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• Unable to display wap version during "Extended permission"

  - by Mickey Cheong

  Hi, Im trying to redirect to facebook to request permission to publish stream. However, it only works when i did not specify any display parameters, it shows me a web version of it. I wanted a wap version instead. What should I do? Here's the code: <form method="post" action="https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize"> <input type="hidden" name="client_id" value="1XXXXXXXXXXXXXX" /> <input type="hidden" name="scope" value="publish_stream" /> <input type="hidden" name="redirect_uri" value="http://www.redirect.com/" /> <input class="button" type="submit" value="Request..." /> </form> When i submit this form, it will redirect to http://www.facebook.com/connect/prompt_ … y=page.... If I were to change the "redirected url"'s display param to "wap" it will works. However, if I were to submit to https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?display=wap. Nothing will happen and it will redirect back to the source url. Any help/hint will be grateful. Thanks a mil, Mickey

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• vsts load test datasource issues

  - by ashish.s

  Hello, I have a simple test using vsts load test that is using datasource. The connection string for the source is as follows <connectionStrings> <add name="MyExcelConn" connectionString="Driver={Microsoft Excel Driver (*.xls)};Dsn=Excel Files;dbq=loginusers.xls;defaultdir=.;driverid=790;maxbuffersize=4096;pagetimeout=20;ReadOnly=False" providerName="System.Data.Odbc" /> </connectionStrings> the datasource configuration is as follows and i am getting following error estError TestError 1,000 The unit test adapter failed to connect to the data source or to read the data. For more information on troubleshooting this error, see "Troubleshooting Data-Driven Unit Tests" (http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=62412) in the MSDN Library. Error details: ERROR [42000] [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Cannot update. Database or object is read-only. ERROR [IM006] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Driver's SQLSetConnectAttr failed ERROR [42000] [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Cannot update. Database or object is read-only. I wrote a test, just to check if i could create an odbc connection would work and that works the test is as follows [TestMethod] public void TestExcelFile() { string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["MyExcelConn"].ConnectionString; using (OdbcConnection con = new OdbcConnection(connString)) { con.Open(); System.Data.Odbc.OdbcCommand objCmd = new OdbcCommand("SELECT * FROM [loginusers$]"); objCmd.Connection = con; OdbcDataAdapter adapter = new OdbcDataAdapter(objCmd); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); adapter.Fill(ds); Assert.IsTrue(ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count > 1); } } any ideas ?

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• SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication.

  - by Shao

  SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication. From: http://wiki.pylonshq.com/display/pylonscookbook/Simple+Homegrown+Authentication Note: a. Project follows the MVC pattern. b. Only a user with a valid username and password is allowed submit something. Design: a. Have a base controller from which all controllers are derived from. b. Before any of the actions in the derived controllers are called the system calls a before action in the base controller. c. In each controller user hardcodes the actions that need to be verified in an array. d. The before action first looks in the array that has the actions that are protected and sees if a user is logged in or not by peaking into the session. If a user is present then user is allowed to submit otherwise user is redirected to login page. What do you think?

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• Getting error while connecting to facebook

  - by Bakhtiyor

  I have downloaded php-sdk for using facebook in php. I also created facebook application in the facebook web page in order to get API key and secret key. When I run example.php and try to connect to facebook it shows me the following error: Configuration errors: To fix this error, please set your Connect URL in the application settings editor. Once it has been set, users will be redirected to that URL instead of this page after logging in. I am using this php-sdk in the localhost. I tried to assign localhost as Connect URL but facebook doesn't accept it. I have read about Cross Domain Communication Channel and think this is what I need. But I don't know how to use it. Anyone can help me to solve this problem please? Update Actually what I need is following. I have Web Application and need to connect to facebook and search for users in facebook who has specific(user will specify this) Likes and Interests. Any idea about solving my problem?

