ComponentClass.GetTemplateAndTheme("1");//returning xml string LayOutPagePath = MVCTest.Models.ComponentClass.GetLayOutPagePath("1");//returning string } @RenderBody() test_page @temp_xml @result @LayOutPagePath

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  • Merge replication server side foreign key violation from unpublished table

    - by Reiste
    We are using SQL Server 2005 Merge Replication with SQL CE 3.5 clients. We are using partitions with filtering for the separate subscriptions, and nHibernate for the ORM mapping. There is automatic ID range management from SQL Server for the subscriptions. We have a table, Item, and a table with a foreign key to Item - ItemHistory. Both of these are replicated down, filtered according to the subscription. Item has a column called UserId, and is filtered per subscription with this filter: WHERE UserId IN (SELECT... [complicated subselect]...) ItemHistory hangs off Item in the publication filter articles. On the server, we have a table ItemHistoryExport, which has a foreign key to ItemHistory. ItemHistoryExport is not published. Entries in the Item and ItemHistory tables are never deleted, on the server or the client. However, the "ownership" of items (and hence their ItemHistories) MAY change, which causes them to be moved from one client subscription/partition to another from time to time. When we sync, we occasionally get the following error: A row delete at '48269404 - 4108383dbb11' could not be propagated to 'MyServer\MyInstance.MyDatabase'. This failure can be caused by a constraint violation. The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint "FK_ItemHistoryExport_ItemHistory". The conflict occurred in database "MyDatabase", table "dbo.ItemHistoryExport", column 'ItemHistoryId'. Can anyone help us understand why this happens? There shouldn't ever be a delete happening on the server side.

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  • Why is Microsoft under-supporting or under-developping VBNET?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I ran into a situation where the lack of some features has become somewhat frustrating while developping in VB.NET 2.0. Since my first day of programming, I've always been a C programmer, and still am. Naturally, I chose C# as my favorite .NET language. Recently, a customer of mine has obliged that all of his development projects which disregard SharePoint development have to be written in VB.NET 2.0, that is to avoid conflictual systems to come into some problems. That is a legitimate choice of his which I approve somehow, since he's running some old central systems and is slowly migrating toward latest technologies. As for me, I would have prefered to go with C#, but then, never having done much VB in my life, I see it as an opportunity to learn somethings new, how to handle this and that in VBNET, etc. Except that the syntax is really too verbose for me, which is a pain! I got used to it and that is fine. However, I recently wanted to use the InternalsVisibleToAttribute which I discovered lastly here on SO. But then, in addition to not being able to have lambda expression that returns no value, which I discovered months ago, today I learn that I can't use the attribute in VBNET! Here is what I have read in an article: [...] Sorry VB.Net developers, Microsoft is again shunning you guys and this attribute is NOT available to you.... :( And here is the link: InternalsVisibleTo: Testing internal methods in .Net 2.0 I have heard from Anders Hejlsberg mouth while watching a Webcast from his presentation of .NET 4.0 Framework that the VBNET team was working or has worked in collaboration with the C# team (Eric Lippert and others) in order to bring VBNET to offer the same features as C# offers. But then, I say to myself that the VBNET team has a huge step forward to make, if already in .NET 2.0, some of the most important features lacked! So my question is this: Why is Microsoft under-supporting or under-developping VBNET? Will VBNET ever be lacking the C# features?

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  • Ideal Multi-Developer Lamp Stack?

