Search Results

Search found 22456 results on 899 pages for 'computer behavior'.

Page 721/899 | < Previous Page | 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728  | Next Page >

• Extremely Difficult Problem with ASP.Net 4.0 WebForms app using Routing

  - by dudeNumber4

  I have a completed app running in a QA environment. Everything works fine under most circumstances. If you hit a plain URL (no identifying information in the URL), you see an intro page with a button (generated by an asp LinkButton control) that posts back and directs you to another page. The markup looks the same when it fails and when it doesn't. When such a URL is followed from, e.g., Word and the default browser is IE, the intro page loads fine, but clicking the button causes an error. When not debugging, this behavior occurs every time. While debugging, the error occurs only ~ 1 in 10 times (closing the browser instance and starting over every time). When the error occurs, the intro page Page_Load fires and IsPostBack is false. Somehow, instead of a post, a get is being issued. When I run fiddler to try to analyze the actual calls (can't use firebug because it never happens using Firefox), everything works every time. I don't know whether this issue has anything to do with routing, and I've no idea even what to look at next. The strange thing is, when I debug, the intro page doesn't fully load every time. Only about 1 in 3 times does it fully load even if I've just cleared browser cache. When I run it through fiddler, it fully loads and works fine every time.

  Read the article

• How to delete ProgIDs from other user accounts when uninstalling from Windows?

  - by Mordachai

  I've been investigating "how should a modern windows c++ application register its file types" with Windows (see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828637/c-how-do-i-correctly-register-and-unregister-file-type-associations-for-our-ap). And having combed through the various MSDN articles on the subject, the summary appears to be as follows: The installer (elevated) should register the global ProgID HKLM\Software\Classes\my-app.my-doc[.version] (e.g. HKLM\Software\Classes\TextPad.text) The installer also configures default associations for its document types (e.g. .myext) and points this to the aforementioned global ProgID in HKLM. NOTE: a user interface should be provided here to allow the user to either accept all default associations, or to customize which associations should be set. The application, running standard (unelevated), should provide a UI for allowing the current user to set their personal associations as is available in the installer, except that these associations are stored in HKCU\Software\Classes (per user, not per machine). The UN-installer is then responsible for deleting all registered ProgIDs (but should leave the actual file associations alone, as Windows is smart enough to handle associations pointing to missing ProgIDs, and this is the specified desired behavior by MSDN). So that schema sounds reasonable to me, except when I consider #4: How does an uninstaller, running elevated for a given user account, delete any per-user ProgIDs created in step #3 for other users? As I understand things, even in elevated mode, an uninstaller cannot go into another user's registry hive and delete items? Or can it? Does it have to load each given user hive first? What are the rules here? Thanks for any insight you might have to offer! EDIT: See below for the solution (My question was founded in confusion)

  Read the article

• issue with tab bar view displaying a compound view

  - by ambertch

  I created a tab bar application, and I make the first tab a table. So I create a tableView controller, and go about setting the class identity of the view controller for the first tab to my tableView controller. This works fine, and I see the contents of the table filling up the whole screen. However, this is not what I actually want in the end goal - I would like a compound window having multiple views: - the aforementioned table - a custom view with data in it So what I do is create a nib for this content (call it contentNib), change the tab's class from the tableView controller to a generic UIViewController, and set the nib of that tab to this new contentNib. In this new contentNib I drag on a tableView and set File's Owner to the TableViewController. I then link the dataSource and delegate to file's owner (which is TableViewController). Surprisingly this does not work and I receive the error: **Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIViewController tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b0f910'** This is bewildering to me since the file's owner is the TableViewController, which has been assigned to be both the dataSource and delegate. Does someone have either insight into my confusions, or a link to an example of how to have a compound view include a tableView? *update* I see this in the Apple TableView programming guide: "Note: You should use a UIViewController subclass rather than a subclass of UITableViewController to manage a table view if the view to be managed is composed of multiple subviews, one of which is a table view. The default behavior of the UITableViewController class is to make the table view fill the screen between the navigation bar and the tab bar (if either are present)." <----- I don't really get what this is telling me to do though... if someone can explain or point me to an example I'd be much appreciated!

  Read the article

• Why is Excel's 'Evaluate' method a general expression evaluator?