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• WYSIHAT Photos upload not working - Paperclip - Ruby on Rails

  - by bgadoci

  I just successfully installed WysiHat in my rails blog. Seems that the 'add a picture' feature is not working. It successfully allows me to find and select a picture from my desktop but upon clicking save, it does nothing. I also have Paperclip successfully installed. I am wondering if this may have something to do with it. Perhaps Paperclip is getting in the way, or, perhaps I need to connect Paperclip and WysiHat somehow. Any ideas? (let me know if I need to post any code). Also, WysiHat-engine uses facebox, not sure if that is relevant. UPDATE: Added Server Log, looks like paperclip is saving it so not sure what else is going wrong. Processing PostsController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-23 16:42:14) [PUT] Parameters: {"commit"=>"Update", "post"=>{"body"=>"<p>Duis autem vel eum iriure dolor in hendrerit in vulputate velit esse molestie consequat, vel illum dolore eu feugiat nulla facilisis at vero eros et accumsan et iusto odio dignissim qui blandit praesent luptatum zzril delenit augue duis dolore te feugait nulla facilisi. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit, sed diam nonummy nibh euismod tincidunt ut laoreet dolore magna aliquam erat volutpat.</p>", "title"=>"Rails Code for Search"}, "authenticity_token"=>"hndm6pxaPLfgnSMFAmLDGNo86mZG3XnlfJoNOI/P+O8=", "id"=>"105"} Post Load (0.2ms) SELECT * FROM "posts" WHERE ("posts"."id" = 105) Post Update (0.3ms) UPDATE "posts" SET "updated_at" = '2010-04-23 21:42:14', "body" = '<p>Duis autem vel eum iriure dolor in hendrerit in vulputate velit esse molestie consequat, vel illum dolore eu feugiat nulla facilisis at vero eros et accumsan et iusto odio dignissim qui blandit praesent luptatum zzril delenit augue duis dolore te feugait nulla facilisi. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit, sed diam nonummy nibh euismod tincidunt ut laoreet dolore magna aliquam erat volutpat.</p>' WHERE "id" = 105 [paperclip] Saving attachments. Redirected to http://localhost:3000/posts/105 Completed in 12ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://localhost/posts/105]

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• Locking semaphores in C problem sys/sem

  - by Vojtech R.

  Hi, I have problem with my functions. Sometimes two processes enter into critical section. I can't find problem in this after I spent 10 hours by debugging. On what I should aim? // lock semaphore static int P(int sem_id) { struct sembuf sem_b; sem_b.sem_num = 0; sem_b.sem_op = -1; /* P() */ sem_b.sem_flg = 0; if (semop(sem_id, &sem_b, 1) == -1) { print_error("semop in P", errno); return(0); } return(1); } // unlock semaphore static int V(int sem_id) { struct sembuf sem_b[1]; sem_b.sem_num = 0; sem_b.sem_op = 1; /* V() */ sem_b.sem_flg = 0; if (semop(sem_id, &sem_b, 1) == -1) { print_error("semop in V", errno); return(0); } return(1); } The action loop: int mutex; if ((mutex=semget(key, 1, 0666))>=0) { // semaphore exists } while(1) { P(mutex); assert(get_val(mutex)==0); (*action)++; V(mutex); } Many thanks

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• use of assertions for type checking in php?

  - by user151841

  I do some checking of arguments in my classes in php using exception-throwing functions. I have functions that do a basic check ( ===, in_array etc ) and throw an exception on false. So I can do assertNumeric($argument, "\$argument is not numeric."); instead of if ( ! is_numeric($argument) ) { throw new Exception("\$argument is not numeric."); } Saves some typing I was reading in the comments of the php manual page on assert() that As noted on Wikipedia - "assertions are primarily a development tool, they are often disabled when a program is released to the public." and "Assertions should be used to document logically impossible situations and discover programming errors— if the 'impossible' occurs, then something fundamental is clearly wrong. This is distinct from error handling: most error conditions are possible, although some may be extremely unlikely to occur in practice. Using assertions as a general-purpose error handling mechanism is usually unwise: assertions do not allow for graceful recovery from errors, and an assertion failure will often halt the program's execution abruptly. Assertions also do not display a user-friendly error message." This means that the advice given by "gk at proliberty dot com" to force assertions to be enabled, even when they have been disabled manually, goes against best practices of only using them as a development tool So, am I 'doing it wrong'? What other/better ways of doing this are there?