    - by devians
    I would like to build an 'ideal' lamp development stack. Dual Server (Virtualised, ESX) Apache / PHP on one, Databases (MySQL, PgSQL, etc) on the other. User (Developer) Manageable mini environments, or instance. Each developer instance shares the top level config (available modules and default config etc) A developer should have control over their apache and php version for each project. A developer might be able to change minor settings, ie magicquotes on for legacy code. Each project would determine its database provider in its code The idea is that it is one administrate-able server that I can control, and provide globally configured things like APC, Memcached, XDebug etc. Then by moving into subsets for each project, i can allow my users to quickly control their environments for various projects. Essentially I'm proposing the typical system of a developer running their own stack on their own machine, but centralised. In this way I'd hope to avoid problems like Cross OS code problems, database inconsistencies, slightly different installs producing bugs etc. I'm happy to manage this in custom builds from source, but if at all possible it would be great to have a large portion of it managed with some sort of package management. We typically use CentOS, so yum? Has anyone ever built anything like this before? Is there something turnkey that is similar to what I have described? Are there any useful guides I should be reading in order to build something like this?

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  • How to stop MVC caching the results of invoking and action method?

    - by Trey Carroll
    I am experiencing a problem with IE caching the results of an action method. Other articles I found were related to security and the [Authorize] attribute. This problem has nothing to do with security. This is a very simple "record a vote, grab the average, return the avg and the number of votes" method. The only slightly interesting thing about it is that it is invoked via Ajax and returns a Json object. I believe that it is the Json object that is getting catched. When I run it from FireFox and watch the XHR traffic with Firebug, everything works perfectly. However, under IE 8 the "throbber" graphic doesn't ever have time to show up and the page elements that display the "new" avg and count that are being injected into the page with jQuery are never different. I need a way to tell MVC to never cache this action method. This article seems to address the problem, but I cannot understand it: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1441467/prevent-caching-of-attributes-in-asp-net-mvc-force-attribute-execution-every-tim I need a bit more context for the solution to understand how to extend AuthorizationAttribute. Please address your answer as if you were speaking to someone who lacks a deep understanding of MVC even if that means replying with an article on some basics/prerequisites that are required. Thanks, Trey Carroll

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  • What are alternatives to Win32 PulseEvent() function?

    - by Bill
    The documentation for the Win32 API PulseEvent() function (kernel32.dll) states that this function is “… unreliable and should not be used by new applications. Instead, use condition variables”. However, condition variables cannot be used across process boundaries like (named) events can. I have a scenario that is cross-process, cross-runtime (native and managed code) in which a single producer occasionally has something interesting to make known to zero or more consumers. Right now, a well-known named event is used (and set to signaled state) by the producer using this PulseEvent function when it needs to make something known. Zero or more consumers wait on that event (WaitForSingleObject()) and perform an action in response. There is no need for two-way communication in my scenario, and the producer does not need to know if the event has any listeners, nor does it need to know if the event was successfully acted upon. On the other hand, I do not want any consumers to ever miss any events. In other words, the system needs to be perfectly reliable – but the producer does not need to know if that is the case or not. The scenario can be thought of as a “clock ticker” – i.e., the producer provides a semi-regular signal for zero or more consumers to count. And all consumers must have the correct count over any given period of time. No polling by consumers is allowed (performance reasons). The ticker is just a few milliseconds (20 or so, but not perfectly regular). Raymen Chen (The Old New Thing) has a blog post pointing out the “fundamentally flawed” nature of the PulseEvent() function, but I do not see an alternative for my scenario from Chen or the posted comments. Can anyone please suggest one? Please keep in mind that the IPC signal must cross process boundries on the machine, not simply threads. And the solution needs to have high performance in that consumers must be able to act within 10ms of each event.

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  • Application get crash while using NSAutoreleasepool inside MKMapview regionDidChangeAnimated method

    - by Ram
    Hi, i am working on a map application, in that i like to drop the pins (as in Zillow apps) when ever user change the map view. I am using following code code. i am try to load the xml data from server using NSAutoreleasepool to do the xml parsing in the background thread. (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView regionDidChangeAnimated:(BOOL)animated{ NSLog(@"inside region did changed "); urlString =[NSString stringWithFormat: @"http://asdfasdasdf.com/asdfasdf/mapxml.php]; [stories1 release]; [mapview removeAnnotations:eventPoints1]; eventPoints1 = [[NSMutableArray array] retain]; [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(callParsing) withObject:nil]; } -(void)callParsing{ NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; [self parseXMLFileAtURL:urlString]; [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(droppingPin) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:YES]; [pool drain]; } The above code is working fine, but once i changed the mapview, the appllication get crashed. Anyone can help me to fix the issue? thanks in advance.

