Search Results

Search found 22701 results on 909 pages for 'missing features'.

Page 718/909 | < Previous Page | 714 715 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725  | Next Page >

• conditionals for C++ using MSBuild/vsbuild?

  - by redtuna

  I have a C++ project in Visual Studio 2008 and I'd like to be able to compile several versions from the command line, defining conditional variables (aka #define). If it were just a single file to compile I'd use something like cl /D, but this is complex enough that I would like to be able to use VS's other features like the build order etc. I've seen a similar question asked in stackoverflow and the answer was to use /p:DefineConstants="var1;var2". This doesn't seem to work with C++ though. The other problem with that answer is that it replaces the conditional variables, instead of adding to them. The vcproj files for C++ look quite different. If msbuild (or vsbuild) had a way to change Configurations/Tool[name="VCCLCompilerTool"] we'd be golden. But I haven't found such an option. The vcproj files are under source control so I'd rather not have a script mess with them. I've considered doubling the number of configurations (one with the #define, one without). That'd be annoying, and I'm especially unhappy with having to modify these configurations in tandem every time I need to modify anything there. A previous similar question found no solution. I'm hoping that has changed since? How would you go about building those variants (with and without define) from the command line? Thanks!

  Read the article

• bootstrap: Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'tooltip', 'typeahead'

  - by DarkKnightFan

  I am trying to use the tooltip, typeahead, datepicker features of bootstrap. But I keep getting these errors in the console! Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'tooltip' Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'typeahead' This is how my imports look like: <link href="css/bootstrap.css" rel="stylesheet"> <link href="css/datepicker.css" rel="stylesheet"> <link href="css/bootstrap-responsive.css" rel="stylesheet"> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.8.0.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/bootstrap.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/bootstrap-datepicker.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/bootstrap-typeahead.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/highcharts.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/exporting.js"></script> <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="css/jquery.dropdown.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.dropdown.js"></script> Some sample code: <a class="btn btn-success" data-toggle="modal" href="#payments" rel="tooltip" data-placement="top" title="Record your payments"> <i class="icon-check icon-white"></i> Payments</a> $("#payments").tooltip('show'); Similarly I have code for datepicker and typeahead. any solution?

  Read the article

• MVC2 and jquery.validate.js

  - by Will I Am

  I am experiencing some confusion with jquery.validate.js First of all, what is MicrosoftMvcJqueryValidation.js. It is referenced in snippets on the web but appears to have dissapeared from the RTM MVC2 and is now in futures. Do I need it? The reason I'm asking is that I'm trying to use the validator with MVC and I can't get it to work. I defined my JS as: $(document).ready(function () { $("#myForm").validate({ rules: { f_fullname: { required: true }, f_email: { required: true, email: true }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "#f_email" }, f_password: { required: true, minlength: 6 }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "#f_password" } }, messages: { f_fullname: { required: "* required" }, f_email: { required: "* required", email: "* not a valid email address" }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" }, f_password: { required: "* required", minlength: "password must be at least 6 characters long" }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" } } }); }); and my form on the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm("CreateNew", "Account", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "myForm" })) { %> <fieldset> <label for="f_fullname">name:</label><input id="f_fullname"/> <label for="f_email"><input id="f_email"/> ...etc... <input type="submit" value="Create" id="f_submit"/> </fieldset> <% } %> and the validation method gets called on .ready() with no errors in firebug. however when I submit the form, nothing gets validated and the form gets submitted. If I create a submitHandler() it gets called, but the plugin doesn't detect any validation errors (.valid() == true) What am I missing?