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• Does this use of Monitor.Wait/Pulse have a race condition?

  - by jw

  I have a simple producer/consumer scenario, where there is only ever a single item being produced/consumed. Also, the producer waits for the worker thread to finish before continuing. I realize that kind of obviates the whole point of multithreading, but please just assume it really needs to be this way (: This code doesn't compile, but I hope you get the idea: // m_data is initially null // This could be called by any number of producer threads simultaneously void SetData(object foo) { lock(x) // Line A { assert(m_data == null); m_data = foo; Monitor.Pulse(x) // Line B while(m_data != null) Monitor.Wait(x) // Line C } } // This is only ever called by a single worker thread void UseData() { lock(x) // Line D { while(m_data == null) Monitor.Wait(x) // Line E // here, do something with m_data m_data = null; Monitor.Pulse(x) // Line F } } Here is the situation that I am not sure about: Suppose many threads call SetData() with different inputs. Only one of them will get inside the lock, and the rest will be blocked on Line A. Suppose the one that got inside the lock sets m_data and makes its way to Line C. Question: Could the Wait() on Line C allow another thread at Line A to obtain the lock and overwrite m_data before the worker thread even gets to it? Supposing that doesn't happen, and the worker thread processes the original m_data, and eventually makes its way to Line F, what happens when that Pulse() goes off? Will only the thread waiting on Line C be able to get the lock? Or will it be competing with all the other threads waiting on Line A as well? Essentially, I want to know if Pulse()/Wait() communicate with each other specially "under the hood" or if they are on the same level with lock(). The solution to these problems, if they exist, is obvious of course - just surround SetData() with another lock - say, lock(y). I'm just curious if it's even an issue to begin with.

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• When can a == b be false and a.Equals(b) true?

  - by alastairs

  I ran into this situation today. I have an object which I'm testing for equality; the Create() method returns a subclass implementation of MyObject. MyObject a = MyObject.Create(); MyObject b = MyObject.Create(); a == b; // is false a.Equals(b); // is true Note I have also over-ridden Equals() in the subclass implementation, which does a very basic check to see whether or not the passed-in object is null and is of the subclass's type. If both those conditions are met, the objects are deemed to be equal. The other slightly odd thing is that my unit test suite does some tests similar to Assert.AreEqual(MyObject.Create(), MyObject.Create()); // Green bar and the expected result is observed. Therefore I guess that NUnit uses a.Equals(b) under the covers, rather than a == b as I had assumed. Side note: I program in a mixture of .NET and Java, so I might be mixing up my expectations/assumptions here. I thought, however, that a == b worked more consistently in .NET than it did in Java where you often have to use equals() to test equality.

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• How do I get my ActivityUnitTestCases to sync with the MessageQueue thread and call my Handler?

  - by Ricardo Gladwell

  I'm writing unit tests for a ListActivity in Android that uses a handler to update a ListAdapter. While my activity works in the Android emulator, running the same code in a unit test doesn't update my adapter: calls to sendEmptyMessage do not call handleMessage in my activity's Handler. How do I get my ActivityUnitTestCase to sync with the MessageQueue thread and call my Handler? The code for the Activity is somewhat like this: public class SampleActivity extends ListActivity implements SampleListener { List samples = new ArrayList(); public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.sample_list); listView.setEmptyView(findViewById(R.id.empty)); } private final Handler handler = new Handler() { @Override public void handleMessage(Message msg) { // unit test never reaches here sharesAdapter = new SampleAdapter(SampleActivity.this, samples); setListAdapter(sharesAdapter); } }; public void handleSampleUpdate(SampleEvent event) { samples.add(event.getSample()); handler.sendEmptyMessage(0); } } The code for my unit test is somewhat like this: public class SampleActivityTest extends ActivityUnitTestCase<SampleActivity> { public SampleActivityTest() { super(SampleActivity.class); } @MediumTest public void test() throws Exception { final SampleActivity activity = startActivity(new Intent(Intent.ACTION_MAIN), null, null); final ListView listView = (ListView) activity.findViewById(android.R.id.list); activity.handleSampleUpdate(new SampleEvent(this)); // unit test assert fails on this line: assertTrue(listView.getCount() == 1); } }

