Search Results

Search found 37607 results on 1505 pages for 'ms access 97'.

Page 717/1505 | < Previous Page | 713 714 715 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724  | Next Page >

  • What does ~ in the beginning of an URL in asp.net exactly do ?

    - by MarceloRamires
    I am editing a certain website which before used the port 80 (default) that was not required at the url (because it's default..) But the port had (for technical reasons) to be changed, and now it has to be informed. I can access the main page through ip:port\page like this: 1.2.3.4:81\page.aspx Every link in the website is composed like this: <asp:HyperLink runat="server" Text="random" NavigateUrl="~/fdr/whatever.aspx" /> And whenever I click on a link, the page doesn't load, but the URL is composed on the URL bar of the browser, then I simply add ":80" after the IP in the URL and it works. Due to the existance of querystrings (in other words, for already having access to the URL) I before thought that '~' in the beginning of a URL in a link was saying "keep in the same website, just change to this webpage in this folder", but if the port vanishes, I assume now that the address is requested (probably to IIS) the location of the current website. I want to know then (instead of having to add the port to each link in my website) how do I set up whoever is requested by the ~ in the link to add the port somehow. How do I do that?

    Read the article

  • Creating an SQL variable character column > 255 characters supporting multiple databases

    - by Piers
    I have an application that stores data through an ODBC data source of the user's choosing. So far it has worked well on a range of database systems (e.g. JET, Oracle, SQL Server), as the SQL syntax is fairly simple. Now I am running into a problem where I need to store more than 255 characters in my strings. Previously I created the table using column type VARCHAR (255). Now if I try to create a table using, e.g. VARCHAR (512) then it falls over on Access databases. I know that I can use the MEMO type for Access, but this is non-standard SQL and will thus likely fail on other database systems (e.g. Oracle). Is there any widely supported SQL standard for creating text columns wider than 255 characters, or do I need to find another solution? The alternatives seem to me to be: 1) Profile the database system and customise the SQL CREATE TABLE command based on the database system. I don't like this as it defeats the purpose of using ODBC. 2) Add extra columns of 255 chars as required (e.g. LONGSTRING1, LONGSTRING2, ...) and concatenate after reading. I don't like this because it means the number of columns can vary between tables and it complicates read/write. Are there any other viable alternatives to these two options? Or is it possible to have an SQL compliant CREATE TABLE command supported by the majority of database vendors, that supports strings longer than 255 chars?

    Read the article

  • Problem facing to run ruport from other machine

    - by shabi
    I am using SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services and set mode remotely. All is going fine and reports running on my machine. I am not using report viewer control, but switch to browser. Problem is that when I access the report from any other system in browser by providing required url. I m getting the following premission error: Server Error in /ReportServer Application. Access is denied: Description: An error is occured while accessing the resources required to serve for this request. You might have not premission to view the requested resources. Error message: 401.3 : You dont have the premission to view this directory or page using the creditinals you supplied. I have go through all step of this article "http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms365170.aspx" and set remotly premession but after all changes no success and getting same error. Please some one can tell me or provide step list, that how can I set the premession? that the report can run from other machine. Quick and detail response will