  - by jtolle

  A few questions have come up recently involving the Application.Evaluate method callable from Excel VBA. The old XLM macro language also exposes an EVALUATE() function. Both can be quite useful. Does anyone know why the evaluator that is exposed can handle general expressions, though? My own hunch is that Excel needed to give people a way to get ranges from string addresses, and to get the value of named formulas, and just opening a portal to the expression evaluator was the easiest way. (The help for the VBA version does say its purpose it to "convert a Microsoft Excel name to an object or a value".) But of course you don't need the ability to evaluate arbitrary expressions just to do that. (That is, Excel could provide a Name.Evaluate method or something instead.) Application.Evaluate seems kind of...unfinished. It's full behavior isn't very well documented, and there are quite a few quirks and limitations (as described by Charles Williams here: http://www.decisionmodels.com/calcsecretsh.htm) with what is exposed. I suppose the answer could be simply "why not expose it?", but I'd be interested to know what design decisions led to this feature taking the form that it does. Failing that, I'd be interested to hear other hunches.

  Read the article

• Is NFS capable of preserving order of operations?

  - by JustJeff

  I have a diskless host 'A', that has a directory NFS mounted on server 'B'. A process on A writes to two files F1 and F2 in that directory, and a process on B monitors these files for changes. Assume that B polls for changes faster than A is expected to make them. Process A seeks the head of the files, writes data, and flushes. Process B seeks the head of the files and does reads. Are there any guarantees about how the order of the changes performed by A will be detected at B? Specifically, if A alternately writes to one file, and then the other, is it reasonable to expect that B will notice alternating changes to F1 and F2? Or could B conceivably detect a series of changes on F1 and then a series on F2? I know there are a lot of assumptions embedded in the question. For instance, I am virtually certain that, even operating on just one file, if A performs 100 operations on the file, B may see a smaller number of changes that give the same result, due to NFS caching some of the actions on A before they are communicated to B. And of course there would be issues with concurrent file access even if NFS weren't involved and both the reading and the writing process were running on the same real file system. The reason I'm even putting the question up here is that it seems like most of the time, the setup described above does detect the changes at B in the same order they are made at A, but that occasionally some events come through in transposed order. So, is it worth trying to make this work? Is there some way to tune NFS to make it work, perhaps cache settings or something? Or is fine-grained behavior like this just too much expect from NFS?

  Read the article

• Hibernate Session flush behaviour [ and Spring @Transactional ]

  - by EugeneP

  I use Spring and Hibernate in a web-app, SessionFactory is injected into a DAO bean, and then this DAO is used in a Servlet through webservicecontext. DAO methods are transactional, inside one of the methods I use ... getCurrentSession().save(myObject); One servlet calls this method with an object passed. The update seems to not be flushed at once, it takes about 5 seconds to see the changes in the database. The servlet's method in which that DAO's update method is called, takes a fraction of second to complete. After the @Transactional method of DAO is completed, flushing may NOT happen ? It does not seem to be a rule [ I already see it ]. Then the question is this: what to do to force the session to flush after every DAO method? It may not be a good thing to do, but talking about a Service layer, some methods must end with immediate flush, and Hibernate Session behavior is not predictable. So what to do to guarantee that my @Transactional method persists all the changes after the last line of that method code? getCurrentSession().flush() is the only solution? p.s. I read somewhere that @Transactional IS ASSOCIATED with a DB Transaction. Method returns, transaction must be committed. I do not see this happens.

  Read the article

• Using a single texture image unit with multiple sampler uniforms

  - by bcrist

  I am writing a batching system which tracks currently bound textures in order to avoid unnecessary glBindTexture() calls. I'm not sure if I need to keep track of which textures have already been used by a particular batch so that if a texture is used twice, it will be bound to a different TIU for the second sampler which requires it. Is it acceptable for an OpenGL application to use the same texture image unit for multiple samplers within the same shader stage? What about samplers in different shader stages? For example: Fragment shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; uniform sampler2D samp2; void main() { ... } Main program: ... glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex_id); glUniform1i(samp1_location, 0); glUniform1i(samp2_location, 0); ... I don't see any reason why this shouldn't work, but what about if the shader program also included a vertex shader like this: Vertex shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; void main() { ... } In this case, OpenGL is supposed to treat both instances of samp1 as the same variable, and exposes a single location for them. Therefore, the same texture unit is being used in the vertex and fragment shaders. I have read that using the same texture in two different shader stages counts doubly against GL_MAX_COMBINED_TEXTURE_IMAGE_UNITS but this would seem to contradict that. In a quick test on my hardware (HD 6870), all of the following scenarios worked as expected: 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms in same shader stage 1 TIU used for 1 sampler uniform which is used in 2 shader stages 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms, each occurring in a different stage. However, I don't know if this is behavior that I should expect on all hardware/drivers, or if there are performance implications.

