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  • iPad: Detecting External Keyboard

    - by StuartW
    My app uses a UIAccessoryView to provide additional keyboard functionality (such as forward/backward tabs and arrows keys) for the virtual keyboard, but that causes UIKeyboardDidShowNotification to fire even when a physical keyboard is present (the accessory appears at the bottom of the screen). I'd like to check if a physical keyboard is attached when handling UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, to prevent the accessory view from appearing and to prevent my custom view from scrolling up (to make room for the non-existent virtual keyboard). I've tried examining the UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey key, but it returns a real size for the virtual keyboard, in spite of nothing being displayed. Is there any way to detect the presence of a physical keyboard to prevent this unwanted behaviour? Hmm, the plot thickens. I tried disabling the input accessory by returning nil from the inputAccessoryView property of the Responder object which triggers the keyboard. That suppresses UIKeyboardWillShowNotification and UIKeyboardDidShowNotification when there is a physical keyboard present, but keeps these notifications when there is no such keyboard. All good so far. Then I tried re-enabling inputAccessoryView only after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification had been received. This only fires when a virtual keyboard is needed, so it should allow me to reintroduce the accessory view in those circumstances. Or so I thought. Unfortunately, it seems the OS doesn't check inputAccessoryView after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, so it fails to show the accessory view when it is needed :o( That leaves me with two options: Include the input accessory view, giving extra functionality for virtual keyboard users, but lose the ability to detect a physical keyboard and hence not supporting physical devices; or Exclude the input accessory altogether, preventing most users from accessing the extra keys, but allowing the app to work with a physical keyboard. Not a great choice, so I'm still keen to see if anyone else has addressed this problem!

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  • How to fetch and populate backbone model for Google Places JS API?

    - by code-gijoe
    I'm implementing a system that require access to Google Places JS API. I've been using rails for most of the project, but now I want to inject a bit of AJAX in one of my views. Basically it is a view that displays places near your location. For this, I'm using the JS API of Google places. A quick workflow would be: 1- The user inputs a text query and hits enter. 2- There is an AJAX call to request data from Google Places API. 3- The successful result is presented to the user. The problem is primarily in step 2. I want to use backbone for this but when I create a backbone model, it requests to the 'rootURL'. This wouldn't be a problem if the requests to Places was done from the server but it is not. A place call is done like this: service = new google.maps.places.PlacesService(map); service.nearbySearch(request, callback); Passing a callback function: function callback(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.places.PlacesServiceStatus.OK) { for (var i = 0; i < results.length; i++) { var place = results[i]; createMarker(results[i]); } } } Is it possible to override the 'fetch' method in backbone model and populate the model with the successful Places result? Is this a bad idea?

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  • Type conversion between PHP client and Java webservice

    - by a1ex07
    I have a web service implemented as EJB. One of it's methods returns Map<String,String>. On client side I use php : $client = new SoapClient($wsdl,array("cache_wsdl"=>WSDL_CACHE_NONE)); $result = $client->foo($params); Everything works fine, but I would like $result-return to be an associative array. Now it looks like array(10) { [0]=> object(stdClass)#46 (2) { ["key"]=> string(4) "key1" ["value"]=> string(4) "val1" } .... I want array(10) {"key1"=>"value1", "key2"=>"value2", .... } The obvious solution is to iterate through this array and create a new array $arr = array(); foreach ($result->return as $val) $arr[$val->key] = $val->value; But I wonder if there is a better way to get an assosicative array ? Thanks in advance.

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  • MSTest unit test passes by itself, fails when other tests are run

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I'm having trouble with some MSTest unit tests that pass when I run them individually but fail when I run the entire unit test class. The tests test some code that SLaks helped me with earlier, and he warned me what I was doing wasn't thread-safe. However, now my code is more complicated and I don't know how to go about making it thread-safe. Here's what I have: public static class DLLConfig { private static string _domain; public static string Domain { get { return _domain = AlwaysReadFromFile ? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG) : _domain ?? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG); } } } And my test is simple: string expected = "the value I know exists in the file"; string actual = DLLConfig.Domain; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); When I run this test by itself, it passes. When I run it alongside all the other tests in the test class (which perform similar checks on different properties), actual is null and the test fails. I note this is not a problem with a property whose type is a custom Enum type; maybe I'm having this problem with the Domain property because it is a string? Or maybe it's a multi-threaded issue with how MSTest works?