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• Problem with ASP.NET Authentication

  - by Niels Bosma

  I'm having problem with our login procedure. Some customers complain that they can't login. I can see in our logs that their login is successful and that they are redirected from the login page to the member area. But there somehow the login isn't detected and they are bounced back to the login page. I've asked customers to check if cookies are supported (http://www.html-kit.com/tools/cookietester/) but problem remains even if this test returns true. This is how I've implemented the login procedure (simplyfied): protected void Login(string email, string password) { FormsAuthentication.SignOut(); Guid clientId = /* Validate login by checking email and password, if fails display error otherwise get client id */ FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(clientId.ToString(), true); HttpContext.Current.Response.Redirect("~/Members.aspx"); } On the member page I check for authentication by in Page_Load function: public static void IsAuthenticated() { if (!HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { HttpContext.Current.Response.Redirect("~/Login.aspx", true); } } Maybe I'm using FormsAuthentication completely wrong? I've asked this before but still haven't been able to figure this out, I'd appreciate any help.

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• Problem with Unit testing of ASP.NET project (NullReferenceException when running the test)

  - by Alex

  Hi, I'm trying to create a bunch of MS visual studio unit tests for my n-tiered web app but for some reason I can't run those tests and I get the following error - "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" What I'm trying to do is testing of my data access layer where I use LINQ data context class to execute a certain function and return a result,however during the debugging process I found out that all the tests fail as soon as they get to the LINQ data context class and it has something to do with the connection string but I cant figure out what is the problem. The debugging of tests fails here(the second line): public EICDataClassesDataContext() : base(global::System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["EICDatabaseConnectionString"].ConnectionString, mappingSource) { OnCreated(); } And my test is as follows: TestMethod()] public void OnGetCustomerIDTest() { FrontLineStaffDataAccess target = new FrontLineStaffDataAccess(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string regNo = "jonh"; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value int expected = 10; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value int actual; actual = target.OnGetCustomerID(regNo); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } The method which I call from DAL is: public int OnGetCustomerID(string regNo) { using (LINQDataAccess.EICDataClassesDataContext dataContext = new LINQDataAccess.EICDataClassesDataContext()) { IEnumerable<LINQDataAccess.GetCustomerIDResult> sProcCustomerIDResult = dataContext.GetCustomerID(regNo); int customerID = sProcCustomerIDResult.First().CustomerID; return customerID; } } So basically everything fails after it reaches the 1st line of DA layer method and when it tries to instantiate the LINQ data access class... I've spent around 10 hours trying to troubleshoot the problem but no result...I would really appreciate any help! UPDATE: Finally I've fixed this!!!!:) I dont know why but for some reasons in the app.config file the connection to my database was as follows: AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\EICDatabase.MDF So what I did is I just changed the path and instead of |DataDirectory| I put the actual path where my MDF file sits,i.e C:\Users\1\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\EICWebSystem\EICWebSystem\App_Data\EICDatabase.mdf After I had done that it worked out!But still it's a bit not clear what was the problem...probably incorrect path to the database?My web.config of ASP.NET project contains the |DataDirectory|\EICDatabase.MDF path though..

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• How do I implement page authorizaton in ASP.NET using a SQL store instead of web.config?

  - by drachenstern

  For instance, the way we're doing it now is like thus: (in the web.config) <location path="somePath"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow roles="approvedRoles"/> <deny users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> And what I would like to do instead is to store this information in SQL somewhere so that we can manipulate the information more easily. But we want to keep the same functionality that having the information in web.config provides, just like we can use a SqlRoleProvider instead of hardcoding roles in the app. So in other words, if a user currently tries to goto "somePath" and they're not a member of "approvedRoles" then they get redirected back to default.aspx, and if they are a member of "approvedRoles" then they get the page. I want to do the same thing, but without using web.config as the authorization mechanism. So what I'm NOT asking is how do I go about defining roles, or how do I handle logging in to the database, but specifically how do I store the above information in SQL instead of web.config. Actually, I'll take "anywhere but web.config" for now. Any ideas? Is this possible using a "Provider" class? I'm just looking for pointers on what to inherit and maybe some technet documentation. In this regard my googlefoo is lacking since I don't really know where to point. Am I really only looking for AzMan? Is this location-authorization-via-SQL already defined in the default aspnetdb somewhere and I'm missing it? For that matter, has this question already been asked on SO and I've missed it? What would you google?