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  • Cloning items in a listbox c#

    - by Jenny
    I have 2 list boxes and want to be able to copy selected items from one to the other how ever many times I want. Ive managed to do this but I have buttons on the 2nd list box that allow me to go up and down..Now when theres to items in the second list box that are the same (e.g "gills" and "gills") it doesnt behave normally and crashes. Is there a way in which I can get them to act as seperate items in the 2nd listbox? code private void buttonUp_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { object selected = listBox2.SelectedItem; int index = list2.Items.IndexOf(selected); listBox2.Items.Remove(selected); listBox2.Items.Insert(index - 1, selected); listBox2.SetSelected(index - 1, true); } private void buttonAdd_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataRowView selected = (DataRowView)listBox1.SelectedItem; string item = selected["title"].ToString(); listBox2.Items.Add(item); } It works fine when i havnt got duplicates but when i do they just jump around randomly when i press up/down. (ive not included down as its pretty much the same as up)

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  • Overriding deep functions in javascript

    - by PintSizedCat
    I'm quite new to javascript but have undertaken a task to get better aquainted with it. However, I am running into some problems with jQuery. The following javascript is the code that is in a third party jQuery plugin and I would love to be able to override the funFunction() function here to do my own implementation. Is this possible, if so, how can I do it? I've been doing a fair amount of searching and have tried a number of methods for overriding the function using things like: jQuery.blah.funFunction = funtion() { alert("like this"); }; Main code: (function($) { $.extend( { blah: new function() { this.construct = = function(settings) { //Construct... stuff }; function funFunction() { //Function I want to override } } }); })(jQuery); For those further interested I am trying to override tablesorter so that the only way a user can sort a column is in ascending order only. Edit: There is a wordpress installation that uses WP-Table-Reloaded which in turn uses this plugin. I don't want to change the core code for this plugin because if there was ever an update I would then have to make sure that my predecessor knew exactly what I had done. I've been programming for a long time and feel like I should easily be able to pick up javascript whilst also looking at jQuery. I know exactly what I need to do for this, just not how I can override this function.

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  • ai: Determining what tests to run to get most useful data

    - by Sai Emrys
    This is for http://cssfingerprint.com I have a system (see about page on site for details) where: I need to output a ranked list, with confidences, of categories that match a particular feature vector the binary feature vectors are a list of site IDs & whether this session detected a hit feature vectors are, for a given categorization, somewhat noisy (sites will decay out of history, and people will visit sites they don't normally visit) categories are a large, non-closed set (user IDs) my total feature space is approximately 50 million items (URLs) for any given test, I can only query approx. 0.2% of that space I can only make the decision of what to query, based on results so far, ~10-30 times, and must do so in <~100ms (though I can take much longer to do post-processing, relevant aggregation, etc) getting the AI's probability ranking of categories based on results so far is mildly expensive; ideally the decision will depend mostly on a few cheap sql queries I have training data that can say authoritatively that any two feature vectors are the same category but not that they are different (people sometimes forget their codes and use new ones, thereby making a new user id) I need an algorithm to determine what features (sites) are most likely to have a high ROI to query (i.e. to better discriminate between plausible-so-far categories [users], and to increase certainty that it's any given one). This needs to take into balance exploitation (test based on prior test data) and exploration (test stuff that's not been tested enough to find out how it performs). There's another question that deals with a priori ranking; this one is specifically about a posteriori ranking based on results gathered so far. Right now, I have little enough data that I can just always test everything that anyone else has ever gotten a hit for, but eventually that won't be the case, at which point this problem will need to be solved. I imagine that this is a fairly standard problem in AI - having a cheap heuristic for what expensive queries to make - but it wasn't covered in my AI class, so I don't actually know whether there's a standard answer. So, relevant reading that's not too math-heavy would be helpful, as well as suggestions for particular algorithms. What's a good way to approach this problem?