    Read the article

  • Read attributes of MSBuild custom tasks via events in the Logger

    - by gt
    I am trying to write a MSBuild logger module which logs information when receiving TaskStarted events about the Task and its parameters. The build is run with the command: MSBuild.exe /logger:MyLogger.dll build.xml Within the build.xml is a sequence of tasks, most of which have been custom written to compile a (C++ or C#) solution, and are accessed with the following custom Task: <DoCompile Desc="Building MyProject 1" Param1="$(Param1Value)" /> <DoCompile Desc="Building MyProject 2" Param1="$(Param1Value)" /> <!-- etc --> The custom build task DoCompile is defined as: public class DoCompile : Microsoft.Build.Utilities.Task { [Required] public string Description { set { _description = value; } } // ... more code here ... } Whilst the build is running, as each task starts, the logger module receives IEventSource.TaskStarted events, subscribed to as follows: public class MyLogger : Microsoft.Build.Utilities.Logger { public override void Initialize(Microsoft.Build.Framework.IEventSource eventSource) { eventSource.TaskStarted += taskStarted; } private void taskStarted(object sender, Microsoft.Build.Framework.TaskStartedEventArgs e) { // write e.TaskName, attributes and e.Timestamp to log file } } The problem I have is that in the taskStarted() method above, I want to be able to access the attributes of the task for which the event was fired. I only have access to the logger code and cannot change either the build.xml or the custom build tasks. Can anyone suggest a way I can do this?

    Read the article

  • .NET How would I build a DAL to meet my requirments?

    - by Jonno
    Assuming that I must deploy an asp.net app over the following 3 servers: 1) DB - not public 2) 'middle' - not public 3) Web server - public I am not allowed to connect from the web server to the DB directly. I must pass through 'middle' - this is purely to slow down an attacker if they breached the web server. All db access is via stored procedures. No table access. I simply want to provide the web server with a ado dataset (I know many will dislike this, but this is the requirement). Using asmx web services - it works, but XML serialisation is slow and it's an extra set of code to maintain and deploy. Using a ssh/vpn tunnel so that the one connects to the db 'via' the middle server, seems to remove any possible benefit of maintaining 'middle'. Using WCF binary/tcp removes the XML problem, but still there is extra code. Is there an approach that provides the ease of ssh/vpn, but the potential benefit of having the dal on the middle server? Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • Accessing web.config from Sharepoint web part

    - by philj
    I have a VS 2008 web parts project - in this project is a web.config file: something like this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <connectionStrings/> <system.web> <appSettings> <add key="MFOwner" value="Blah" /> </appSettings> ……. In my web part I am trying to access values in the appSetting section: I've tried all of the code below and each returns null: string Owner = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff1 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff3 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff4 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff2 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFowner".ToString()]; I've tried this code I found: NameValueCollection sAll; sAll = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings; string a; string b; foreach (string s in sAll.AllKeys) { a = s; b = sAll.Get(s); } and stepped through it in debug mode - that is getting things like : FeedCacheTimer FeedPageURL FeedXsl1 ReportViewerMessages which is NOT coming from anything in my web.config file....maybe a config file in sharepoint itself? How do I access a web.config (or any other kind of config file!) local to my web part??? thanks, Phil J

    Read the article

  • Cannot get new product attribute in grid display

    - by russjman
    I added a new attribute to my products(a boolean "yes/no" field). It is a variable to enable/disable the price from displaying on the product detail page, and grid view. I managed to get it work on the product info page. But on product grid page I cant seem to access that variable. Specifically, the template i am working with is catalog/product/price.phtml. From what i can tell, the price is being displayed by the same group of if-statements on both the product detail page, and grid page. This has me confused because i cant find any code on that template to handle multiple products, just a bunch of nested if statements. this is how im attempting to access this new variable using $_displayPrice. on line 36 of catalog/product/price.html <?php $_product = $this->getProduct(); ?> <?php $_id = $_product->getId() ?> <?php $_displayPrice = $_product->getDisplayPrice() ? "Yes" : "No"; echo $_displayPrice;?> What has me further confused is that when display $_product-getData(), my new variable isn't anywhere among that data. thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 3 + Java WebService

    - by Heko
    Hello! I have a Silverlight 3 project, and I need to call a Java WebService - the bindings are ok (SOAP 1.1 and basicHttpBinding): ClientConfig File: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpBinding" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None"> <transport> <extendedProtectionPolicy policyEnforcement="Never" /> </transport> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="myAddress" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpBinding" contract="SkyInfoServiceReference.SkyinfoTestInterface" name="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I call a method on client I get this Policy error: An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI '...'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. I know about those 2 policy XML filesbut Java EE service which I'm trying to call is hosted on a IBM WebSphere Process Server to which I don't have access. Does anybody know how to work around this policy exception?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate Bi- Directional many to many mapping advice!

