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  • How to prevent multiple definitions in C?

    - by Jordi
    I'm a C newbie and I was just trying to write a console application with Code::Blocks. Here's the (simplified) code: main.c: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include "test.c" // include not necessary for error in Code::Blocks int main() { //t = test(); // calling of method also not necessary return 0; } test.c: void test() {} When I try to build this program, it gives the following errors: *path*\test.c|1|multiple definition of `_ test'| obj\Debug\main.o:*path*\test.c|1|first defined here| There is no way that I'm multiply defining test (although I don't know where the underscore is coming from) and it seems highly unlikely that the definition is somehow included twice. This is all the code there is. I've ruled out that this error is due to some naming conflict with other functions or files being called test or test.c. Note that the multiple and the first definition are on the same line in the same file. Does anyone know what is causing this and what I can do about it? Thanks!

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  • Two AJAX asynchronus GET call: Only one get the xml file

    - by Woho87
    Hi! I have two AJAX GET calls that are set to asynchcronus = true; I want to obtain two XML files on my server. The two AJAX calls and rendering are defined in function foo & koo. And are called simultaneously. function foo(){ var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200){ var xmlDoc = xmlhttp.responseXML; //Do something } } xmlhttp.open('get', 'url', true); xmlhttp.send(); } function koo(){ //Almost the same as function foo } foo(); koo(); I've noticed that inside the if statement in the first function call(foo), the code their will never compile. While in the second function call(koo). The code inside the if statement can be compiled. If I set both asynchronus to false, then there is no problem at all. If I remove the second function call(koo) from the code, than the code inside the if statement can be compiled. What can I do to have both asynchronus AJAX calls?

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  • Reference - What does this error mean in PHP?

    - by hakre
    On Stackoverflow you can see a lot of questions popping up about errors. Some users do not even know that error messages exists, others are asking about code that gives an error message but they do not understand the error message. If the error message is common, many questions about the same kind of error appears, but it is hard to find existing Q&A about the topic. Please add "your favorite" error message, one per answer, a short description what it means (even if it is only highlighting terms to their manual page) and a listing of existing Q&A that are of value. This will create a list. The question is a community wiki, so you are not answering for reputation but for creating a reference list for new users. It's based on error messages. Compare with the existing Reference - What does this symbol mean in PHP? question, which works pretty well. What are common errors in PHP and what are their Solutions. Index of Errors Just starting, but there are already some: Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in ... on line Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_XXX in YYY on line ZZZ Fatal Error: Call to a member function ... on a non-object

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  • Documentation style: how do you differentiate variable names from the rest of the text within a comm

    - by Alix
    Hi, This is a quite superfluous and uninteresting question, I'm afraid, but I always wonder about this. When you're commenting code with inline comments (as opposed to comments that will appear in the generated documentation) and the name of a variable appears in the comment, how do you differentiate it from normal text? E.g.: // Try to parse type. parsedType = tryParse(type); In the comment, "type" is the name of the variable. Do you mark it in any way to signify that it's a symbol and not just part of the comment's text? I've seen things like this: // Try to parse "type". // Try to parse 'type'. // Try to parse *type*. // Try to parse <type>. // Try to parse [type]. And also: // Try to parse variable type. (I don't think the last one is very helpful; it's a bit confusing; you could think "variable" is an adjective there) Do you have any preference? I find that I need to use some kind of marker; otherwise the comments are sometimes ambiguous, or at least force you to reread them when you realise a particular word in the comment was actually the name of a variable. (In comments that will appear in the documentation I use the appropriate tags for the generator, of course: @code, <code></code>, etc) Thanks!