  Read the article

• MVC Html.textbox/dropdown/whatever won't refresh on postback

  - by Cynthia

  OK, let's start with the Html.Textbox. It is supposed to contain text read from a file. The file read is based on what the user picks from a dropdown list. The first time it is fine. The user picks a value from the dropdown list. The controller uses that value to read some text from a file, and returns that text to the view via the view model. Everything is fine. THen the user picks another value from the dropdown list. The controller reads a new value from a file and returns it via the view model. Debugging to the LINE BEFORE THE HTML.TEXTBOX is set in the view shows that the model contains the correct value. However, the textbox itself still shows the PREVIOUS value when the page displays! If I switch from Html.Textbox to a plain input, type="text" html control, everything works fine. That's not so hard, but the same thing happens with my dropdown list -- I can't set the selected value in code. It always reverts to whatever was chosen last. Rendering a "select" tag with a dynamically-generated option list is a pain. I would love to be able to use Html.Dropdown. What am I missing here?? This is such a simple thing in webforms!

  Read the article

• Circular file references not allowed

  - by Program.X

  Hi, I am having a problem in building my solution in VS2008. Normally, it compiles fine in the environment. Sometimes, it fails with: /xxx_WEB/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx(1): error ASPPARSE: Circular file references are not allowed. I rebuild and it works fine. Now, however, I am in the middle of setting up a CruiseControl.NET system and am testing my checked out code with MSBuild before I integrate the build into CC. Now, everytime I MSBuild, I get: "Q:\cc\xxx\checked out from svn\xxx.sln" (default target) (1) -> (xxx_WEB target) -> /xxx_WEB/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx(1): error ASPPARSE: Circular file references are not allowed. Problem is, I can't see where this reference is. I have searched for the reference across the entire solution and canf ind no references to the page itself (CMSManagedTargetPage) anywhere other than in the page or its codebehind, or within a string, eg: C:\dev2008\xxx\IWW.xxx.ASPNET\AspxHttpHandler.cs(82): inputFile = context.Server.MapPath("~/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx"); C:\dev2008\xxx\IWW.xxx.ASPNET\AspxHttpHandler.cs(83): virtualPath = "~/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx"; My assembly references are also fine (as far as I know). My Web Application is at the "top" of the dependencies, and nothing references it and therefore the faulting page so cannot cause a circular reference. Of course, the page itself may reference something such as a UserControl within the same assembly/web site, but as mentioned earlier, a search on CMSManagedTargetPage yielded no results so this is not happening. Changing the batch attribute in web.config had no effect on MSBuild. I find it very odd that it "sometimes" fails in VS and always fails in MSBuild. Am I missing some subtlety?

  Read the article

• Windows-mobile app won't run after being closed by Task Manager

  - by pithyless

  I've inherited some windows-mobile code that I've been bringing up-to-date. I've come across a weird bug, and I was hoping that even though a bit vague, maybe it will spark someone's memory: Running the app (which is basically a glorified Forms app with P/Invoke gps code), I switch to the task manager, and close the app via End Task. Seems to exit fine (no errors and disappears from Task Manager). Unfortunately, the app refuses to start a second time until I reboot the phone or reinstall the CAB. What's worse: this bug is reproducible on a HTC Diamond, but works fine (ie. can run again after EndTask) on an HTC HD2. The only thing I can think of is some kind of timing race between a Dispose() and the Task Manager. Any ideas? I'm also thinking of a workaround - I do have a working "Exit Application" routine that correctly cleans up the app; can I catch the EndTask event in the c# code in order to complete a proper cleanup? Maybe I'm just missing the pain point... all ideas welcome :)