    - by Rob
    hi all, i woundered if anyone might be able to help me out. I am trying to work out what to google for (or any other ideas!!) basically i have a bidirectional many to many mapping between a user entity and a club entity (via a join table called userClubs) I now want to include a column in userClubs that represents the role so that when i call user.getClubs() I can also work out what level access they have. Is there a clever way to do this using hibernate or do i need to rethink the database structure? Thank you for any help (or just for reading this far!!) the user.hbm.xml looks a bit like <set name="clubs" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="user_ID"/> <many-to-many column="activity_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.Activity"/> </set> the activity.hbm.xml part <set name="members" inverse="true" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="activity_ID"/> <many-to-many column="user_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.User"/> </set> The current userClubs table contains the fields id | user_ID | activity_ID I would like to include in there id | user_ID | activity_ID | role and be able to access the role on both sides...

    Read the article

  • How to stop Android GPS using "Mobile data"

    - by prepbgg
    My app requests location updates with "minTime" set to 2 seconds. When "Mobile data" is switched on (in the phone's settings) and GPS is enabled the app uses "mobile data" at between 5 and 10 megabytes per hour. This is recorded in the ICS "Data usage" screen as usage by "Android OS". In an attempt to prevent this I have unticked Settings-"Location services"-"Google's location service". Does this refer to Assisted GPS, or is it something more than that? Whatever it is, it seems to make no difference to my app's internet access. As further confirmation that it is the GPS usage by my app that is causing the mobile data access I have observed that the internet data activity indicator on the status bar shows activity when and only when the GPS indicator is present. The only way to prevent this mobile data usage seems to be to switch "Mobile data" off, and GPS accuracy seems to be almost as good without the support of mobile data. However, it is obviously unsatisfactory to have to switch mobile data off. The only permissions in the Manifest are "android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION" (and "android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE"), so the app has no explicit permission to use internet data. The LocationManager code is ` criteria.setAccuracy(Criteria.ACCURACY_FINE); criteria.setSpeedRequired(false); criteria.setAltitudeRequired(false); criteria.setBearingRequired(true); criteria.setCostAllowed(false); criteria.setPowerRequirement(Criteria.NO_REQUIREMENT); bestProvider = lm.getBestProvider(criteria, true); if (bestProvider != null) { lm.requestLocationUpdates(bestProvider, gpsMinTime, gpsMinDistance, this); ` The reference for LocationManager.getBestProvider says If no provider meets the criteria, the criteria are loosened ... Note that the requirement on monetary cost is not removed in this process. However, despite setting setCostAllowed to false the app still incurs a potential monetary cost. What else can I do to prevent the app from using mobile data?

    Read the article

  • c incompatible types in assignment, problem with pointers?

    - by Fantastic Fourier
    Hi I'm working with C and I have a question about assigning pointers. struct foo { int _bar; char * _car[MAXINT]; // this is meant to be an array of char * so that it can hold pointers to names of cars } int foofunc (void * arg) { int bar; char * car[MAXINT]; struct foo thing = (struct foo *) arg; bar = arg->_bar; // this works fine car = arg->_car; // this gives compiler errors of incompatible types in assignment } car and _car have same declaration so why am I getting an error about incompatible types? My guess is that it has something to do with them being pointers (because they are pointers to arrays of char *, right?) but I don't see why that is a problem. when i declared char * car; instead of char * car[MAXINT]; it compiles fine. but I don't see how that would be useful to me later when I need to access certain info using index, it would be very annoying to access that info later. in fact, I'm not even sure if I am going about the right way, maybe there is a better way to store a bunch of strings instead of using array of char *?