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  • C++ Virtual Methods for Class-Specific Attributes or External Structure

    - by acanaday
    I have a set of classes which are all derived from a common base class. I want to use these classes polymorphically. The interface defines a set of getter methods whose return values are constant across a given derived class, but vary from one derived class to another. e.g.: enum AVal { A_VAL_ONE, A_VAL_TWO, A_VAL_THREE }; enum BVal { B_VAL_ONE, B_VAL_TWO, B_VAL_THREE }; class Base { //... virtual AVal getAVal() const = 0; virtual BVal getBVal() const = 0; //... }; class One : public Base { //... AVal getAVal() const { return A_VAL_ONE }; BVal getBVal() const { return B_VAL_ONE }; //... }; class Two : public Base { //... AVal getAVal() const { return A_VAL_TWO }; BVal getBVal() const { return B_VAL_TWO }; //... }; etc. Is this a common way of doing things? If performance is an important consideration, would I be better off pulling the attributes out into an external structure, e.g.: struct Vals { AVal a_val; VBal b_val; }; storing a Vals* in each instance, and rewriting Base as follows? class Base { //... public: AVal getAVal() const { return _vals->a_val; }; BVal getBVal() const { return _vals->b_val; }; //... private: Vals* _vals; }; Is the extra dereference essentially the same as the vtable lookup? What is the established idiom for this type of situation? Are both of these solutions dumb? Any insights are greatly appreciated

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  • Map Literals to Object Properties/Values

    - by vijay
    For eg, my input XML is look like this. <root> <myelemt> <input type="variable"> <variable>STARTDATE</variable> <variable>CUSTOMERNAME</variable> </input> </myelemt> </root> it is deserialized and loaded into the object MyXmlElemtObj in my code i have written like this, if(MyXmlElemtObj.input.variable.ToUpper() == "STARTDATE") ProcessObjectB(ObjectA.OrderDate); if(MyXmlElemtObj.input.variable.ToUpper() == "CUSTOMERNAME") ProcessObjectB(ObjectC.UserName); Here I am mapping those input literals to some objects value. The one thing that scares me is seeing some ** hard-coded literals** all over my code. Instead i would like to write something like ProcessObjectB(Common.GetMappedvalue(MyXmlElemtObj.input.variable)); Is there a way to isolate this mapping thing to common class, where i will predefine which literal is mapped to which values. The problem is the values are of objects created at the run time. If my question is making sense then So how do i achieve this? I think i have given all the necessary details. if anything is missing please metnion. Thx Much.

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  • local vs core contoller

    - by latvian
    Hi, I am adding new column and action in the local admin app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product/Grid.php which works fine, however. The local controller/app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php is not being used or is not overloading the admin one /app/code/core/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php. This is almost fresh install of Magento 1.4.0.1. I am the only one working, so i know it is not overloaded by some custom controller. I have disabled all custom modules. I have rolled back most of my changes. I have checked /etc/Modules/Mage_Catalog.xml. Refreshed cache all possible ways, loged in and out. Nothing....still using the core contoller copy. why? How do you troubleshoot, meaning, at what moment magento decides using between core or local copies? ...its even more strange because it does not parse local Adminhtml config.xml but uses local Adminthml copy of Blocks. Any pointer would help. I would like to keep everything in local code. Thank You, Margots

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  • JQuery: using .LIVE problems

    - by TeddTedd
    I have the following JQuery code: $("#myDIV li:eq(0)").live('click',function(){ funcA(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(1)").live('click',function(){ funcB(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(2)").live('click',function(){ funcC(); }); $("#myDIV li:eq(3)").live('click',function(){ funcD(); }); And realized it's really inefficient. So I tried the following, which I believe is much more effect; however, the code does not work: var tab_node = $("#myDIV li"); tab_node.eq(0).live('click',function(){ funcA(); }); tab_node.eq(1).live('click',function(){ funcB(); }); tab_node.eq(2).live('click',function(){ funcC(); }); tab_node.eq(3).live('click',function(){ funcD(); }); Any idea how I can make my code more efficient while also work? UPDATE: From the answers below, it sounds like these two statements are not equalavent. New Question: Is there any way to run my original code more efficient?

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  • what patern is layerd architechture in asp.net ?