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  • How to nest joins with CakePHP?

    - by Daren Thomas
    I'm trying to behave. So, instead of using following SQL syntax: select * from tableA INNER JOIN tableB on tableA.id = tableB.tableA_id LEFT OUTER JOIN ( tableC INNER JOIN tableD on tableC.tableD_id = tableD.id) on tableC.tableA_id = tableA.id I'd like to use the CakePHP model->find(). This will let me use the Paginator too, since that will not work with custom SQL queries as far as I understand (unless you hardcode one single pagination query to the model which seems a little inflexible to me). What I've tried so far: /* inside tableA_controller.php, inside an action, e.g. "view" */ $this->paginate['recursive'] = -1; # suppress model associations for now $this->paginate['joins'] = array( array( 'table' => 'tableB', 'alias' => 'TableB', 'type' => 'inner', 'conditions' => 'TableB.tableA_id = TableA.id', ), array( 'table' => 'tableC', 'alias' => 'TableC', 'type' => 'left', 'conditions' => 'TableC.tableA_id = TableA.id', 'joins' = array( # this would be the obvious way to do it, but doesn't work array( 'table' => 'tableD', 'alias' => 'TableD', 'type' => 'inner', 'conditions' => 'TableC.tableD_id = TableD.id' ) ) ) ) That is, nesting the joins into the structure. But that doesn't work (CakePHP just ignores the nested 'joins' element which was kind of what I expected, but sad. I have seen hints in comments on how to do subqueries (in the where clause) using a statement builder. Can a similar trick be used here?

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  • JSF/Facelets: set `action` attribute to a dynamically evaluated string

    - by harto
    In my JSF/Facelets application, I want to dynamically generate a breadcrumb trail from a list of page IDs using a custom tag: <foo:breadcrumbs trail="foo,bar,baz"/> This should generate something like: <h:commandLink action="foo" ... /> <h:commandLink action="bar" ... /> <!-- (etc.) --> My code looks something like this: <ui:repeat value="#{fn:split(trail, ',')}" var="key"> <h:commandLink action="#{key}" ... /> </ui:repeat> The problem with this code is that #{key} is interpreted as a method binding. However, I just want the string value of #{key} to be returned as the navigation outcome. How can I achieve this? The only thing I could think of was creating a dummy managed-bean that has an outcome field and an action handler, and invoke it like so: <h:commandLink action="#{dummy.click}" ...> <f:setPropertyActionListener target="#{dummy.outcome}" value="#{key}" /> </h:commandLink> with the dummy class defined like so: public class Dummy { private String outcome; public String click() { return outcome; } public void setOutcome(String outcome) { this.outcome = outcome; } public void getOutcome() { return outcome; } } That seems ugly though, and I don't know if it would work.

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  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • Does isEmpty method in Stream evaluate the whole Stream?

    - by abhin4v
    In Scala, does calling isEmtpy method on an instance of Stream class cause the stream to be evaluated completely? My code is like this: import Stream.cons private val odds: Stream[Int] = cons(3, odds.map(_ + 2)) private val primes: Stream[Int] = cons(2, odds filter isPrime) private def isPrime(n: Int): Boolean = n match { case 1 => false case 2 => true case 3 => true case 5 => true case 7 => true case x if n % 3 == 0 => false case x if n % 5 == 0 => false case x if n % 7 == 0 => false case x if (x + 1) % 6 == 0 || (x - 1) % 6 == 0 => true case x => primeDivisors(x) isEmpty } import Math.{sqrt, ceil} private def primeDivisors(n: Int) = primes takeWhile { _ <= ceil(sqrt(n))} filter {n % _ == 0 } So, does the call to isEmpty on the line case x => primeDivisors(x) isEmpty cause all the prime divisors to be evaluated or only the first one?