    Read the article

  • Why am I having this InstantiationException in Java when accessing final local variables?

    - by Oscar Reyes
    I was playing with some code to make a "closure like" construct ( not working btw ) Everything looked fine but when I tried to access a final local variable in the code, the exception InstantiationException is thrown. If I remove the access to the local variable either by removing it altogether or by making it class attribute instead, no exception happens. The doc says: InstantiationException Thrown when an application tries to create an instance of a class using the newInstance method in class Class, but the specified class object cannot be instantiated. The instantiation can fail for a variety of reasons including but not limited to: - the class object represents an abstract class, an interface, an array class, a primitive type, or void - the class has no nullary constructor What other reason could have caused this problem? Here's the code. comment/uncomment the class attribute / local variable to see the effect (lines:5 and 10 ). import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.*; import java.awt.*; class InstantiationExceptionDemo { //static JTextField field = new JTextField();// works if uncommented public static void main( String [] args ) { JFrame frame = new JFrame(); JButton button = new JButton("Click"); final JTextField field = new JTextField();// fails if uncommented button.addActionListener( new _(){{ System.out.println("click " + field.getText()); }}); frame.add( field ); frame.add( button, BorderLayout.SOUTH ); frame.pack();frame.setVisible( true ); } } class _ implements ActionListener { public void actionPerformed( ActionEvent e ){ try { this.getClass().newInstance(); } catch( InstantiationException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } catch( IllegalAccessException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } } } Is this a bug in Java? edit Oh, I forgot, the stacktrace ( when thrown ) is: Caused by: java.lang.InstantiationException: InstantiationExceptionDemo$1 at java.lang.Class.newInstance0(Class.java:340) at java.lang.Class.newInstance(Class.java:308) at _.actionPerformed(InstantiationExceptionDemo.java:25)

    Read the article

  • Cheapest way to to determine if a MySQL connection is still alive

    - by MtnViewMark
    I have a pool of MySQL connections for a web-based data service. When it starts to service a request, it takes a connection from the pool to use. The problem is that if there has been a significant pause since that particular connection has been used, the server may have timed it out and closed its end. I'd like to be able to detect this in the pool management code. The trick is this: The environment in which I'm coding gives me only a very abstact API into the connection. I can basically only execute SQL statements. I don't have access to the actual socket or direct access to the MySQL client API. So, the question is: What is the cheapest MySQL statement I can execute on the connection to determine if it is working. For example SELECT 1; should work, but I'm wondering if there is something even cheaper? Perhaps something that doesn't even got across the wire, but is handled in the MySQL client lib and effectively answers the same question?

    Read the article

  • Intermittent SQL Server ODBC Timeout expired

    - by Wili
    We have a bunch of VB6 applications that access two different database servers (both 32-bit windows 2003, one SQL Server 2000, one SQL Server 2005). About every ten minutes or so, we are getting a few errors: [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver]Timeout expired [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][DBNETLIB]SQL Server does not exist or access denied. [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver]ConnectionRead() This is happening on more than a dozen different computers at random times. We also have IP phones that all run through the same network and those are not having any problems. We can also VNC into a users computer and reproduce the error they were getting, but VNC still continues to work. Email also works. It just seems to be an ODBC connection to SQL Server that causes the issue. The errors happen for both of our SQL Servers. We have scoured google, but haven't been able to come up with a solution. Is there anything we can try to diagnose the problem? Is there any fix out there?

