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• Using git (or some other VCS) at your company

  - by supercheetah

  Some friends of mine and I were talking recently about version control, and how they were using VSS at their jobs, and were probably going to be moving off of that soon. One of them said that his company will likely be going with Team Foundation Server. Eventually, the conversation did get around to talking about some of the open source VCSes out there, including git and SVN. None of us really knew about any companies that use either of these internally, although we imagined that a number of them did so for SVN, but we weren't too sure about git. I brought up Google and Android using it, but my friend figured that's only for the public facing source code, and that they may use something different for internal projects. Apparently it's more than just SCM that makes TFS so intriguing: Microsoft Sales people and support (although my friend did point out somethings to his managers that he thought might be misleading on MS' part) Integration of things beyond SCM, including project management (I'm just finding out that there are geared towards the same things for git) Again, it's Microsoft, and the transition from VSS to TFS seems logical (or does it?) I'm not much of a fan of SVN, so I didn't really bring it up much, but I am curious about whether or not git is used at your company for internal projects. Have you thought about it, and decided against it? Any reason why?

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• Automatically use inclusion tags (?) in a template, depending on installed apps

  - by Ludwik Trammer

  The title may be a little confusing, but I don't know how else to call it. I would like to create a Django project with a large set of applications you could arbitrary turn on or off using INSTALLED_APPS option in settings.py (you would obviously also need to edit urls.py and run syncdb). After being turned on an app should be able to automatically: Register it's content in site-wide search. Luckily django-haystack has this built-in, so it's not a problem. Register cron jobs. django-cron does exactly that. Not a problem. Register a widget that should be displayed on the homepage. The homepage should include a list of boxes with widgets form different applications. I thought about inclusion tags, because you can put them anywhere on a page and they control both content and presentation. The problem is I don't know how to automatically get a list of inclusion tags provided by my applications, and display them one by one on a homepage. I need a way to register them somehow, and then display all registered tags.

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• Help me find article on Multi-threading and Event Handling in Java

  - by JDR

  I once read an article on how to properly write event handlers for multi-threading in Java, but I can't for the life of me find it anymore. It described the pitfalls and potentials for deadlocks that can occur when firing events (not Swing events mind you, but general events like model update notifications). To clarify, the situation would be as such: // let's say this is code from an MVC model somewhere public void setSomeProperty(String myProperty){ if(!this.myProperty.equals(myProperty)){ this.myProperty = myProperty; fireMyPropertyChangedEvent(...); } } The article described how passing control to arbitrary external listener code was a potential cause for deadlock. I now find myself in a situation where I need to fire such events in a multithreaded environment and I would very much like to read the article again to see what it has to say before I continue. Does anyone know the article I'm referring to? I believe it came as a (fairly short) PDF. It started off with an initial naive implementation and incrementally pointed out flaws and improved upon it. It ended with a sort of final proper-way-to-fire-multithreaded-events. I've searched endlessly in my browse history and on google, but all I could find were endless amounts topics on Swing event dispatch threads. Thank you.

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• Subversion unable to merge changes when using Dreamweaver

  - by neilc

  I've got a project running and we're using SVN as the version control. There are 3 devs on it. Dev1 = OSX + Textmate Dev2 = Windows 7 + Dreamweaver (plus tortoise svn) Dev3 = OSX + Coda Case 1 (expected): Dev1 and dev3 work on a file called signup.php. They work on different parts of the file. Dev1 commits it and dev3 updates their copy. signup.php is merged as expected. All good. Case 2 (not expected): Dev1 and dev2 work on a file called signup.php. They work on different parts of the file. Dev1 commits it and dev2 updates their copy. signup.php is always in conflict even though different parts of the file are worked on. This is not the expected behaviour experienced by dev1 and dev3. This works boths ways and each time dev1 updates dev2's changes he gets conflicts too. But never with dev3. Could this be down the way Dreamweaver is saving files ? Perhaps character encoding. We are all working in UTF8. These constant and unnecessary conflicts are becoming a massive distraction. Help !