  Read the article

• Installing SQLServer 2005 on Windows 7 64bit

  - by Mostafa

  Hi , It's 3 days I'm trying to install SqlServer 2005 under Windows 7 64 bit on my machine . First let me tell you what I've done and what I've got till now . 1-I Installed Windows 7 64 Bit on my computer 2-I tried to install SQl Server 2005 "Developer Edition" 2.1 But in "System Configuration Check" Page i recieved 2 warning , One for "IIS Feature Requirement" and another for "ASP.NET Version Registration Rquired" . 2.1.1 . I installed "Internet Information Services" from "Turn Windows features on or off" section in control panel 2.1.2 I Enabled reporting service 32 bit from "Inetpub= AdminScripts = adsutil.vbs 2.2 At this stage There was no waring in System Configuration Check 3- So I installed SQl Server 2005 Developer Edition By all default settings 4- I installed Sql Server 2005 Service Pack 3 64 bit Now when when i run "Management Studio" There is no name in "Server name" section . I typed my Computer name Or "." and i got this Error : A network -related instance-specific error occurred while establishinga connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (Provider: Named Pipes Provider , error :40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server ) ( Microsoft SQL Server , Error :2) . I googled some for this Error and some people said follow this instruction: Startsql server 2005Configuration toolsSql Server Surface Configuration AreaSurface Area Configuration for services and Connections But i got this Error : No SQl SErver 2005 Components were found on the specified computer . Either no components are installed , or you are not a administrator on this computer (SQLSAC) I'm really tired because of that , and i don't know what's wrong with this . Some more information : I have no additonal software on my computer , like Antivirus or Proxy I tried all step with "Standard Edition" either , but no difference My user is Administrator I tried more than 5 times all those steps including re-installing Windows 7 . Please help me , I'm losing all my hair

  Read the article

• WPF Background Thread Invocation

  - by jeffn825

  Maybe I'm mis-remembering how Winforms works or I'm overcomplicating the hell out of this, but here's my problem. I have a WPF client app application that talks to a server over WCF. The current user may "log out" of the WPF client, which closes all open screens, leaves only the navigation pane, and minimizes the program window. When the user re-maximizes the program window, they are prompted to log in. Simple. But sometimes things happen on background threads - like every 5 minutes the client tries to make a WCF calls that refreshes some cached data. And what if the user is logged out when this 5 minute timer triggers? Well, then the user should be prompted to log back in...and this must of course happen on the UI thread. private static ISecurityContext securityContext; public static ISecurityContext SecurityContext { get { if (securityContext == null) { // Login method shows a window and prompts the user to log in Application.Current.Dispatcher.Invoke((Action)Login); } return securityContext; } } So far so good, right? But what happens when multiple threads hit this spot of code? Well, my first intuition was that since I'm syncrhonizing across the Application.Current.Dispatcher, I should be fine, and whichever thread hit first would be responsible for showing the login form and getting the user logged in... Not the case... Thread 1 will hit the code and call ShowDialog on the login form Thread 2 will also hit the code and will call Login as soon as Thread 1 has called ShowDialog, since calling ShowDialog unblocked Thread 1 (I believe because of the way the WPF message pump works) All I want is a synchronized way of getting the user logged back into the application...what am I missing here? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• rails foreman does not load all my services on start

  - by Rubytastic

  Rails foreman does not load all my services defined in Procfile. Procfile.rb: redis: redis-server resque: bundle exec rake resque:start &&> log/resque_worker_queue.log privpub: bundle exec rackup private_pub.ru -s thin -E production & &> log/private_pub.log sunspot: bundle exec rake sunspot:solr:run I always have to manually start all of them by copy paste the commands in terminal foreman start does not work, what am i missing? This is foreman output: 12:35:40 privpub.1 | process terminated 12:35:40 system | sending SIGTERM to all processes 12:35:40 system | sending SIGTERM to pid 4375 12:35:40 redis.1 | [4375] 02 Jun 12:35:40 # Received SIGTERM, scheduling shutdown... 12:35:40 redis.1 | [4375] 02 Jun 12:35:40 # User requested shutdown... 12:35:40 redis.1 | [4375] 02 Jun 12:35:40 * Saving the final RDB snapshot before exiting. 12:35:40 redis.1 | [4375] 02 Jun 12:35:40 * DB saved on disk 12:35:40 redis.1 | [4375] 02 Jun 12:35:40 # Redis is now ready to exit, bye bye... 12:35:40 system | sending SIGTERM to pid 4376 12:35:40 resque.1 | rake aborted! 12:35:40 resque.1 | SIGTERM 12:35:40 resque.1 | 12:35:40 resque.1 | (See full trace by running task with --trace) 12:35:40 system | sending SIGTERM to pid 4378 12:35:40 sunspot.1 | rake aborted! 12:35:40 sunspot.1 | SIGTERM 12:35:40 sunspot.1 | 12:35:40 sunspot.1 | (See full trace by running task with --trace) 12:35:40 sunspot.1 | process terminated 12:35:40 resque.1 | process terminated 12:35:40 redis.1 | process terminated

  Read the article

• How to keep character encoding with database queries.