    Read the article

  • Using unset member variables within a class or struct

    - by Doug Kavendek
    It's pretty nice to catch some really obvious errors when using unset local variables or when accessing a class or struct's members directly prior to initializing them. In visual studio 2008 you get an "uninitialized local variable used" warning at compile-time and get a run-time check failure at the point of access when debugging. However, if you access an uninitialized struct's member variable through one of its functions, you don't get any warnings or assertions. Obviously the easiest solution is don't do that, but nobody's perfect. For example: struct Test { float GetMember() const { return member; } float member; }; Test test; float f1 = test.member; // Raises warning, asserts in VS debugger at runtime float f2 = test.GetMember(); // No problem, just keeps on going This surprised me, but it makes some sense -- the compiler can't assume calling a function on an unused struct is an error, or how else would you initialize or construct it? And anything fancier just quickly brings up so many other complications that it makes sense that it wouldn't bother classifying which functions are ok to call and when, especially just as a debugging help. I know I can set up my own assertions or error checking within the class itself, but that can complicate some simpler structs. Still, it would seem like within the context of the function call, wouldn't it know insides GetMember() that member wasn't initialized yet? I'm assuming it's not only relying on static compile-time deduction, given the Run-Time Check Failure #3 it raises during execution, so based on my current understanding of it it would seem reasonable for the same checks to apply. Is this just a limitation of this specific compiler/debugger (Visual Studio 2008), or more tied to how C++ works?

    Read the article

  • How should i organize authority code?

    - by acidzombie24
    I have users that fall into the following Not logged in Not Verified Verified Moderator Admin All code that only admin and moderators can access (like banning) is in ModeratorUser which inherits from verified which inherits from BaseUser. Some pages are accessible to all users such as public profiles. If a user is logged in he can leave a comment. To check this i use if (IsVerifiedUser). Now here is the problem. To avoid problems if a user is banned he is not recognized as a verified user. However in the rare case i need to know if he is verified i can use usertype & Verified. Should i not be doing this? I have a bunch of code in my VerifiedUser class and find i am moving tons of it to BaseUser. Is this something i help because a not logged in user can access the page? Should i handle the ban user in a different way and allow IsVerifiedUser to be true even if the user is banned?

    Read the article

  • Reading data from an open HTTP stream

    - by allenjones
    Hi, I am trying to use the .NET WebRequest/WebResponse classes to access the Twitter streaming API here "http://stream.twitter.com/spritzer.json". I need to be able to open the connection and read data incrementally from the open connection. Currently, when I call WebRequest.GetResponse method, it blocks until the entire response is downloaded. I know there is a BeginGetResponse method, but this will just do the same thing on a background thread. I need to get access to the response stream while the download is still happening. This just does not seem possible to me with these classes. There is a specific comment about this in the Twitter documentation: "Please note that some HTTP client libraries only return the response body after the connection has been closed by the server. These clients will not work for accessing the Streaming API. You must use an HTTP client that will return response data incrementally. Most robust HTTP client libraries will provide this functionality. The Apache HttpClient will handle this use case, for example." They point to the Appache HttpClient, but that doesn't help much because I need to use .NET. Any ideas whether this is possible with WebRequest/WebResponse, or do I have to go for lower level networking classes? Maybe there are other libraries that will allow me to do this? Thx Allen

    Read the article

  • How can I test a CRON job with PHP?

    - by alex
    This is the first time I've ever used a CRON. I'm using it to parse external data that is automatically FTP'd to a subdirectory on our site. I have created a controller and model which handles the data. I can access the URL fine in my browser and it works (however I will be restricting this soon). My problem is, how can I test if it's working? I've added this to my controller for a quick and dirty log $file = 'test.txt'; $contents = ''; if (file_exists($file)) { $contents = file_get_contents($file); } $contents .= date('m-d-Y') . ' --- ' . PHP_SAPI . "\n\n"; file_put_contents($file, $contents); But so far only got requests logged from myself from the browser, despite having my CRON running ever minute. 03-18-2010 --- cgi-fcgi 03-18-2010 --- cgi-fcgi I've set it up using cPanel with the command index.php properties/update/ the 2nd portion is what I use to access the page in my browser. So how can I test this is working properly, and have I stuffed anything up? Note: I'm using Kohana 3. Many thanks

    Read the article

  • Does complex JOINs causes high coupling and maintenance problems ?