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• NUll exception in filling a querystring by mocing framework

  - by user564101

  There is a simple controller that a querystring is read in constructor of it. public class ProductController : Controller { parivate string productName; public ProductController() { productName = Request.QueryString["productname"]; } public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = productName; return View(); } } Also I have a function in unit test that create an instance of this Controller and I fill the querystring by a Mock object like below. [TestClass] public class ProductControllerTest { [TestMethod] public void test() { // Arrange var querystring = new System.Collections.Specialized.NameValueCollection { { "productname", "sampleproduct"} }; var mock = new Mock<ControllerContext>(); mock.SetupGet(p => p.HttpContext.Request.QueryString).Returns(querystring); var controller = new ProductController(); controller.ControllerContext = mock.Object; // Act var result = controller.Index() as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.AreEqual("Index", result.ViewName); } } Unfortunately Request.QueryString["productname"] is null in constructor of ProductController when I run test unit. Is ther any way to fill a querystrin by a mocking and get it in constructor of a control?

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• XmlSerializer construction with same named extra types

  - by NoizWaves

  Hey, I am hitting trouble constructing an XmlSerializer where the extra types contains types with the same Name (but unique Fullname). Below is an example that illustrated my scenario. Type definitions in external assembly I cannot manipulate: public static class Wheel { public enum Status { Stopped, Spinning } } public static class Engine { public enum Status { Idle, Full } } Class I have written and have control over: public class Car { public Wheel.Status WheelStatus; public Engine.Status EngineStatus; public static string Serialize(Car car) { var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Car), new[] {typeof(Wheel.Status),typeof(Engine.Status)}); var output = new StringBuilder(); using (var sw = new StringWriter(output)) xs.Serialize(sw, car); return output.ToString(); } } The XmlSerializer constructor throws a System.InvalidOperationException with Message "There was an error reflecting type 'Engine.Status'" This exception has an InnerException of type System.InvalidOperationException and with Message "Types 'Wheel.Status' and 'Engine.Status' both use the XML type name, 'Status', from namespace ''. Use XML attributes to specify a unique XML name and/or namespace for the type." Given that I am unable to alter the enum types, how can I construct an XmlSerializer that will serialize Car successfully?

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• What is the best way to get a reference to a spring bean in the backend layers?

  - by java_pill

  I have two spring config files and I'm specifying them in my web.xml as in below. web.xml snippet .. <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>WEB-INF/classes/domain-context.xml WEB-INF/classes/client-ws.xml</param-value> </context-param> <listener> <listener-class>org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener</listener-class> </listener> .. From my domain object I have to invoke a Web Service Client and in order to get a reference to the Web Service client I do this: ApplicationContext context = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("client-ws.xml"); //b'cos I don't want to use WebApplicationContextUtils ProductServiceClient client = (ProductServiceClient) context.getBean("productClient"); .. client.find(prodID); //calls a Web Service .. However, I have concerns that looking up the client-ws.xml file and getting a reference to the ProductServiceClient bean is not efficient. I thought of getting it using WebApplicationContextUtils. However, I don't want my domain objects to have a dependency on the ServletContext (a web/control layer object) because WebApplicationContextUtils depends on ServletContext. What is the best way to get a reference to a spring bean in the backend layers? Thanks!

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• Can I do something like this?

  - by kumar

  <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<IEnumerable<StudentInfo>>" %> <% int i = 0; %> <% foreach(var e in Model){%> <div> <% if(i==0) { %> <% Html.RenderAction("student", "home", new { @et = e}); %> <% break; } %> <div> <span> <% Html.RenderAction("studentDetails", "home", new { @et = e }); %> </span> </div> </div> <%i++; } %> here my intension was to execute Renderction Student only once.. and Studentdetails should be multiple times.. but int value is allways taking i =0 bec each time page is loading its considering 0 allways.. can anybody tell me how to do this? thanks

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• What are your Programming Falacies/Myths?