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  • Fluent Nhibernate Mapping Single class on two database tables

    - by nabeelfarid
    Hi guys, I am having problems with Mapping. I have two tables in my database as follows: Employee and EmployeeManagers Employee EmployeeId int Name nvarchar EmployeeManagers EmployeeIdFk int ManagerIdFk int So the employee can have 0 or more Managers. A manager itself is also an Employee. I have the following class to represent the Employee and Managers public class Employee { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Employee> Managers { get; protected set; } public Employee() { Managers = new List<Employee>(); } } I don't have any class to represent Manager because I think there is no need for it, as Manager itself is an Employee. I am using autoMapping and I just can't figure out how to map this class to these two tables. I am implementing IAutoMappingOverride for overriding automappings for Employee but I am not sure what to do in it. public class NodeMap : IAutoMappingOverride { public void Override(AutoMapping<Node> mapping) { //mapping.HasMany(x => x.ValidParents).Cascade.All().Table("EmployeeManager"); //mapping.HasManyToMany(x => x.ValidParents).Cascade.All().Table("EmployeeManager"); } } I also want to make sure that an employee can not be assigned the same manager twice. This is something I can verify in my application but I would like to put constraint on the EmployeeManager table (e.g. a composite key) so a same manager can not be assigned to an employee more than once. Could anyone out there help me with this please? Awaiting Nabeel

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  • [Java] Cluster Shared Cache

    - by GuiSim
    Hi everyone. I am searching for a java framework that would allow me to share a cache between multiple JVMs. What I would need is something like Hazelcast but without the "distributed" part. I want to be able to add an item in the cache and have it automatically synced to the other "group member" cache. If possible, I'd like the cache to be sync'd via a reliable multicast (or something similar). I've looked at Shoal but sadly the "Distributed State Cache" seems like an insufficient implementation for my needs. I've looked at JBoss Cache but it seems a little overkill for what I need to do. I've looked at JGroups, which seems to be the most promising tool for what I need to do. Does anyone have experiences with JGroups ? Preferably if it was used as a shared cache ? Any other suggestions ? Thanks ! EDIT : We're starting tests to help us decide between Hazelcast and Infinispan, I'll accept an answer soon. EDIT : Due to a sudden requirements changes, we don't need a distributed map anymore. We'll be using JGroups for a low level signaling framework. Thanks everyone for you help.

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  • Is there a way to automaticly call all versions of an inherited method?

    - by Eric
    I'm writing a plug-in for a 3D modeling program. I have a custom class that wraps instances of elements in the 3D model, and in turn derives it's properties from the element it wraps. When the element in the model changes I want my class(es) to update their properties based on the new geometry. In the simplified example below. I have classes AbsCurveBasd, Extrusion, and Shell which are all derived from one another. Each of these classes implement a RefreshFromBaseShape() method which updates specific properties based on the current baseShape the class is wrapping. I can call base.RefreshFromBaseShape() in each implementation of RefreshFromBaseShape() to ensure that all the properties are updated. But I'm wondering if there is a better way where I don't have to remember to do this in every implementation of RefershFromBaseShape()? For example because AbsCurveBased does not have a parameterless constructor the code wont even compile unless the constructors call the base class constructors. public abstract class AbsCurveBased { internal Curve baseShape; double Area{get;set;} public AbsCurveBased(Curve baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public virtual void RefreshFromBaseShape() { //sets the Area property from the baseShape } } public class Extrusion : AbsCurveBased { double Volume{get;set;} double Height{get;set;} public Extrusion(Curve baseShape):base(baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public override void RefreshFromBaseShape() { base.RefreshFromBaseShape(); //sets the Volume property based on the area and the height } } public class Shell : Extrusion { double ShellVolume{get;set;} double ShellThickness{get;set;} public Shell(Curve baseShape): base(baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public void RefreshFromBaseShape() { base.RefreshFromBaseShape(); //sets this Shell Volume from the Extrusion properties and ShellThickness property } }

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  • Why does a non-dynamically created iframe shim show, but a dynamically created one does not?