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• Attempted to read or write protected memory

  - by Interfector

  I have a sample ASP.NET MVC 3 web application that is following Jonathan McCracken's Test-Drive Asp.NET MVC (great book , by the way) and I have stumbled upon a problem. Note that I'm using MVCContrib, Rhino and NUnit. [Test] public void ShouldSetLoggedInUserToViewBag() { var todoController = new TodoController(); var builder = new TestControllerBuilder(); builder.InitializeController(todoController); builder.HttpContext.User = new GenericPrincipal(new GenericIdentity("John Doe"), null); Assert.That(todoController.Index().AssertViewRendered().ViewData["UserName"], Is.EqualTo("John Doe")); } The code above always throws this error: System.AccessViolationException : Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. The controller action code is the following: [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { ViewData.Model = Todo.ThingsToBeDone; ViewBag.UserName = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; return View(); } From what I have figured out, the app seems to crash because of the two assignements in the controller action. However, I cannot see how there are wrong!? Can anyone help me pinpoint the solution to this problem. Thank you.

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• How to create a list of data clickable? asp.net

  - by Roger Filipe

  Hello, I am learning asp.net but I'm finding some problems. My doubt is how to make a list of titles of news contained in a database. And in this list, each of the titles when clicked is redirected to a page where you will be able to view the news in full (Title, Body, Author ..). What I got: - A database containing a table with the news, every news is associated with an identification code (ex: "ID"). - A page where you will make the listing. (Ex: site / listofnews.aspx) - I have a page that uses the method "querystring" to know what is the primarykey the news. (Ex: site/shownews.aspx?ID=12345, where "12345" is the primarykey of the news. Once it knows what is the primarykey of the news in the database, it loads each of the fields of the page (news.aspx) with the news, this part is working ok. - The data is retrieve using the Linq, so I receive a List of "News", the class "News" as ID, Title, Body, Author.. My doubt is how to make the listing clickable. In php I used this method (make a list of html links, in each link the href field is changed so that the tag "id" coincides with the news): //database used is oracle, $stmt is the query, you don´t need to understand how it works. oci_define_by_name($stmt, "ID", $id); oci_define_by_name($stmt, "TITLE", $title); if (!oci_execute($stmt, OCI_DEFAULT)) { $err = oci_error($stmt); trigger_error('Query failed: ' . $err['message'], E_USER_ERROR); } echo '<br />'; while (oci_fetch($stmt)) {<------While there is data from the database , create links $link = '<a href="site/shownews.php?ID='.$id.'" >'.$title.'</a>';<----the shownews.php?ID= $id, creates the link according with the ID echo $link<---Prints the link echo '<br />'; } How do i make the same with asp.net?

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• Exam Questions that use .Demand or .LinkDemand COULD NOT BE ANY MORE CONFUSING OR AMBIGIOUS ????

  - by IbrarMumtaz

  I am 110% sure this is WRONG !!!! Q.12) You develop a library, and want to ensure that the functions in the library cannot be either directly or indirectly invoked by applications that are not running on the local intranet. What attribute would you add to each method? A. [UrlIdentityPermission(SecurityAction.RequestRefuse, Url="http://myintranet")] B. [UrlIdentityPermission(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Url="http://myintranet")] (correct answer) C. [UrlIdentityPermission(SecurityAction.Demand, Url="http://myintranet")] D. [UrlIdentityPermission(SecurityAction.Assert, Url="http://myintranet")] Explanation Link-Demand should be used as it ensures that all callers in the call stack have the necessary permission. In this case it ensures that all callers in the call stack are on the local intranet. There is an indentical question on Transencer so I already had a clue what was goin but Transcender was much more informative that this drivel as it mentioned class level and not assembly level. It also mentioned that some callers maybe coming externally from the company intranet via authroised and authenticated credentials. With information is easy to see why .Demand on would be wong option to go for? So Transcender was right .... so I thgt fine, that makes sense. With think information still fresh in my brain I had a good idea was was going on in the question. To my surprise .Demand was wrong agin !!!! WHAT? I am really starting to hate this setting now? I cannot be any more p*ssed right now!!! :@ Thanks For Reading, Ibrar