    - by haansi
    Hi, I am a asp.net developer and don't know much about patterns and architecture. I will very thankful if you can please guide me here. In my web applications I use 4 layers. Web site project (having web forms + code behind cs files, user controls + code behind cs files, master pages + code behind cs files) CustomTypesLayer a class library (having custom types, enumerations, DTOs, constructers, get, set and validations) BusinessLogicLayer a class library (having all business logic, rules and all calls to DAL functions) DataAccessLayer a class library( having just classes communicating to database.) -My user interface just calls BusinessLogicLayer. BusinessLogicLayer do proecessign in it self and for data it calls DataAccessLayer funtions. -Web forms do not calls directly DAL. -CustomTypesLayer is shared by all layers. Please guide me is this approach a pattern ? I though it may be MVC or MVP but pages have there code behind files as well which are confusing me. If it is no patren is it near to some patren ? pleaes guide thanks

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  • queued view updates not happening when performSelector afterDelay:0 used

    - by JosephH
    Hi all, I have an app that performs some calculations based on data arriving on a socket or local user interaction. I want to show an 'activity spinner' whilst the calculation happens. spinner = [[UIActivityIndiactorView alloc] initWithActivityIndicatorStyle:UIActivityIndicatorViewStyleWhiteLarge]; [spinner setCenter:self.view.center]; [self.view addSubview:spinner]; [spinner startAnimating]; [self performSelector:@selector(doCalcs) withObject:nil afterDelay:0]; This works well, except in the case where the code is run as a result of a message arriving over the network. I'm using http://code.google.com/p/cocoaasyncsocket/ to handle sockets and the code is running in the onSocket:didReadData:withTag: method. 'doCalcs' takes a few seconds. The spinner doesn't appear whilst it's running. If I change afterDelay:0 to afterDelay:1 then the spinner does appear the whole time doCalcs is running, but with the downside that it takes an extra second. So it seems the code is all correct, but for whatever reason the spinner isn't getting a chance to get on screen before doCalcs runs. Any suggestions would be most welcome.

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  • Move iFrame in the DOM using jQuery

    - by Josh
    My overall aim is to create an editor which I can skin using jQuery UI (by creating a custom toolbar which uses integration calls), using TinyMCE. Lets say I have a TinyMCE editor on a page. The actual editor is an iFrame contained inside a lot of horrible table code, which is also where the current (to be scrapped) toolbar is. I want just the iframe inside a div - ideally get rid of the table code. So...I want to transform: <table> <tr> <td><iframe id="xyz"></iframe></td> </tr> </table> into <div id="test"> <iframe id="xyz"></iframe> </div> So far, I've tried using: $('#xyz').clone(true).appendTo('#test'); Which clones the iframe, but no content inside it. Is there a way to make this work? If not, can I somehow strip the table code from around the iFrame away? If I cant do that, I'll think I'll have to keep the table code.

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  • Update text on CCLabelTFF end in bad access?

    - by TheDeveloper
    I'm doing a little game in Coco2D and I have a countdown clock Note: As I am just trying to fix a bug, I am not working on cleanup so the timer can stop, etc. Here is my code I'm using to setup the label and start the timer: timer = [CCLabelTTF labelWithString:@"10.0000" fontName:@"Helvetica" fontSize:20]; timerDisplay = timer; timerDisplay.position = ccp(277,310); [self addChild:timerDisplay]; timeLeft = 10; timerObject = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.1 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; Note: timeLeft is a double This is updateTimers's code: -(void)updateTimer { NSLog(@"Got Called!"); timeLeft = timeLeft -0.1; [timer setString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",timeLeft]]; timerDisplay = timer; timerDisplay.position = ccp(277,310); [self removeChild:timerDisplay cleanup:YES]; //[self addChild:timerDisplay]; if (timeLeft <= 0) { [timerObject invalidate]; } } When I run this I toggle between crashing on this this: [timer setString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",timeLeft]]; and in the green arrow thing it gives Thread 1: EXEC_BAD_ACCESS (code=2, address=0x8) and 0x197a7ff: movl 16(%edi), %esi and in the green arrow thing it gives Thread 1: EXEC_BAD_ACCESS (code=2, address=0x8)

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  • Importing a div's content from a Static HTML file using PHP or jQuery or Ajax?