    - by Carter
    I have a custom control that is made up of a text field and the ajax control toolkit dateextender. In IE6 I'm hitting the z-index bug where the calendar is showing behind select boxes. If I have the shim sitting in the control, initially hidden, it seems to display fine when the calendar is shown, but when I try to dynamically create the shim on showing it doesn't appear. I've tried bgiframe and some examples I found on SO, no luck. Here is my javascript code currently... var dateEditorShim; function dateEditor_OnShown(dateControl, emptyEventArgs) { var shimWidth = dateControl._width; var shimHeight = dateControl._height; //var dateEditorShim; //dateEditorShim = document.getElementById(dateEditorShimId); dateEditorShim = document.createElement('iframe'); dateEditorShim.setAttribute('src', 'javascript:"";'); dateEditorShim.setAttribute('frameBorder', '0'); dateEditorShim.style.width = dateControl._popupDiv.offsetWidth; dateEditorShim.style.height = dateControl._popupDiv.offsetHeight; dateEditorShim.style.top = dateControl._popupDiv.style.top; dateEditorShim.style.left = dateControl._popupDiv.style.left; dateControl._popupDiv.style.zIndex = 999; dateEditorShim.style.zIndex = 998; dateEditorShim.style.display = "block"; } function dateEditor_OnHiding(dateControl, emptyEventArgs) { var shimWidth = 0; var shimHeight = 0; //var dateEditorShim; //dateEditorShim = document.getElementById(dateEditorShimId); dateEditorShim.style.width = 0; dateEditorShim.style.height = 0; dateEditorShim.style.top = 0; dateEditorShim.style.left = 0; dateEditorShim.style.display = "none"; } You'll notice I have a commented out bit of code that gets an iframe that is embedded into the page, as I said, in this case the iframe at least shows up, but when I dynamically create it like the code above currently, it doesn't. I'm trying to figure out why. Any ideas?

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  • How do I prevent a C# method from executing using an attribute validator?

    - by Boydski
    I'd like to create an attribute-based validator that goes a few steps beyond what I've seen in examples. It'll basically prevent methods or other functionality from executing. Please be aware that I'm having to use AzMan since I have no availability to Active Directory in this scenario. Here's some pseudo code of what what I'm looking for: // Attribute validator class AttributeUsage is arbitrary at this point and may include other items [AttributeUsage( AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true )] public class PermissionsValidatorAttribute : Attribute { public PermissionsValidatorAttribute(PermissionEnumeration permission){...} public bool UserCanCreateAndEdit(){...} public bool UserCanDelete(){...} public bool UserCanUpload(){...} } Here's a sample of a class/member that'll be decorated. The method will not be executed at all if the PermissionValidator.UserCanDelete() doesn't return true from wherever it's executed: public class DoStuffNeedingPermissions { [PermissionValidator(PermissionEnumeration.MustHaveDeletePermission)] public void DeleteSomething(){...} } I know this is a simple, incomplete example. But you should get the gist of what I'm needing. Make the assumption that DeleteSomething() already exists and I'm preferring to NOT modify the code within the method at all. I'm currently looking at things like the Validation Application Block and am messing with custom attribute POC's. But I'd love to hear opinions with code samples from everyone out there. I'm also certainly not opposed to other methods of accomplishing the same thing such as extension methods or whatever may work to accomplish the same thing. Please remember I'm making the attempt to minimize changes to existing DoStuffNeedingPermissions code. Thanks everyone!

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  • Setting Connection Parameters via ADO for MSSQL

    - by taspeotis
    Is it possible to set a connection parameter on a connection to SQL Server and have that variable persist throughout the life of the connection? The parameter must be usable by subsequent queries. We have some old Access reports that use a handful of VBScript functions in the SQL queries (let's call them GetStartDate and GetEndDate) that return global variables. Our application would set these before invoking the query and then the queries can return information between date ranges specified in our application. We are looking at changing to a ReportViewer control running in local mode, but I don't see any convenient way to use these custom functions in straight T-SQL. I have two concept solutions (not tested yet), but I would like to know if there is a better way. Below is some psuedo code. Set all variables before running Recordset.OpenForward Connection->Execute("SET @GetStartDate = ..."); Connection->Execute("SET @GetEndDate = ..."); // Repeat for all parameters Will these variables persist to later calls of Recordset->OpenForward? Can anything reset the variables aside from another SET/SELECT @variable statement? Create an ADOCommand "factory" that automatically adds parameters to each ADOCommand object I will use to execute SQL // Command has been previously been created ADOParameter *Parameter1 = Command->CreateParameter("GetStartDate"); ADOParameter *Parameter2 = Command->CreateParameter("GetEndDate"); // Set values and attach etc... What I would like to know if there is something like: Connection->SetParameter("GetStartDate", "20090101"); Connection->SetParameter("GetEndDate", 20100101"); And these will persist for the lifetime of the connection, and the SQL can do something like @GetStartDate to access them. This may be exactly solution #1, if the variables persist throughout the lifetime of the connection.