  - by JasonS

  Hi, I am doing the following. 1) I am exporting a database and saving it to a file called dump.sql. 2) The file is then transferred to a different server via PHP ftp. 3) When the file has been successfully transferred the administrator has an option to run a 'dbtransfer' script on the new host. 4) This script blows up the script and runs the queries line by line. This works great - however there is a problem with foreign language encoding. We are using UTF-8. Step 1 : This works fine, file is in UTF-8 Format. Step 3 : When I test the contents of the dump.sql file using mb_check_encoding(). The string comes back as UTF-8. Step 4 : This creates tables with utf8_general_ci encoding. The information is dumped in. When I check the table after the transfer I get records like this: 'ç,Ç,ö,Ö,ü,Ü,ı,İ,ş,Ş,ğ,Ğ'. I don't understand how a UTF-8 string can lose its encoding when it goes into the database. Am I missing a step? Do I need to run some sort of function to ensure the string is parsed as UTF-8? Once the system is installed I can save foreign language queries. It is just the transfer that is messing up. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Problem with JSONResult

  - by vikitor

  Hi, I' still newby to this so I'll try to explain what I'm doing. Basically what I want is to load a dropdownlist depending on the value of a previous one, and I want it to load the data and appear when the other one is changed. This is the code I've written in my controller: public ActionResult GetClassesSearch(bool ajax, string phylumID, string kingdom){ IList<TaxClass> lists = null; int _phylumID = int.Parse(phylumID); int _kingdom = int.Parse(kingdom); lists = _taxon.getClassByPhylumSearch(_phylumID, _kingdom); return Json(lists.count); } and this is how I call the method from the javascript function: function loadClasses(_phylum) { var phylum = _phylum.value; $.getJSON("/Suspension/GetClassesSearch/", { ajax: true, phylumID: phylum, kingdom: kingdom }, function(data) { alert(data); alert('no fallo') document.getElementById("pClass").style.display = "block"; document.getElementById("sClass").options[0] = new Option("-select-", "0", true, true); //for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { // $('#sClass').addOption(data[i].classID, data[i].className); //} }); } The thing is that just like this it works, I pass the function the number of classes within a selected phylum, and it displays the pclass element, the problem gets when I try to populate the slist with data (which should contain the objects retrieved from the database), because when there is data returned by the database changing return Json(lists) instead of return Json(lists.count) I keep getting the same error: A circular reference was detected while serializing an object of type 'SubSonic.Schema.DatabaseColumn'. I've been going round and round debugging and making tests but I can't make it work, and it is suppossed to be a simple thing, but I'm missing something. I have commented the for loop because I'm not quite sure if that's the way you access the data, because I've not been able to make it work when it finds records. Can anyone help me? Thanks in advance, Victor

  Read the article

• ASP.NET Session State Timeout Problem

  - by user314827

  I am trying to detect a session state timeout in my asp.net application and am unable to do so. I have a base class that derives from System.Web.UI.Page as follows:- public class BasePageSessionExpire : Page { override protected void OnInit(EventArgs e) { base.OnInit(e); if (Context.Session != null) { if (Session.IsNewSession) { string szCookieHeader = Request.Headers["Cookie"]; if ((null != szCookieHeader) && (szCookieHeader.IndexOf("ASP.NET_SessionId") > 0)) { Session.Abandon(); Response.Redirect("~/SessionExpired.aspx",true); } } } } } All the pages I need session state checking on derive from this base class instead of "System.Web.UI.Page". Also, all these pages have EnableSessionState="True". I have a blank Session_Start() method in my global.asax file if that is relevant at all. For some reason after the first request, the "Session.IsNewSession" property is always false. It is true only for the first request and then is always false. I have my timeout set to 1 minute. The session never seems to timeout. What am I missing here ? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Strange UIKit bug, table view row stays selected