    - by Vikram
    Hello friends a newbie question... The Issue is like this: I have a static HTML file and I want to import just a portion of that file into another page. How can I do that. Example Code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Some title here</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="styles.css" /> </head> <body> <div id="box-1"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> <div id="box-2"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="script.js"></script> </body> </html> Now what I want is to read this HTML file and import just this bit: <div id="box-1"> <div class="block"> <!-- Some code here --> </div> </div> Is there a way of doing it? Kindly help. Even a PHP, jQuery, Ajax or any other solution will also do. Please help me.

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  • some problem with iOS 4.2.1

    - by bicbac
    Hi, I've been developing an app with MacBook Pro (MBP) so far. Last week one of my friends gave me new macbook air 11"(MBA). so Now I can test my code with more than one machine with the same version of developing tools - Both machine has Xcode (3.2.5) and iOS SDK 4.2.1). After some point my app starts get terminated suddenly(iPhone sumulator), and I was using MBP. I got no error message whatsoever. it just stops. I reckon the crash comes from dealing with memory, like 'release'/ 'double-release'. (I'm not 100% sure though). Anyway I thought there must be some mistake within my code for sure. -Confusion starts from this part.- With my MBA, on the other hand, I don'y see any crash. It just works fine. There is nothing different between MBA & MBP except the h/w specifications. Same code, same versions of XCode and iOS SDK. Is the fact that no crash at MBA suggesting that I have to look somewhere else than the code itself? I red some article and Q&As on iOS4.2.1 and XCode 3.2.5 that the most recent version of XCode doesn't recognize the iOS 4.2.1 since the 4.2.1 came out later the 3.2.5. Is it the reason? I have no idea at this moment what should be the next move. thanks

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  • transforming 1d (1column) into 5d(5column) matrix through copy paste or other

    - by Curious
    Ex. I want to take the column with 12345..... and order 5 columns across as seen. next 5 numbers in column will be next row. However my code creates a 4 row gap in between each successive row. I dont know what additional logic (possibly if then statement) I can embed into do loop to may make it cleaner. I am new to this, so showing as much sample code to learn the syntax would be most beneficial. thanks in advance. Below is the Result of my code. VBA code is below result. 1 1 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 6 7 8 9 10 7 8 9 10 11 11 12 13 14 15 12 13 14 15 16 16 17 17 Sub Working_Code() ' Working_Code Macro Do ActiveCell.Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(0, 5).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(1, -5).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-1, 6).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(2, -6).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-2, 7).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(3, -7).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-3, 8).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(4, -8).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-4, 9).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(5, -9).Select Loop Until IsEmpty(ActiveCell.Offset(0, -1)) End Sub

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  • .Net Hash Codes no longer persistent?

    - by RobV
    I have an API where various types have custom hash codes. These hash codes are based on getting the hash of a string representation of the object in question. Various salting techniques are used so that as far as possible Hash Codes do not collide and that Objects of different types with equivalent string representations have different Hash Codes. Obviously since the Hash Codes are based on strings there are some collisions (infinite strings vs the limited range of 32 bit integers). I use hashes based on string representations since I need the hashes to persist over sessions and particularly for use in database storage of objects. Suddenly today my code has started generating different hash codes for Objects which is breaking all kinds of things. It was working earlier today and I haven't touched any of the code involved in Hash Code generation. I'm aware that the .Net documentation allows for implementation of hash codes between .Net framework versions to change (and between 32 and 64 bit versions) but I haven't changed the framework version and there has been no framework updates recently as far as I can remember Any ideas because this seems really weird? Edit Hash Codes are generated like follows: //Compute Hash Code this._hashcode = (this._nodetype + this.ToString() + PlainLiteralHashCodeSalt).GetHashCode();

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  • Why aren't variables declared in "try" in scope in "catch" or "finally"?