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  • Suggestions on how build an HTML Diff tool?

    - by Danimal
    In this post I asked if there were any tools that compare the structure (not actual content) of 2 HTML pages. I ask because I receive HTML templates from our designers, and frequently miss minor formatting changes in my implementation. I then waste a few hours of designer time sifting through my pages to find my mistakes. The thread offered some good suggestions, but there was nothing that fit the bill. "Fine, then", thought I, "I'll just crank one out myself. I'm a halfway-decent developer, right?". Well, once I started to think about it, I couldn't quite figure out how to go about it. I can crank out a data-driven website easily enough, or do a CMS implementation, or throw documents in and out of BizTalk all day. Can't begin to figure out how to compare HTML docs. Well, sure, I have to read the DOM, and iterate through the nodes. I have to map the structure to some data structure (how??), and then compare them (how??). It's a development task like none I've ever attempted. So now that I've identified a weakness in my knowledge, I'm even more challenged to figure this out. Any suggestions on how to get started? clarification: the actual content isn't what I want to compare -- the creative guys fill their pages with lorem ipsum, and I use real content. Instead, I want to compare structure: <div class="foo">lorem ipsum<div> is different that <div class="foo"><p>lorem ipsum<p><div>

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  • Objective-C Simple Inheritance and OO Principles

    - by bleeckerj
    I have a subclass SubClass that inherits from baseclass BaseClass. BaseClass has an initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.goodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } SubClass does its initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.extraGoodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } Now, I've *never taken a proper Objective-C course, but I'm a programmer more from the Electrical Engineering side, so I make do. I've developed server-side applications mostly in Java though, so I may be seeing the OO world through Java principles. When SubClass is initialized, it calls the BaseClass init and my expectation would be — because inheritance to me implies that characteristics of a BaseClass pass through to SubClass — that the commonInit method in BaseClass would be called during BaseClass init. It is not. I can *sorta understand maybe-possibly-stretch-my-imagination why it wouldn't be. But, then — why wouldn't it be based on the principles of OOP? What does "self" represent if not the instance of the class of the running code? Okay, so — I'm not going to argue that what a well-developed edition of Objective-C is doing is wrong. So, then — what is the pattern I should be using in this case? I want SubClass to have two main bits — the goodStuff that BaseClass has as well as the extraGoodStuff that it deserves as well. Clearly, I've been using the wrong pattern in this type of situation. Am I meant to expose commonInit (which makes me wonder about encapsulation principles — why expose something that, in the Java world at least, would be considered "protected" and something that should only ever be called once for each instance)? I've run into a similar problem in the recent past and tried to muddle through it, but now — I'm really wondering if I've got my principles and concepts all straight in my head. Little help, please.

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  • Why do people have to use multiple versions of jQuery in the same page?

    - by reprogrammer
    I have noticed that sometimes people have to use multiple versions of jQuery in the same page (See question 1 and question 2). I assume people have to carry old versions of jQuery because some pieces of their code is based on an older version of jQuery. Obviously, this approach causes inefficiency. The ideal solution is to refactor the old code to use the newer jQuery API. I wonder if there are tools that automate the process of upgrading a piece of code to use a newer version of jQuery. I've never written programs in in either Javascript or jQuery. So, I'd like to hear from programmers experienced in these language about their opinion on this issue. In particular, I'd like to know the following. How much of problem it is to have to load multiple versions of jQuery? Have you ever had to load multiple versions of any other library in the same page? Do you know of any refactoring tools that helps you migrate your code to use the updated API? Do you think such a refactoring tool is useful? Are you willing to use it?

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