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  • Comparing textbox.text value to value in SQL Server

    - by Anicho
    Okay so I am trying to compare a login textbox password and username with a custom validator using linq to get information from the database it always returns false though on the validator could someone please tell me where my code below is going wrong. This will be very much appreciated... thank you in advanced... protected void LoginValidate(object source, ServerValidateEventArgs args) { TiamoDataContext context = new TiamoDataContext(); var UsernameCheck = from User in context.Users where User.Username == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text && User.Password == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text select User.Username; var PasswordCheck = from User in context.Users where User.Username == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text && User.Password == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text select User.Password; String test1 = PasswordCheck.ToString(); String test2 = UsernameCheck.ToString(); if (test1 == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text && test2 == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text) { args.IsValid = true; Session["Username"] = TextBoxLoginUsername; Response.Redirect("UserProfile.aspx"); } else { args.IsValid = false; } } I dont know where I am going wrong I know its most probably some sort of silly mistake and me being inexperienced at this...

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  • Subsonic, child records, and collections

    - by Dane
    Hi, I've been working with subsonic for a few weeks now, and it is working really well. However, I've just run into an issue with child objects with additional partial properties. Some of it is probably me just not understanding the .Net object lifecycle. I have an object - search. This has a few properties like permissions and stuff, and it links to a child table called search_options. In my Asp.Net app, it loops through these search options and creates controls. Then on postback, it grabs the values and assigns it back to a "value" property on the search_option. This value property is a simple string that's defined in a partial class. I then want to create a method on the search object, called PerformSearch. This then loops through the child search_options, and performs a custom query based on the "value" property. However, even though I assign the "value" property to the child search_option, when I access it later via the search.search_options collection, it is null. I'm guessing that maybe because it's accessing it in two different places, it performs another lazy load from the DB and the value is lost? Is there a way to tell the class that it's already loaded or something? or a way to access it so it's not reloaded from the DB? Code is below (shitty pseudocode, not full version) : ASP.Net page, loading back the values from postback : dim obj_search as search = new subsonic.query.select().......' retrieves the search object for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options opt.Value = Ctype(FindControl("search_option_" + opt.search_option_id),Textbox).Text debug.print(opt.Value) ' value is correct next for each opt as search_option in obj_search.search_options debug.print(opt.Value) 'this is nothing next Now, the partial class : public partial class search_option private m_value as string public property Value() as string get return m_value end get set( byval value as string) m_value = value end set end property end class

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  • how do i execute a stored procedure with vici coolstorage?

    - by lincolnk
    I'm building an app around Vici Coolstorage (asp.net version). I have my classes created and mapped to my database tables and can pull a list of all records fine. I've written a stored procedure where the query jumps across databases that aren't mapped with Coolstorage, however, the fields in the query result map directly to one of my classes. The procedure takes 1 parameter. so 2 questions here: how do i execute the stored procedure? i'm doing this CSParameterCollection collection = new CSParameterCollection(); collection.Add("@id", id); var result = Vici.CoolStorage.CSDatabase.RunQuery("procedurename", collection); and getting the exception "Incorrect syntax near 'procedurename'." (i'm guessing this is because it's trying to execute it as text rather than a procedure?) and also, since the class representing my table is defined as abstract, how do i specify that result should create a list of MyTable objects instead of generic or dynamic or whatever objects? if i try Vici.CoolStorage.CSDatabase.RunQuery<MyTable>(...) the compiler yells at me for it being an abstract class.