    - by Jon Schneider
    In C# and in Java (and possibly other languages as well), variables declared in a "try" block are not in scope in the corresponding "catch" or "finally" blocks. For example, the following code does not compile: try { String s = "test"; // (more code...) } catch { Console.Out.WriteLine(s); //Java fans: think "System.out.println" here instead } In this code, a compile-time error occurs on the reference to s in the catch block, because s is only in scope in the try block. (In Java, the compile error is "s cannot be resolved"; in C#, it's "The name 's' does not exist in the current context".) The general solution to this issue seems to be to instead declare variables just before the try block, instead of within the try block: String s; try { s = "test"; // (more code...) } catch { Console.Out.WriteLine(s); //Java fans: think "System.out.println" here instead } However, at least to me, (1) this feels like a clunky solution, and (2) it results in the variables having a larger scope than the programmer intended (the entire remainder of the method, instead of only in the context of the try-catch-finally). My question is, what were/are the rationale(s) behind this language design decision (in Java, in C#, and/or in any other applicable languages)?

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  • Implicit linking vs. explicit linking of DLL in Delphi

    - by Tom
    I'm having trouble getting my dll to work when using explicit linking. Using implicit linking it works fine. Would someone google me a solution? :) No, just kidding, here's my code: This code works fine: function CountChars(_s: Pchar): integer; StdCall; external 'sample_dll.dll'; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); end; This code doesn't work (I get an access violation): procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var LibHandle: HMODULE; CountChars: function(_s: PChar): integer; begin LibHandle := LoadLibrary('sample_dll.dll'); ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); // Access violation FreeLibrary(LibHandle); end; This is the DLL code: library sample_dll; uses FastMM4, FastMM4Messages, SysUtils, Classes; {$R *.res} function CountChars(_s: PChar): integer; stdcall; begin Result := Length(_s); end; exports CountChars; begin end.

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  • ViewController behaving oddly when pushed on the window

    - by ayazalavi
    I am using multiple controller during launch of an application in app delegate. One controller is for registration and the second controller is tabbar. tabbar was loading fine but when I pushed registration controller on window, contents went up by 20 units and I have good white blank screen at bottom. Therefore I recreated frame of my registration view controller in its viewdidload method and slided it 20 units down. The code is self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 20, self.view.frame.size.width, self.view.frame.size.height); and code in my app delegate for launch application was - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { if (![self accountExists]) { //code if account does not exists on iphone app database self.registerAccount = [[registerViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"registerViewController" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview:registerAccount.view]; } else if([self autoLoginForAnyAccount]){ //code for autologin to app } else { self.tabBarController.selectedIndex = 1; self.tabBarController.delegate = self; [window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; } [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } if anyone knows why there is a white space at bottom when registration controller is pushed then please share it with me.

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  • parse a special xml in python

    - by zhaojing
    I have s special xml file like below: <alarm-dictionary source="DDD" type="ProxyComponent"> <alarm code="402" severity="Alarm" name="DDM_Alarm_402"> <message>Database memory usage low threshold crossed</message> <description>dnKinds = database type = quality_of_service perceived_severity = minor probable_cause = thresholdCrossed additional_text = Database memory usage low threshold crossed </description> </alarm> ... </alarm-dictionary> I know in python, I can get the "alarm code", "severity" in tag alarm by: for alarm_tag in dom.getElementsByTagName('alarm'): if alarm_tag.hasAttribute('code'): alarmcode = str(alarm_tag.getAttribute('code')) And I can get the text in tag message like below: for messages_tag in dom.getElementsByTagName('message'): messages = "" for message_tag in messages_tag.childNodes: if message_tag.nodeType in (message_tag.TEXT_NODE, message_tag.CDATA_SECTION_NODE): messages += message_tag.data But I also want to get the value like dnkind(database), type(quality_of_service), perceived_severity(thresholdCrossed) and probable_cause(Database memory usage low threshold crossed ) in tag description. That is, I also want to parse the content in the tag in xml. Could anyone help me with this? Thanks a lot!