  - by Can Berk Güder

  I'm facing what appears to be a UIKit bug, and it takes the combination of two less commonly used features to reproduce it, so please bear with me here. I have quite the common view hierarchy: UITabBarController -> UINavigationController -> UITableViewController and the table view controller pushes another table view controller onto the navigation controller's stack when a row is selected. There's absolutely nothing special or fancy in the code here. However, the second UITableViewController, the "detail view controller" if you will, does two things: It sets hidesBottomBarWhenPushed to YES in its init method, so the tab bar is hidden when this controller is pushed: - (id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewStyle)style { if(self = [super initWithStyle:style]) { self.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; } return self; } It calls setToolbarHidden:NO animated:YES and setToolbarHidden:YES animated:YES on self.navigationController in viewWillAppear: and viewWillDisappear: respectively, causing the UIToolbar provided by UINavigationController to be displayed and hidden with animations: - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; [self.navigationController setToolbarHidden:NO animated:YES]; } - (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillDisappear:animated]; [self.navigationController setToolbarHidden:YES animated:YES]; } Now, if the second UITableViewController was pushed by selecting the row at the bottom of the screen (it doesn't have to be the last row) in the first controller, this row does not automatically get deselected when the user immediately or eventually returns to the first controller. Further, the row cannot be deselected by calling deselectRowAtIndexPath:animated: on self.tableView in viewWillAppear: or viewDidAppear: in the first controller. I'm guessing this is a bug in UITableViewController's drawing code which of course only draws visible rows, but unfortunately fails to determine correctly if the bottommost row will be visible in this case. I failed to find anything on this on Google or OpenRadar, and was wondering if anyone else on SO had this problem or knew a solution/workaround.

  Read the article

• Assistance with building an inverted-index

  - by tipu

  It's part of an information retrieval thing I'm doing for school. The plan is to create a hashmap of words using the the first two letters of the word as a key and any words with the two letters saved as a string value. So, hashmap["ba"] = "bad barley base" Once I'm done tokenizing a line I take that hashmap, serialize it, and append it to the text file named after the key. The idea is that if I take my data and spread it over hundreds of files I'll lessen the time it takes to fulfill a search by lessening the density of each file. The problem I am running into is when I'm making 100+ files in each run it happens to choke on creating a few files for whatever reason and so those entries are empty. Is there any way to make this more efficient? Is it worth continuing this, or should I abandon it? I'd like to mention I'm using PHP. The two languages I know relatively intimately are PHP and Java. I chose PHP because the front end will be very simple to do and I will be able to add features like autocompletion/suggested search without a problem. I also see no benefit in using Java. Any help is appreciated, thanks.

  Read the article

• How to resize a Flot graph when its containing div changes size

  - by Will Gorman

  I'm using the Flot graphing library jQuery plugin and I haven't found a good way to handle resizing the graph when it's containing <div> changes size (for example, due to window resizing). When handling the onresize event, I've made sure that the width and height of the containing <div>are updated to the correct size and then tried calling both setupGrid and draw on the plot object but with no effect. I've had some success with the approach of just removing and readding the containing <div> and replotting the graph in it. However, this seems to be prone to getting stuck in infinite resize event loops if I have to add other <div> elements to the document at the same time (like for tooltips for the graph) as I'm guessing those can trigger resize events as well? Is there a good way to handle it that I'm missing? (I'm also using ExplorerCanvas for IE in order to be able to use Flot, if that might have anything to do with it. I haven't really tried in any other browsers yet)

  Read the article

• How to compile a schema that uses a DataSet (xs:schema)?