    - by ashkan.kh.nazary
    Our project has ~40 tables with complex relations.A colleague believes in using long join queries which enforces me to learn about tables outside of my module but I think I should not concern about tables not directly related to my module and use data access functions (written by those responsible for other modules) when I need data from them. Let me clarify: I am responsible for the ContactVendor module which enables the customers to contact the vendor and start a conversation about some specific product. Products module has it's own complex tables and relations with functions that encapsulate details (for example i18n, activation, product availability etc ...). Now I need to show the product title of some product related to some conversation between the vendor and customers. I may either write a long query that retrieves the product info along with conversation stuff in one shot (which enforces me to learn about Product tables) OR I may pass the relevant product_id to the get_product_info(int) function. First approach is obviously demanding and introduces many bad practices and things I normally consider fault in programming. The problem with the second approach seems to be the countless mini queries these access functions cause and performance loss is a concern when a loop tries to fetch product titles for 100 products using functions that each perform a separate query. So I'm stuck between "don't code to the implementation, code to interface" and performance. What is the right way of doing things ? UPDATE: I'm specially concerned about possible future modifications to those tables outside of my module. What if the Products module decided to change the way they are doing things? or for some reason modify the schema? It means some other modules would break or malfunction until the change is integrated to them. The usual ripple effect problem.

    Read the article

  • Avoiding Multiple Dialog Calls with htaccess

    - by Jeffrey J Weimer
    OK, I'm new to this, so pardon if the question is already a FAQ. Searching multiple places still leaves me dumbfounded. I have a Web site generated with iWeb09/Mac hosting on an ISP. To secure certain pages, I am trying to set up .htaccess + .htpasswd files. The basic directory structure is ... Main index.html Images.html Images (some css, js stuff) Media Image01 Image01.jpeg ... Image02 Image02.jpeg ... I want to password protect access to the Images directory and all the files therein. The index.html file has a link to the Images.html file that contains the layout for the files in the Images directory. I have put a basic .htaccess file at the Main level that restricts access via ... <Files "Images.html"> AuthType Basic AuthName "Images" AuthUserFile /Main/.htpasswd AuthGroupFile /dev/null Require valid-user </Files> I have then created a valid .htpasswd file. All works at the start, however after the first call to set up the Images.html page, the secure login prompt is displayed multiple times, presumably once for every sub-sub-directory Images/Media/ImageXX (with multiple sub-directories, I just give up after two or three times). I have also tried placing the .htaccess file inside the Images directory with the same problem. Recommendations I have seen suggest a better convention is needed in the basic .htaccess file itself. Alternatively, perhaps a companion .htaccess is needed in the Images directory. So, how do I fix this problem? -- JJW

    Read the article

  • accessing widgets inside a GWT element

    - by flyingcrab
    I want to access the text elements inside this textbox in GWT from the main method (where I call it like this) DialogBox aBox = newCandidatePop.buildNewElecPopup(); aBox.center(); aBox.getWidget(); MiscUiTools.newCandidateHandler(aBox.firstName, aBox.surName); in newCandidateHandler i want to attach a click handler to the two text boxes However, the above doesnt quite work - I cant get access to the aBox.firstName elements because they are static methods -- I am wondering what is best practice, how would you code something like this up? static TextBox firstName = new TextBox(); static TextBox surName = new TextBox(); static DialogBox box; // public newCandidatePop() { // box = buildNewElecPopup(); // } static public DialogBox buildNewElecPopup() { DialogBox box = new DialogBox(); box.setAutoHideEnabled(true); box.setText("Add a New Candidate"); box.setAnimationEnabled(true); box.setGlassEnabled(true); Grid dialogGrid = new Grid(2, 3); dialogGrid.setPixelSize(250 , 125); dialogGrid.setCellPadding(10); dialogGrid.setWidget(0, 0, new HTML("<strong>First Name</strong>")); dialogGrid.setWidget(0, 1, firstName); dialogGrid.setWidget(1, 0, new HTML("<strong>Surname</strong>")); dialogGrid.setWidget(1, 1, surName); box.add(dialogGrid); return box; }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Spree customize/extend user roles and permissions