  - by pms1969

  I recently started a new job and as is typical of all jobs, if you've left, you get blamed for everything. Not long after I started there was a change required for an app (web based) that we maintain, and it was quickly pointed out that the actual code for this site had been lost a long time ago, and the only changes we could make to the it were ones that required changes to mark-up [it was a pre-compiled site]. Being new, I needed a little help finding my way around the code, and enlisted the services of one of my colleagues. Made my changes, and then re-enlisted his help to deploy it. While prepping for the deployment (getting the app on the QA server) we discovered that there were actually 2 different, very similarly named, folders in our source repository. It transpired that for the last year or so, mark-up changes had been made to the site directly, and these were the only differences with the code in the slightly incorrectly named folder in source control. So we did have all the code, and can now properly support the site. This put me in mind of a trick we played on a junior programmer once in a previous job, where we told him he couldn't/shouldn't do a certain thing in code as this would likely bring the server to it's knees and cost the company thousands of pounds (a gag that last months :-). And another one in the first programming job I took on - the batch commission run was just going to crash once a month and there was nothing to be done about it, causing a call out, and call out compensation for the on-call guy (a bug I fixed as soon as I became the on-call guy - 2am call outs don't work for me). So I was wondering... What other programming fallacies/myths are out there that are worth sharing?

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• Read data from form

  - by Superhuman

  This is a strange question, I've never tried to do this before. I have a repetitive process requiring that I copy and paste data from text boxes in one program into another program for further processing. I'd like to automate this process using VB .NET. The application from which the data is gathered isn't mine, so I don't have ActiveX-like access to its controls. How would you write an application to gain access to a form from another application, to be able to find the controls on the form, and gather the values from them? Just experimenting, I've used the following code. This resulted in only the name of the form to which this code belongs. It didn't find the names of any other forms I have open, and I have a lot open to choose from. This is frustrating because it's only step one of what I'll need to do to make my life easier... Public Declare Function EnumWindows Lib "user32" (ByVal lpEnumFunc As CallBack, ByVal lParam As Integer) As Integer Public Delegate Function CallBack(ByVal hwnd As IntPtr, ByVal lParam As IntPtr) As Boolean Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim cb As New CallBack(AddressOf MyCallBack) EnumWindows(cb, 8) End Sub Public Function MyCallBack(ByVal hwnd As Long, ByVal lparam As Long) As Boolean Dim frm As System.Windows.Forms.Control frm = System.Windows.Forms.Form.FromHandle(hwnd) If frm Is Nothing Then Return True If frm.Text <> "" Then TextBox1.Text += frm.Text & ", " End If Return True End Function Does anyone have a recommendation? Thanks, SH

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• How to query an .NET assembly's required framework (not CLR) version?

  - by Bonfire Burns

  Hi, we are using some kind of plug-in architecture in one of our products (based on .NET). We have to consider our customers or even 3rd party devs writing plug-ins for the product. The plug-ins will be .NET assemblies that are loaded by our product at run-time. We have no control about the quality or capabilities of the external plug-ins (apart from checking whether they implement the correct interfaces). So we need to implement some kind of safety check while loading the plug-ins to make sure that our product (and the hosting environment) can actually host the plug-in or deliver a meaningful error message ("The plug-in your are loading needs .NET version 42.42 - the hosting system is only on version 33.33."). Ideally the plug-ins would do this check internally, but our experience regarding their competence is so-so and in any case our product will get the blame, so we want to make sure that this "just works". Requiring the plug-in developers to provide the info in the metadata or to explicitly provide the information in the interface is considered "too complicated". I know about the Assembly.ImageRuntimeVersion property. But to my knowledge this tells me only the needed CLR version, not the framework version. And I don't want to check all of the assembly's dependencies and match them against a table of "framework version vs. available assemblies". Do you have any ideas how to solve this in a simple and maintainable fashion? Thanks & regards, Bon

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• ZendFramework Headscript Helper - Make scripts unique

  - by tokam

  How can I ensure that the headScript and headStyle helper include css files only once when added? The reason I am asking is that I would like to display some contents in a lightbox and all Flashmassages.E.g. notifications like profile successfully edited. To display flashmessages in the lightbox i would like to check at the top of my layout script if they are set, in case they are i would like to attach the required javascript library using the headScript helper. The problem is that I have no control about the scripts which were already added at this point. Maybe at a page where the library is needed for an other use case, it has already been added with addScript. How can I ensure all scripts are added only once to my helper? I already checked that these helpers extend Zend_View_Helper_Placeholder_Container_Standalone which uses an ArrayObject internally to hold the data and provides getters & setter to the array object. Maybe a solution here would be to check each time when adding a script file if it already exists using the ArrayObject?