  - by Yaron Naveh

  I have created the simplest web service in c#: public void AddData(DataSet ds) The generated schema (Wsdl) looks like this: <s:schema xmlns:s="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> ... <s:element ref="s:schema" /> ... </s:schema> Note the schema does not contain any import/include elements. I am trying to load this schema to a c# System.Xml.XmlSchema and add it to System.Xml.XmlSchemaSet: var set = new XmlSchemaSet(); var fs = new FileStream(@"c:\temp\schema.xsd", FileMode.Open); var s = XmlSchema.Read(fs, null); set.Add(s); set.Compile(); The last line throws this exception: The 'http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema:schema' element is not declared. It kind of makes sense: The schema generated by .Net uses the "s:schema" type which is declared in a schema which is not imported. Why does .Net create a non valid schema? How to compile the schema anyway? Whay I did is download the schema in http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema and added it to the XmlSchemaSet also. This did not work since that online schema contains DTD definition. I had to manually remove it and now all works. Does this make sense or am I missing something?

  Read the article

• PHP SoapClient() function returning a single XML string

  - by gjb

  I am having difficulty with the PHP SoapClient() function. The SOAP request is successful, but the response is returned as an object containing a single XML string with the key "any". For example: <?php $params = array('strUsername' => 'Test', 'strPassword' => 'Test'); $client=new SoapClient('http://www.example.com/webservice.asmx?wsdl', array('features' => SOAP_SINGLE_ELEMENT_ARRAYS)); $result = $client->strExampleCall($params); print_r($result); ?> This outputs the following: stdClass Object ( [strExampleCallResult] => stdClass Object ( [any] => <Response xmlns="" release="1.0.0" environment="Production" lang="en-GB"><ApplicationArea><Sender><SenderId>0</SenderId><ReferenceId>0</ReferenceId></Sender><Destination><DestinationId>1</DestinationId></Destination></ApplicationArea><DataArea><Result>1</Result></DataArea></Response> ) ) Subsequently, I cannot access properties of the object as I'd expect to: echo $result->strExampleCallResult->Response->DataArea->Result; Why isn't PHP parsing the SOAP response into properties of the returned object? I am using PHP 5.3.0 and believe the SOAP server is running .NET. Any suggestions will be much appreciated.

  Read the article

• UDK SettingsScene variable

  - by Ricket

  I am in the process of porting a script from UT3 to UDK. The script is for class ZOUIFrontEnd_MainMenu extends UTUIFrontEnd_MainMenu. I'm getting the following compiler error: C:\UDK\UDK-2010-03\Development\Src\FixIt\Classes\ZOUIFrontEnd_MainMenu.uc(18) : Error, Bad or missing expression in Call to 'OpenSceneByName', parameter 1 The referenced line is as follows: OpenSceneByName(SettingsScene); Okay, so I figured the OpenSceneByName function changed in UDK. Tracing the path of inheritance all the way up to UDKUIScene.uc, I found the definition: function UIScene OpenSceneByName(string SceneToOpen, bool bSkipAnimation=false, optional delegate<OnSceneActivated> SceneDelegate=None) Assuming SettingsScene is a string, everything looks fine, right? So I figured I would find SettingsScene to make sure it's a string. Well doing a search for "SettingsScene" in all files turned up only one other line; UTGameReplicationInfo.uc line 334: UTPC.OpenUIScene(class'UTUIFrontEnd_MainMenu'.default.SettingsScene); But UTUIFrontEnd_MainMenu doesn't have a SettingsScene variable in it! Just to check, I changed my line of code to match: OpenSceneByName(class'UTUIFrontEnd_MainMenu'.default.SettingsScene); And indeed, I get the following compile error now: C:\UDK\UDK-2010-03\Development\Src\FixIt\Classes\ZOUIFrontEnd_MainMenu.uc(18) : Error, Unknown Property 'SettingsScene' in 'Class UTGame.UTUIFrontEnd_MainMenu' How does UTGameReplicationInfo.uc successfully compile? Where is the SettingsScene variable?