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• window.location.href not working in Safari when using onkeypress

  - by insanepaul

  I'm using an asp textbox and a search button. In Safari if I click the search button i get redirected to the search results page using javascript window.location.href. But strangely the same javascript will not redirect to the page if I press return in the textbox. Using the alert function I can see that window.location.href has the the correct url and the location bar at the top changes from the search page(default.aspx) to the search results url however when I click OK to the alert box the url at the top reverts back to the default.aspx page. It works on ie7/8/firefox/chrome but not safari. Here is my javascript,cs and aspx code: function submitSearchOnEnter(e) { var CodeForEnter = 13; var codeEnteredByUser; if (!e) var e = window.event; if (e.keyCode) codeEnteredByUser = e.keyCode; else if (e.which) codeEnteredByUser = e.which; if (codeEnteredByUser == CodeForEnter) RedirectToSearchPage(); } function RedirectToSearchPage() { var searchText = $get('<%=txtHeaderSearch.ClientID%>').value if (searchText.length) { window.location.href = "Search.aspx?searchString=" + searchText; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { txtHeaderSearch.Attributes.Add("onkeypress", "submitSearchOnEnter(event)"); } <asp:Panel ID="pnlSearch" runat="server" DefaultButton="lnkSearch"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtHeaderSearch" runat="server" CssClass="searchBox"></asp:TextBox> <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkSearch" OnClientClick="RedirectToSearchPage(); return false;" CausesValidation="false" runat="server" CssClass="searchButton"> SEARCH </asp:LinkButton> </asp:Panel> I've tried return false; which doesn't allow me to enter any characters in the search box. I've spent ages online trying to find a solution. Maybe it has something to do with setTimeout or setTimeInterval but it didn't work unless i did it wrong.

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• Unit testing with Mocks when SUT is leveraging Task Parallel Libaray

  - by StevenH

  I am trying to unit test / verify that a method is being called on a dependency, by the system under test. The depenedency is IFoo. The dependent class is IBar. IBar is implemented as Bar. Bar will call Start() on IFoo in a new (System.Threading.Tasks.)Task, when Start() is called on Bar instance. Unit Test (Moq): [Test] public void StartBar_ShouldCallStartOnAllFoo_WhenFoosExist() { //ARRANGE //Create a foo, and setup expectation var mockFoo0 = new Mock<IFoo>(); mockFoo0.Setup(foo => foo.Start()); var mockFoo1 = new Mock<IFoo>(); mockFoo1.Setup(foo => foo.Start()); //Add mockobjects to a collection var foos = new List<IFoo> { mockFoo0.Object, mockFoo1.Object }; IBar sutBar = new Bar(foos); //ACT sutBar.Start(); //Should call mockFoo.Start() //ASSERT mockFoo0.VerifyAll(); mockFoo1.VerifyAll(); } Implementation of IBar as Bar: class Bar : IBar { private IEnumerable<IFoo> Foos { get; set; } public Bar(IEnumerable<IFoo> foos) { Foos = foos; } public void Start() { foreach(var foo in Foos) { Task.Factory.StartNew( () => { foo.Start(); }); } } } I appears that the issue is obviously due to the fact that the call to "foo.Start()" is taking place on another thread (/task), and the mock (Moq framework) can't detect it. But I could be wrong. Thanks

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• mod_rewrite/GoDaddy problem