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  • Is it possible to store pointers in shared memory without using offsets?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    When using shared memory, each process may mmap the shared region into a different area of their address space. This means that when storing pointers within the shared region, you need to store them as offsets of the start of the shared region. Unfortunately, this complicates use of atomic instructions (e.g. if you're trying to write a lock free algorithm). For example, say you have a bunch of reference counted nodes in shared memory, created by a single writer. The writer periodically atomically updates a pointer 'p' to point to a valid node with positive reference count. Readers want to atomically write to 'p' because it points to the beginning of a node (a struct) whose first element is a reference count. Since p always points to a valid node, incrementing the ref count is safe, and makes it safe to dereference 'p' and access other members. However, this all only works when everything is in the same address space. If the nodes and the 'p' pointer are stored in shared memory, then clients suffer a race condition: x = read p y = x + offset Increment refcount at y During step 2, p may change and x may no longer point to a valid node. The only workaround I can think of is somehow forcing all processes to agree on where to map the shared memory, so that real pointers rather than offsets can be stored in the mmap'd region. Is there any way to do that? I see MAP_FIXED in the mmap documentation, but I don't know how I could pick an address that would be safe.

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  • Alternative to Galileo GWS

    - by Anton Gogolev
    Please note that this Galileo is absolutely not related to Java. Galileo is basically a set of web services which can be used to book airline tickets. Originally, it was supposed to be used via Galileo Desktop, whereby operators would enter various commands to perform required operations. For example, SA*AZ610J20JULFCOJFK will "Display seat availability map for specified flight and class". Granted, humans can get used to it and be very efficient, but here comes a problem of integrating this with other systems. For that, folks at TravelPort basically slapped a SOAP interface to this system (which must have been written in COBOL or something), without even thinking about actually embracing XML. For example, it can contain <Ind1>N</Ind1> <Ind2>N</Ind2> <Ind3>N</Ind3> ... <Ind72>N</Ind72> <!-- Yes! 72! --> or, better yet <Text>P/RU/4xxx24528/RU/11MAY67/M/23DEC12/AxxxxxxV/MxxxM</Text> In light of this, my question is as follows: are there any sane airline tickets booking systems we can integrate with? Or are there companies which have products that can abstract away all this?

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  • ListView Final Column Autosize creates scrollbar

    - by Courtney de Lautour
    Hi There, I am implementing a custom control which derives from ListView. I would like for the final column to fill the remaining space (Quite a common task), I have gone about this via overriding the OnResize method: protected override void OnResize(EventArgs e) { base.OnResize(e); if (Columns.Count == 0) return; Columns[Columns.Count - 1].Width = -2; // -2 = Fill remaining space } or via another method: protected override void OnResize(EventArgs e) { base.OnResize(e); if (!_autoFillLastColumn) return; if (Columns.Count == 0) return; int TotalWidth = 0; int i = 0; for (; i < Columns.Count - 1; i++) { TotalWidth += Columns[i].Width; } Columns[i].Width = this.DisplayRectangle.Width - TotalWidth; } Edit: This works fine until I dock the ListView into a parent container and resize via that control. Every second time the control size shrinks (IE, drag the the border one pixel), I get a scroll bar on the bottom which can't move at all (not even one pixel). The result of which is when I drag the size of the parent I am left with a flickering scroll bar in the ListView, and a 50% chance it will be there when the dragging stops.

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  • UITableView not responding to row selection until a different row is selected

    - by Larry Fransson
    This is driving me nuts. I have searched on everything I can think of to find a solution but haven't found one yet. I've got a UITableView that uses custom cells. The accessory is the detail disclosure button. I would like the cell to respond to either row selection or the disclosure button being tapped. It responds to the disclosure button just as you would expect. But selecting the row is a different story. When I select the row, it highlights, but nothing happens until I tap a different row. Then the previously selected row does what it was supposed to do, which is to create and push a new view controller for that row. If I tap a single row five times and then tap a different row, it then creates and pushes five view controllers for that first row. It does this both in the simulator and on the device. What's really maddening is that I have another tableview in the same application that responds correctly to row selection or tapping the detail disclosure button. I can't find anything I've done differently between the two. Has anyone seen this before?