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• How to use .htaccess to redirect to an url that includes a query parameter

  - by wbervoets

  Hi guys, I've been struggling with a redirect where the final URL includes a query parameter that is an URL. It seems htaccess is escaping some characters. Here is my htaccess: Code: RewriteRule ^mypath http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 [L,R=302] First, if I put Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 in my browser address bar, www.otherserver.com will do its thing and then redirect to otherserver2 (including the &param2=1 which is a parameter of that URL and not of the URL otherserver.com) That's the behaviour I need :-) Now when I try to use the htaccess redirect from my site: http://mysite/mypath; the behaviour is not the same then putting the same URL in the browser address bar; it now tries to redirect to http ://otherserver2.com/ (no param2=1 anymore). (ps: otherserver1 and otherserver2 are not under my control.) I've tried escaping the redirectto parameter in my htaccess, like below, but it didn't work either: Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http%3a%2f%otherserver2.com%2f%3fparam2%3d1 Because then my browser tries to go to httpotherserver.com (all special characters are gone) In the end I would like to see http ://mysite/mypath to show the contents of Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 (preferred solution) or do a redirect to that URL. I hope my message is not to confusing, I hope someone can help me out; as I've already spent hours on this :-)

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• Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

  - by ScottKoon

  I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

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• How can I parse_url in PHP when there is a URL in a string variable?

  - by Eric O

  I am admittedly a PHP newbie, so I need some help. I am creating a self-designed affiliate program for my site and have the option for an affiliate to add a SubID to their link for tracking. Without having control over what is entered, I have been testing different scenarios and found a bug when a full URL is entered (i.e. "http://example.com"). In my PHP I can grab the variable from the string no problem. My problem comes from when I get the referring URL and parse it (since I need to parse the referring URL to get the host mane for other uses). Code below: $refURL = getenv("HTTP_REFERER"); $parseRefURL = parse_url($refURL); WORKS when incoming link is (for example): http://example.com/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=www.test.com ERROR when incoming link is (notice the addition of "http://" after "sid="): http://example.com/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=http://www.test.com Here is the warning message: Warning: parse_url(/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=http://www.test.com) [function.parse-url]: Unable to parse url in /home4/'directory'/public_html/hosterdoodle/header.php on line 28 Any ideas on how to keep the parse-url function from being thrown off when someone may decide to place a URL in a variable? (I actually tested this problem down to the point that it will throw the error with as little as ":/" in the variable)

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• how can i redirect page while download box appears?

  - by Ronnie Chester Lynwood

  Now I got this code; <?php $file = "pain.png"; if (file_exists($file)) { header('Content-Description: File Transfer'); header('Content-Type: application/octet-stream'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='.basename($file)); header('Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary'); header('Expires: 0'); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0'); header('Pragma: public'); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($file)); ob_clean(); flush(); readfile($file); exit; } ?> This code appears a download box. But I want to redirect this page to "Thank You" page while download box still here. How can i do this? Thanks...

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• Python - How to wake up a sleeping process- multiprocessing?

  - by user1162512

  I need to wake up a sleeping process ? The time (t) for which it sleeps is calculated as t = D/S . Now since s is varying, can increase or decrease, I need to increase/decrease the sleeping time as well. The speed is received over a UDP procotol. So, how do I change the sleeping time of a process, keeping in mind the following:- If as per the previous speed `S1`, the time to sleep is `(D/S1)` . Now the speed is changed, it should now sleep for the new time,ie (D/S2). Since, it has already slept for D/S1 time, now it should sleep for D/S2 - D/S1. How would I do it? As of right now, I'm just assuming that the speed will remain constant all throughout the program, hence not notifying the process. But how would I do that according to the above condition? def process2(): p = multiprocessing.current_process() time.sleep(secs1) # send some packet1 via UDP time.sleep(secs2) # send some packet2 via UDP time.sleep(secs3) # send some packet3 via UDP Also, as in threads, 1) threading.activeCount(): Returns the number of thread objects that are active. 2) threading.currentThread(): Returns the number of thread objects in the caller's thread control. 3) threading.enumerate(): Returns a list of all thread objects that are currently active. What are the similar functions for getting activecount, enumerate in multiprocessing?