  - by John Deerhake

  Ok, so I really don't know much about mod_rewrite and I'm looking over the apache docs and still not figuring this out. Here is my htaccess (which is mostly just copy & pasted from a site I found): .htaccess in base dir: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^$ public/ [L] RewriteRule (.*) public/$1 [L] </IfModule> .htaccess in /public dir: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=$1 [PT,L] </IfModule> Basically I'm using the above htaccess files on my current test server and it works great and exactly like I would expect (everything gets seamlessly redirected to public dir). Now when I throw this on my GoDaddy hosting account i get "Internal Server Errror". I've done some searching and I'm fairly certain I should be able to use mod_rewrite with GoDaddy. I suspect this is because I'm not using the base directory to host the site in. The site is in in the folder html/myapp/ (where html is the base directory) and i have a subdomain set up in GoDaddy to look in that folder.

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• Apache multiple URL to one domain redirect

  - by Christian Moser

  For the last two day, I've been spending a lot of time to solve my problem, maybe someone can help me. Problem: I need to redirect different url's to one tomcat webbase-dir used for artifactory. following urls should point to the tomcat/artifactory webapp: maven-repo.example.local ; maven-repo.example.local/artifactory ; srv-example/artifactory Where maven-repo.example.local is the dns for the server-hostname: "srv-example" I'm accessing the tomcat app through the JK_mod module. The webapp is in the ROOT directory This is what I've got so far: <VirtualHost *:80> #If URL contains "artifactory" strip down and redirect RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^\artifactory\$ [NC] # (how can I remove 'artifactory' from the redirected parameters? ) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://maven-repo.example.local/$1 [R=301,L] ServerName localhost ErrorLog "logs/redirect-error_log" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName maven-repo.example.local ErrorLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-error.log" CustomLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-access.log" common #calling tomcat webapp in ROOT JkMount /* ajp13w </VirtualHost> The webapp is working with "maven-repo.example.local", but with "maven-repo.example.local/artifactory" tomcat gives a 404 - "The requested resource () is not available." It seems that the mod_rewrite doesn't have taken any effect, even if I redirect to another page, e.g google.com I'm testing on windows 7 with maven-repo.example.local added in the "system32/drivers/hosts" file Thanks in advance!

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• Having a Python package install itself under a different name

  - by cool-RR

  I'm developing a package called garlicsim. (Website.) The package is intended for Python 2.X, but I am also offerring Python 3 support on a different fork called garlicsim_py3.(1) So both of these packages live side by side on PyPI, and Python 3 users install garlicsim_py3, and Python 2 users install garlicsim. The problem is: When third party modules want to use garlicsim, they should have one package name to refer to, not two. Sure, they can do something like this: try: import garlicsim except ImportError: import garlicsim_py3 as garlicsim But I would prefer not to make the developers of these modules do this. Is there a way that garlicsim_py3 will install itself under the alias garlicsim? What I want is for a Python 3 user to be able to import garlicsim and refer to the module all the time as garlicsim, but that it will really be garlicsim_py3. I know that the Distribute project does something like this: They make it so you can import setuptools and it will be redirected into their code. I have no idea how they do it. Any ideas? (1) I've reached the decision to support Python 3 on a fork instead of in the same code base; It's important for me that the code base will be clean, and I would really not want to introduce compatibilty hacks.

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• Why is "rake tests" running an empty suite when I use shoulda?

  - by ryeguy

  So here is my test suite: class ReleaseTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase should_not_allow_values_for :title, '', 'blah', 'blah blah' should_allow_values_for :title, 'blah - bleh', 'blah blah - bleh bleh' def test_something assert true end end Shoulda's macros generate 5 tests, and then I have test_something below (just to see if that would matter), totalling 6 tests. They all pass as you can see below, but then it runs a 0-test suite. This happens even if I completely empty out ReleaseTest. This problem only exists if I have config.gem 'shoulda' in my environment.rb. If I explicitly do require 'shoulda' at the top of my tests, everything works fine. What would be causing this? /usr/bin/ruby -e STDOUT.sync=true;STDERR.sync=true;load($0=ARGV.shift) /var/lib/gems/1.9.1/bin/rake test Testing started at 6:58 PM ... (in /home/rlepidi/projects/rails/testproject) /usr/bin/ruby1.9.1 -I"lib:test" "/var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/unit/release_test.rb" Loaded suite /var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader Started ...... Finished in 0.029335778 seconds. 6 tests, 6 assertions, 0 failures, 0 errors, 0 pendings, 0 omissions, 0 notifications 100% passed /usr/bin/ruby1.9.1 -I"lib:test" "/var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" /usr/bin/ruby1.9.1 -I"lib:test" "/var/lib/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" Loaded suite /var/lib/gems/1.9.1/bin/rake Started Finished in 0.000106717 seconds. 0 tests, 0 assertions, 0 failures, 0 errors, 0 pendings, 0 omissions, 0 notifications 0% passed Empty test suite.