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  • Browser relative positioning with jQuery and CutyCapt

    - by Acoustic
    I've been using CutyCapt to take screen shots of several web pages with great success. My challenge now is to paint a few dots on those screen shots that represent where a user clicked. CutyCapt goes through a process of resizing the web page to the scroll width before taking a screen shot. That's extremely useful because you only get content and not much (if any) of the page's background. My challenge is trying to map a user's mouse X coordinates to the screen shot. Obviously users have different screen resolutions and have their browser window open to different sizes. The image below shows 3 examples with the same logo. Assume, for example, that the logo is 10 pixels to the left edge of the content area (in red). In each of these cases, and for any resolution, I need a JavaScript routine that will calculate that the logo's X coordinate is 10. Again, the challenge (I think) is differing resolutions. In the center-aligned examples, the logo's position, as measured from the left edge of the browser (in black), differs with changing browser size. The left-aligned example should be simple as the logo never moves as the screen resizes. Can anyone think of a way to calculate the scrollable width of a page? In other words, I'm looking for a JavaScript solution to calculate the minimum width of the browser window before a horizontal scroll bar shows up. Thanks for your help!

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  • Injecting correct object graph using StructureMap in Queue of different Objects

    - by davy
    I have a queuing service that has to inject a different dependency graph depending on the type of object in the queue. I'm using Structure Map. So, if the object in the queue is TypeA the concrete classes for TypeA are used and if it's TypeB, the concrete classes for TypeB are used. I'd like to avoid code in the queue like: if (typeA) { // setup TypeA graph } else if (typeB) { // setup TypeB graph } Within the graph, I also have a generic classes such as an IReader(ISomething, ISpomethingElse) where IReader is generic but needs to inject the correct ISomething and ISomethingElse for the type. ISomething will also have dependencies and so on. Currently I create a TypeA or TypeB object and inject a generic Processor class using StructureMap into it and then pass a factory manually inject a TypeA or TypeB factory into a method like: Processor.Process(new TypeAFactory) // perhaps I should have an abstract factory... However, because the factory then creates the generic IReader mentioned above, I end up manually injecting all the TypeA or TypeB classes fro there on. I hope enough of this makes sense. I am new to StructureMap and was hoping somebody could point me in the right direction here for a flexible and elegant solution. Thanks

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  • Do the new NoPIA and Type Equivalence features in C#/.NET 4.0 mean Microsoft.mshtml.dll is no longer

    - by jpierson
    I'm maintaining a WPF based application which contains a WinForms based WebBrowser control that based on the IE web browser control. When we deploy, we have had to also supply Microsoft.mshtml.dll and do some custom configuration stuff for our ClickOnce publishing process as well in order to get things to work. I'm curious that with the new NoPIA and Type Equivalence features and dynamic type capabilities in C# 4.0 can we expect that if we upgrade that we can remove the dependencies on the Microsoft.mshtml.dll assembly? If so this will not only reduce the size of our deployment quite a bit but will also simplify our publishing process as well. It is my understanding that we should be able embed the types that normally get automatically generated into extra assemblies for COM types such as the MapPoint Control by Visual Studio. I don't know if this also applies to the Microsoft.mshtml.dll or even how it is done even in the most simple of cases. If somebody could provide an explanation about what the practical impact of these new features are on a project that relies on COM interop and especially the Microsoft.mshtml.dll assembly it would be of great help to me.

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  • Control Attributes render Encoded on dot net 4 - how to disable the encoding ?

    - by Aristos
    I have an issue in asp.net 4. When I add an attribute on controls, then the render it encoded. For example, when I type this code txtQuestion.Attributes["onfocus"] = "if(this.value == this.title) { this.value = ''; this.style.backgroundColor='#FEFDE0'; this.style.color='#000000'; }"; I get render onfocus="if(this.value == this.title){this.value = &#39;&#39;;this.style.backgroundColor=&#39;#FEFDE0&#39;; this.style.color=&#39;#000000&#39;;}" And every ' hash been change to & #39; Is there a way to disable this new future only on some controls ? or an easy way to make a custom render ? My Fail tries I have all ready try some thinks but I fail. For example this fails. txtQuestion.RenderingCompatibility = new Version("3.5"); I also locate the point that this attributes renders and is on public virtual void RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag tagKey) function, there every attribute have a flag if he wish to be encoded, but I do not know how can anyone set it or not. Anyway, thank you in advanced.

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