  Read the article

• WCF Service Impersonation

  - by robalot

  Good Day Everyone... Apparently, I'm not setting-up impersonation correctly for my WCF service. I do NOT want to set security on a method-by-method basis (in the actual code-behind). The service (at the moment) is open to be called by everyone on the intranet. So my questions are… Q: What web-config tags am I missing? Q: What do I need to change in the web-config to make impersonation work? The Service Web.config Looks Like... <configuration> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="?"/> </authorization> <authentication mode="Windows"/> <identity impersonate="true" userName="MyDomain\MyUser" password="MyPassword"/> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="wcfFISH.DataServiceBehavior" name="wcfFISH.DataService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="wcfFISH.IFishData"> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="wcfFISH.DataServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="false"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration>

  Read the article

• Websphere 7 EntityManagerFactory creation problem

  - by mihaela

  Hello, I'm working on a maven project which uses seam 2.2.0, hibernate 3.5.0-CR-2 as JPA provider, DB2 as database server and Websphere 7 as application server. Now I'm facing de following problem: In my EJBs that are seen also as SEAM components I want to use the EntityManager from EJB container (@PersistenceContext private EntityManager em) not Seam's EntityManager (@In private EntityManager em). But this is the problem, I cannot obtain an EntityManager using @PersistenceContext. On server logs it sais that it cannot create an EntityManagerFactory and gets a ClassCastException: java.lang.ClassCastException: org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence incompatible with javax.persistence.spi.PersistenceProvider After a lot of debugging and searching on forums I'm assuming that the problem is that Websphere doesn't use the Hibernate JPA provider. Has anyone faced this problem and has a solution? I configured already WAS class loader order for my application to load the classes with the application class loader first and I\ve packed all necessary jars in application ear as written in: WAS InfoCenter: Features for EJB 3.0 development . If necessary I'll post my persistence.xml, components.xml files and stack trace. I've found this problem discussed also here: Websphere EntityManagerFactory creation problem Hibernate 3.3 fail to create entity manager factory in Websphere 7.0. Please help Any hint will be useful. Thanks in advance! Mihaela

  Read the article

• VB.NET error: Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0 provider is not registered [RESOLVED]

  - by Azim

  I have a Visual Studio 2008 solution with two projects (a Word-Template project and a VB.Net console application for testing). Both projects reference a database project which opens a connection to an MS-Access 2007 database file and have references to System.Data.OleDb. In the database project I have a function which retrieves a data table as follows private class AdminDatabase ' stores the connection string which is set in the New() method dim strAdminConnection as string public sub New() ... adminName = dlgopen.FileName conAdminDB = New OleDbConnection conAdminDB.ConnectionString = "Data Source='" + adminName + "';" + _ "Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0" ' store the connection string in strAdminConnection strAdminConnection = conAdminDB.ConnectionString.ToString() My.Settings.SetUserOverride("AdminConnectionString", strAdminConnection) ... End Sub ' retrieves data from the database Public Function getDataTable(ByVal sqlStatement As String) As DataTable Dim ds As New DataSet Dim dt As New DataTable Dim da As New OleDbDataAdapter Dim localCon As New OleDbConnection localCon.ConnectionString = strAdminConnection Using localCon Dim command As OleDbCommand = localCon.CreateCommand() command.CommandText = sqlStatement localCon.Open() da.SelectCommand = command da.Fill(dt) getDataTable = dt End Using End Function End Class When I call this function from my Word 2007 Template project everything works fine; no errors. But when I run it from the console application it throws the following exception ex = {"The 'Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0' provider is not registered on the local machine."} Both projects have the same reference and the console application did work when I first wrote it (a while ago) but now it has stopped work. I must be missing something but I don't know what. Any ideas? Thanks Azim

  Read the article

• Getting a gestureoverlayview

  - by Codejoy

  I have been using some nice tutorials on drawing graphics on my android. I wanted to also add in the cool gesture demo found here: http://developer.android.com/resources/articles/gestures.html That takes these lines of code: GestureOverlayView gestures = (GestureOverlayView) findViewById(R.id.gestures); gestures.addOnGesturePerformedListener(this); This is fine and dandy yet I realize in my demo i'm trying to build using code from "Playing with Graphics in Android". The demos make sense, everything makes sense but I found out by using: setContentView(new Panel(this)); as is required by the Playing With Graphics tutorials, then the findViewById seems to no longer be valid and returns null. At first I was about to post a stupider question as to why this is happening, a quick test of playing with the setContentView made me realize the cause of findViewById returning null, I just do not know how to remedy this issue. Whats the key I am missing here? I realize that the new Panel is doinking some reference up but I am not sure how to make the connection here. THe: R.id.gestures is defined right int he main.xml as: (just like the tutorial) Thanks, Shane p.s. im new here be gentle.