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• SWT Browser Drag and Drop

  - by scottalas

  I'm trying to use drag-n-drop with an embedded SWT Browser, so that my application can drag hyperlinks from the Browser to another Control. I've been able to set up the destination to receive data from an external browser, but the internal does not seem to participate in the drag-n-drop. Any ideas? I would guess that I need something like a selection listener to track when something is grabbed in the browser, or some way to ask the browser what is currently selected, perhaps using javascript. My current setup of the Browser is simplistic, looking like this: browser = new Browser(top, SWT.NONE); // MOZILLA createDragSource(browser); // below // a selection listener never receives events: browser.addListener(SWT.Selection, new Listener() { @Override public void handleEvent(Event event) { System.out.println("Selection listener event"); } }); ... private void createDragSource(final Browser browser) { Transfer[] types = new Transfer[] { URLTransfer.getInstance(), HTMLTransfer.getInstance(), TextTransfer.getInstance(), ImageTransfer.getInstance(), }; int mode = DND.DROP_COPY | DND.DROP_LINK | DND.DROP_MOVE; DragSource dragSource = new DragSource(browser, mode); dragSource.setTransfer(types); dragSource.addDragListener(new DragSourceListener() { public void dragStart(DragSourceEvent event) { System.out.println("source.dragStart"); } public void dragSetData(DragSourceEvent event) { System.out.println("source.dragSetData"); // Is there a way to get the Browser's drag item here? } public void dragFinished(DragSourceEvent event) { System.out.println("source.dragFinished"); //do nothing } }); } Thanks for any help!

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• ThreadExceptionEventHandler and invoking delegates

  - by QmunkE

  If I assign a ThreadExceptionEventHandler to Application.ThreadException, why when I invoke a delegate method using a control on the main application thread are any exceptions thrown by that delegate not triggering the event handler? i.e. static void Main() { ... Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.Error.Write("A thread exception occurred!"); } ... private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread syncThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.ThrowException)); syncThread.Start(); } private void ThrowException() { button1.Invoke(new MethodInvoker(delegate { // Not handled by ThreadExceptionEventHandler? throw new Exception(); })); } The context on this is that I have a background thread started from a form which is throwing an unhandled exception which terminates the application. I know this thread is going to be unreliable since it is network connectivity reliant and so subject to being terminated at any point, but I'm just interested as to why this scenario doesn't play out as I expect?

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• Design issue when having classes implement different interfaces to restrict client actions

  - by devoured elysium

  Let's say I'm defining a game class that implements two different views: interface IPlayerView { void play(); } interface IDealerView { void deal(); } The view that a game sees when playing the game, and a view that the dealer sees when dealing the game (this is, a player can't make dealer actions and a dealer can't make player actions). The game definition is as following: class Game : IPlayerView, IDealerView { void play() { ... } void deal() { ... } } Now assume I want to make it possible for the players to play the game, but not to deal it. My original idea was that instead of having public Game GetGame() { ... } I'd have something like public IPlayerView GetGame() { ... } But after some tests I realized that if I later try this code, it works: IDealerView dealerView = (IDealerView)GameClass.GetGame(); this works as lets the user act as the dealer. Am I worrying to much? How do you usually deal with this patterns? I could instead make two different classes, maybe a "main" class, the dealer class, that would act as factory of player classes. That way I could control exactly what I would like to pass on the the public. On the other hand, that turns everything a bit more complex than with this original design. Thanks

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• Externally disabling signals for a Linux program.

  - by Harry

  Hello, On Linux, is it possible to somehow disable signaling for programs externally... that is, without modifying their source code? Context: I'm calling a C (and also a Java) program from within a bash script on Linux. I don't want any interruptions for my bash script, and for the other programs that the script launches (as foreground processes). While I can use a... trap '' INT ... in my bash script to disable the Ctrl C signal, this works only when the program control happens to be in the bash code. That is, if I press Ctrl C while the C program is running, the C program gets interrupted and it exits! This C program is doing some critical operation because of which I don't want it be interrupted. I don't have access to the source code of this C program, so signal handling inside the C program is out of question. #!/bin/bash trap 'echo You pressed Ctrl C' INT # A C program to emulate a real-world, long-running program, # which I don't want to be interrupted, and for which I # don't have the source code! # # File: y.c # To build: gcc -o y y.c # # #include <stdio.h> # int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { # printf("Performing a critical operation...\n"); # for(;;); // Do nothing forever. # printf("Performing a critical operation... done.\n"); # } ./y Regards, /HS

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• Which way is preferred when doing asynchronous WCF calls?