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  • json parser empty result

    - by graybow
    I'm new in gwt and new in using firebug.I have valid json result from tesdb3.php {"item": [{"kode":"002","nama":"bambang gentolet"}, {"kode":"012","nama":"Algiz"}]} I add the xml with inherits name='com.google.gwt.json.JSON'/ inherits name="com.google.gwt.http.HTTP" / then i try to show it in the gwt with this code. public class Tesdb3 implements EntryPoint { String url= "http://localhost/phpmyadmin/tesdb3/datauser.php"; public void LoadData() throws RequestException{ RequestBuilder builder = new RequestBuilder(RequestBuilder.GET, URL.encode(url)); builder.sendRequest(null, new RequestCallback(){ @Override public void onError(Request request, Throwable exception) { Window.alert("error " + exception); } public void onResponseReceived(Request request, Response response) { if (200 == response.getStatusCode()) { Window.alert("ok -" + response.getText() + "-" + response.getStatusCode()); } else { Window.alert("error2 -" + response.getText()+ response.getStatusText() + "-" + response.getStatusCode()); } } }); } public void onModuleLoad() { try { LoadData(); } catch (RequestException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } I run it in development mode. not hosted mode. My code didn't show any error. But the result in window alert is "error2 --OK-0". result Net from firebug is 7 request: get Tesdb3.html?gwt.codeserv = 200ok get Tesdb3.css = 200ok get tesdb3.nocache.js = 200ok get hosted.html?tesdb3 = aborted get standard.css = 304 not modified get hosted.html?tesdb3 = 403 not modified get datauser.php = 200ok my question is: Why the response status code is 0, and the response status text is 'OK'? there was no eror in json or java code. why response.getText is empty? Why i can't get any json result even a single character?

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  • COCOA: Programatically creating new windows and accessing window objects

    - by Jeffrey Kern
    I'm having an issue with creating new windows in Cocoa. Hypothetically speaking, lets say I have "WindowA" and has a button called "myButton". When you click on "myButton", it runs this code in the following class file: -(void)openFile2:(id)sender { myNextWindow = [[TestWindowController alloc] initWithWindowNibName:@"MainMenu"]; NSString *testString = @"foo"; [myNextWindow showWindow:self]; [myNextWindow setButtonText:testString]; } The code in a nutshell makes a duplicate "WindowA" and shows it. As you can see, this code also runs a method called 'setButtonText', which is this: - (void)setButtonText:(NSString *)passedText { [myButton setTitle:passedText]; } The problem is that when I call this method locally, in the original window - the button text changes (e.g., [self setButtonText:testString]) it works. However, it does not work in the newly created window (e.g., [myNextWindow setButtonText:testString];) When I debug the newly created window, step by step, the 'myButton' value it gives is 0x0. Do I have to manually assign controllers/delegates to the new window? I think the 'myButton' in the code isn't associated to the 'myButton' in the newly created window. How would I fix this problem?

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  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

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  • Problem FlashVars parameter asp.net

    - by sofie-vo
    Code for asp.net page <%@ Page Language="VB" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeFile="trainingupload.aspx.vb" Inherits="trainingupload" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div height> <object width="1000" height="800"> <param name="movie" value="player.swf" /> <param name="FlashVars" value='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" '/> <embed src="bin-release/trainingscentrum.swf" FlashVars='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" ' width="1500" height="800" /> </embed> </object> </div> </form> </body> </html> Code behind Public Function getuser() As Guid Dim user As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() Dim userid As Guid = (CType(user.ProviderUserKey, Guid)) Return userid End Function In the code above I use an function to return the userid. When I replace <%=String.Format(getuser())% with an actual userid, I get the value in my flex application. But this code returns nothing. What am I doing wrong?

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  • visual analysis of web pages in ruby

    - by Clint Miller
    I'm looking to write some code that does visual analysis of web pages, preferably using Ruby. My code will need to be able to determine the top, left, width, height, background color, color, and font size for all the elements in the DOM. Of course, these values can only be calculated once all CSS is applied. So, I don't think that Nokogiri is up for the job. Ultimately, I'm trying to use this data in a VIPS-like (Vision-Based Page Segmentation) algorithm in an attempt to find the main content in downloaded news articles. I've considered using Watir to drive Chrome or Firefox and then extract the data. The problem is that browsers can't be run headless through Watir (I think). Ultimately, this code will be running on an array of Linux servers in a data center. So, the code won't have easy access to an X Server for displaying the browser. I suppose one solution is to use Watir and run a headless X Server on the Linux servers. That's a bit of a pain, but it looks like my best option right now. Does anyone have any better ideas?

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