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• How do php apps identify a user after the session has timed out?

  - by Bill Zimmerman

  I am trying to understand how PHP apps check to see if a user is logged in. I am specifically looking at mediawiki's code to try to help me understand, but these cases should be fairly common in all php apps. From what I gather, the main cases are: A user just logged in or was created, every time they visit the page PHP knows its them by checking data common to the $_SESSION variable and the cookie. A user had the 'remember me' option checked on the login page a long time ago. They have a cookie on there computer with a tokenID, which is checked with a token on the server to authenticate them. In this case, there is no session variable, because the time between accesses could be weeks. My question is, what happens when a user is logged in, but the PHP session times out and he wants to access a page? I would have assumed that there is no easy way for the server to know who the person is - and that they would have to be redirected to the login page. However, mediawiki does just that. I've verified that the session files are deleted after X minutes, but when I hit refresh in mediawiki, it knows which user I am, and the 'token' variable is not included in the cookie.

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• String Comparison containing hyphens not matching

  - by Christo Fur

  I have a method in a url rewriting module that looks like this public bool Match(Uri url) { string x = url.PathAndQuery.ToLowerInvariant(); string y = RuleData.ToLowerInvariant(); return x.Contains(y); } However, it is not returning true for the following values: x = "/xx09-02-09xx"; y = "09-02-09"; but if I write a unit test with the raw strings, like below, it does return true [Test] public void Contains() { string x = "/xx09-02-09xx"; string y = "09-02-09"; Assert.IsTrue(x.Contains(y)); // this returns true } What could be the difference? The encoding? The culture? Have tried removing the ToLowerInvarient(), but that makes no difference have tried all the following in the Match method bool contains = x.Contains(y); bool contains1 = x.IndexOf(y) != -1; bool contains2 = x.IndexOf(y, StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase) != -1; bool contains3 = x.IndexOf(y, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase) != -1; bool contains4 = x.IndexOf(y, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase) != -1; but none return true for those values, when run in the rewrite module. But they do in the unit test. So something about the strings is clearly different any ideas?

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• Mocking View with RhinoMocks

  - by blu

  We are using MVP (Supervising Controller) for ASP.NET WebForms with 3.5 SP1. What is the preferred way to check the value of a view property that only has the a set operation with RhinoMocks? Here is what we have so far: var service = MockRepository.GenerateStub<IFooService>(); // stub some data for the method used in OnLoad in the presenter var view = MockRepository.GenerateMock<IFooView>(); var presenter = new FooPresenter(view, service); view.Raise(v => v.Load += null, this, EventArgs.Empty); Assert.IsTrue(view.Bars.Count == 10); // there is no get on Bars Should we use Expects or another way, any input would be great. Thanks Update based on Darin Dimitrov's reply. var bars = new List<Bar>() { new Bar() { BarId = 1 } }; var fooService = MockRepository.GenerateStub<IFooService>(); // this is called in OnLoad in the Presenter fooService.Stub(x => x.GetBars()).Return(bars); var view = MockRepository.GenerateMock<IFooView>(); var presenter = new FooPresenter(view, fooService); view.Raise(v => v.Load += null, this, EventArgs.Empty); view.AssertWasCalled(x => x.Bars = bars); // this does not pass This doesn't work. Should I be testing it this way or is there a better way?

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