  Read the article

• Cannot get net 4.5rc to work

  - by ThomasD

  I have installed .net 4.5rc from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/netframework/hh854779.aspx because I would like to use the new spatial features when developing with visual visual web developer 2010 express. But when I want to change the target framework to .net 4.5 in the project properties it is not there. I have checked the directory in C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework64 and can see that there is no v4.5 folder but the v4.0 directory has been updated with a timestamp corresponding to when I installed v4.5. The version of the v4.0 directory is v4.0.30319. I am running windows 7 on my computer. Any ideas why I cannot find v4.5 ? thanks Thomas *UPDATE Based on the comment below I have found out that I am running 4.5. For others reading this post, .net 4.5 replaces the files in the .net 4.0 directory but without renaming the directory to .net 4.5 (a bit confusing). To check whether your assemblies have been updated check the product version of eg. system.dll (right click - details). According to this post http://www.west-wind.com/weblog/posts/2012/Mar/13/NET-45-is-an-inplace-replacement-for-NET-40 if the product version is above 17000 it is running 4.5.

  Read the article

• Replace Temp with Query

  - by student

  The Replace Temp with Query refactoring method is recommended quite widely now but seems to be very inefficient for very little gain. The method from the Martin Fowler's site gives the following example: Extract the expression into a method. Replace all references to the temp with the expression. The new method can then be used in other methods. double basePrice = _quantity * _itemPrice; if (basePrice > 1000) return basePrice * 0.95; else return basePrice * 0.98; becomes if (basePrice() > 1000) return basePrice() * 0.95; else return basePrice() * 0.98; double basePrice() { return _quantity * _itemPrice; } Why is this a good idea? surely it means the calculation is needlessly repeated and you have the overhead of calling a function. I know CPU cycles are cheap but throwing them away like this seems careless? Am I missing something?

  Read the article

• How to bind form collection back to custom model object that uses 2 custom objects in asp.net mvc?

  - by baijajusav

  What I'm trying to do is rather basic, but I might have my facts mixed up. I have a details page that has a custom class as it's Model. The custom class uses 2 custom objects with yet another custom object a property of one of the 2. The details page outputs a fair amount of information, but allows the user to post a comment. When the user clicks the post button, the page gets posted to a Details action that looks something like this: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Details(VideoDetailModel vidAndComment) { ....} The only fields on the form that is posted are CommentText and VideoId. Here is what the VideoDetailModel looks like. public class VideoDetailModel { public VideoDetailModel() { Video = new VideoDTO(); Comment = new CommentDTO(); } public VideoDetailModel(VideoDTO vid) { Video = vid; Comment = new CommentDTO(); } public VideoDTO Video { get; set; } public CommentDTO Comment { get; set; } } VideoDTO has a few properties, but the ones I need are VideoId. CommentDTO's pertinent properties include CommentText (which is posting correctly) and a UserDTO object that contains a userId property. Everything other than the CommentText value is not being posted. I also have the following line on the ascx page, but the model value never gets posted to the controller. Html.Hidden("Model.Video.VideoId", Model.Video.VideoId); I'm really not sure what I'm missing here. I suppose if I added more form fields for the properties I need, they would get posted, but I only need 1 form entry field for the CommentText. If I could get the same Model objects value that were sent to the page to post with the page, that would help. I'll be happy to make any clarifications needed here. I'm just at loss as to what's going on.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 714 715 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725  | Next Page >