  - by Mikael Svenson

  When invoking a WCF service asynchronous there seems to be two ways it can be done. 1. public void One() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); client.BegindoSearch("input", ResultOne, null); } private void ResultOne(IAsyncResult ar) { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); string data = client.EnddoSearch(ar); } 2. public void Two() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); client.doSearchCompleted += TwoCompleted; client.doSearchAsync("input"); } void TwoCompleted(object sender, doSearchCompletedEventArgs e) { string data = e.Result; } And with the new Task<T> class we have an easy third way by wrapping the synchronous operation in a task. 3. public void Three() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); var task = Task<string>.Factory.StartNew(() => client.doSearch("input")); string data = task.Result; } They all give you the ability to execute other code while you wait for the result, but I think Task<T> gives better control on what you execute before or after the result is retrieved. Are there any advantages or disadvantages to using one over the other? Or scenarios where one way of doing it is more preferable?

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• How can I create an Assembly program WITHOUT using libraries?

  - by Newbie

  Hello. I've literally only just started looking to learn Assembly language. I'm using the NASM assembler on Windows Vista. Usually, when I begin to learn a new language, I'll copy someone else's Hello World code and try to understand it line-by-line. However, I'm finding it suprisingy difficult to find a Hello World program that doesn't reference other libraries! You see, there's no point trying to understand each line of the code if it is closely linked with a whole library of additional code! One of the reasons I want to learn Assembly is so that I can have near complete control over the programs I write. I don't want to be depending on any libraries. And so my question is this: Can anyone give me NASM-compatible Assembly code to a completely stand-alone Hello World program that can output to the Windows Vista console? Alternatively, I appreciate that a library may be required to tell the pogram WHERE to print the output (ie. the Windows console). Other than that, I can't see why any libraries should be required. Am I overlooking anything?

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• page variable in a repeater

  - by carrot_programmer_3

  Hi I'm having a bit of an issue with a asp.net repeater I'm building a categories carousel with the dynamic categories being output by a repeater. Each item is a LinkButton control that passes an argument of the category id to the onItemClick handler. a page variable is set by this handler to track what the selected category id is.... public String SelectedID { get { object o = this.ViewState["_SelectedID"]; if (o == null) return "-1"; else return (String)o; } set { this.ViewState["_SelectedID"] = value; } } problem is that i cant seem to read this value while iterating through the repeater as follows... <asp:Repeater ID="categoriesCarouselRepeater" runat="server" onitemcommand="categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "<div class=\"selectedcategory\">":"<div>"%> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" CommandName="select_category" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("CategoryID")%>' runat="server"><img src="<%#Eval("imageSource")%>" alt="category" /><br /> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> calling <%=SelectedID%> in the item template works but when i try the following expression the value of SelectedID returns empty.. <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "match" : "not a match"%> the value is being set as follows... protected void categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { SelectedID = e.CommandArgument); } Any ideas whats wrong here?

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• Why the databinding fails in ListView (WPF) ?

  - by Ashish Ashu

  I have a ListView of which ItemSource is set to my Custom Collection. I have defined a GridView CellTemplate that contains a combo box as below : <ListView MaxWidth="850" Grid.Row="1" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedCondition}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = Conditions}" FontWeight="Normal" FontSize="11" Name="listview"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Width="175" Header="Type"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ComboBox Style="{x:Null}" x:Name="TypeCmbox" Height="Auto" Width="150" SelectedValuePath="Key" DisplayMemberPath="Value" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = MyType}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = MyTypes}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> </ListView> My Custom collection is the ObservableCollection. I have a two buttons - Move Up and Move Down on top of the listview control . When user clicks on the Move Up or Move Down button I call MoveUp and MoveDown methods of Observable Collection. But when I Move Up and Move Down the rows then the Selected Index of a combo box is -1. I have ensured that selectedItem is not equal to null when performing Move Up and Move Down commands. Please Help!!

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