    - by swapnil
    I am trying to specify some custom roles in Spree for example role 'client' and extend the permissions to access the admin section for this role. This user will be able to access only those Product created by that user. Concept is letting a user with role 'client' manage only products and other certain Models. To start with I added CanCan plugin and defined a RoleAbility Class in role_ability.rb Just following this post : Spree Custom Roles Permissions class RoleAbility include CanCan::Ability def initialize(user) user ||= User.new if user.has_role? 'admin' can :manage, :all elsif user.has_role? 'client_admin' can :read, Product can :admin, Product end end end Added this to an initializer : config/initializers/spree.rb Ability.register_ability(RetailerAbility) Also extended admin_products_controller_decorator.rb :app/controllersadmin_products_controller_decorator.rb Admin::ProductsController.class_eval do def authorize_admin authorize! :admin, Product authorize! params[:action].to_sym, Product end end But I am getting flash message 'Authorisation Failure' Trying to find some luck, I referred following links A github gist for Customizing Spree Roles : https://gist.github.com/1277326 Here's a similar issue what I am facing : http://groups.google.com/group/spree-user/browse_thread/thread/1e819e10410d03c5/23b269e09c7ed47e All efforts in vain... Any pointers of what is going on here highly appreciated ? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Delphi Client-Server Application using Firebird 2.5 embedded connection error

    - by Japster
    0 down vote favorite 1 share [fb] share [tw] I have got a lengthy question to ask. First of all Im still very new when it comes to Delphi programming and my experience has beem mostly developing small single user database applications using ADO and an Access database. I need to take the transition now to a client server application and this is where the problem starts. I decided to use Firebird 2.5 embeded as my database, as it is open source, and it is can be used with the interbase components in Delphi and that multiple clients can access the database simultanously. So I followed the interbase tutorial in Delphi. I managed to connect the client to the server and see the data in the example (While both are running on my pc), but when i tried to move the client to another pc, keeping the server on mine and running it to see if I can connect to the server it gave me the following error. Exception EIdSocketError in module clientDemo.exe at 0029DCAC. Socket Error # 10061 Connection refused. I understand that this might be because the host is defined as localhost in the client. But here is my first question. In the TSQLConncetion you can set die hostname under Driver-Hostname. The thing I want to know is how do you do this at run time, as I cannot get the property when I try and make an edit box to allow the user to enter the value and then set it via code like for example: SQLConncetion1.Driver.Hostname := edtHost.text; This cannot be done this way and the only way I see you can set the hostname is with the object inspector, but that is not available at runtime and I need to set the hostname on the client when the program is running the first time, so how do you set the hostname/IP address at runtime? Im using Delphi XE2 There is still a lot of questions to come especially when it comes to deployment, but I will take this piece by piece and I appreciate the advice.

    Read the article

  • BackgroundWorker and instance variables

    - by Alastair Pitts
    One thing that's always confused me is how a BackgroundWorker seems to have thread-safe access to the instance variables of the surrounding class. Given a basic class: public class BackgroundProcessor { public List<int> Items { get; private set; } public BackgroundProcessor(IEnumerable<int> items) { Items = new List<int>(items); } public void DoWork() { BackgroundWorker worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(worker_RunWorkerCompleted); worker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(worker_DoWork); worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } void worker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { var processor = new ProcessingClass(); processor.Process(this.Points); //Accessing the instance variable } void worker_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { //Stuff goes here } } Am I erroneous in my assumption the the call to processor.Process(this.Points); is a thread-safe call? How don't I get a cross-thread access violation? I'm sure it's obvious, but it always has confused me.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 713 714 715 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724  | Next Page >