  Read the article

• OnEditorActionListener called twice with same eventTime on SenseUI keyboard

  - by ydant

  On just one phone I am testing on (HTC Incredible, Android 2.2, Software 3.21.605.1), I am experiencing the following behavior. The onEditorAction event handler is being called twice (immediately) when the Enter key on the Sense UI keyboard is pressed. The KeyEvent.getEventTime() is the same for both times the event is called, leading me to this work-around: protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { [...] EditText text = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.txtBox); text.setOnEditorActionListener(new OnEditorActionListener() { private long lastCalled = -1; public boolean onEditorAction(TextView v, int actionId, KeyEvent event) { if ( event.getEventTime() == lastCalled ) { return false; } else { lastCalled = event.getEventTime(); handleNextButton(v); return true; } } }); [...] } The EditText is defined as: <EditText android:layout_width="150sp" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/txtBox" android:imeOptions="actionNext" android:capitalize="characters" android:singleLine="true" android:inputType="textVisiblePassword|textCapCharacters|textNoSuggestions" android:autoText="false" android:editable="true" android:maxLength="6" /> On all other devices I've tested on, the action button is properly labeled "Next" and the event is only called a single time when that button is pressed. Is this a bug in Sense UI's keyboard, or am I doing something incorrectly? Thank you for any assistance.

  Read the article

• If Statements Skipping or Evaluating Strangely, JavaScript and jquery

  - by tlm2021

  So in jQuery, I have a global variable "currentSubNav" that stores a current visible element. The following code executes on "mouseenter". I need it to get store element's ID, check to see if there was one. If there wasn't, set the new visible element to the default. $('#mainMenu a').mouseenter(function() { var newName = $(this).attr("id"); if(newName == ''){ var newName = "default"; } Then it checks to see if the new element matches the current one. If so, it returns. If not, it performs the animations to bring in the new one. if(newName == currentSubNav){ return; }else{ $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "+=600px", "opacity": "toggle"}, "slow"); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").css({"margin-top": "0"}); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").fadeIn(2000); $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "-=600px"}, 0); currentSubNav = newName; return; } }); I'm using Chrome at the moment, and according to the dev tools that isn't what happens. Problem #1 "$(this).attr("id");" isn't returning undefined as the documentation claims. It seems to be returning "". BUT, when I have the if statement as I do above, it skips over the statement entirely. I set a breakpoint, but it never pauses execuation, so the statement is never evaluated. Problem #2 After the animations occur, instead of using the return at the end of the statements it goes back and uses the return for the "newName == currentSubNav" if statement. I guess that not a big deal, but it's not the intended behavior. I'm fairly new to JavaScript, and it appears I'm missing something about how JavaScript works. But I can't find what anywhere. Any help? Blockquote

  Read the article

• iPhone SDK: problem managing orientation with multiple view controllers.

  - by Tom

  I'm trying to build an iPhone application that has two subviews in the main window. Each view has its own UIViewController subclass associated with it. Also, within each controller's implementation, I've added the following method: -(BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation: (UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } Thus, I would expect both of the views to respond to changes in orientation. However, this is not the case. Only the first view added to the app's main window responds to orientation. (If I swap the order the views are added, then only the other view responds. In other words, either will work--but only one at a time.) Why is this? Is it not possible to handle the orientation changes of more than one view? Thanks! EDIT: Someone else had this question, so I'm copying my solution here: I was able to address this issue by providing a root view and a root view controller with the method "shouldAutoRotate..." and adding my other views as subviews to the root view. The subviews inherit the auto-rotating behavior, and their associated view controllers shouldn't need to override "shouldAutoRotate..."

  Read the article

• Time fields in Rails coming back blank

  - by Isaac Cambron

  I have a simple Rails 3.b1 (Ruby 1.9.1) application running on Sqlite3. I have this table: create_table :time_tests do |t| t.time :time end And I see this behavior: irb(main):001:0> tt = TimeTest.new => #<TimeTest id: nil, time: nil> irb(main):002:0> tt.time = Time.zone.now => Mon, 03 May 2010 20:13:21 UTC +00:00 irb(main):003:0> tt.save => true irb(main):004:0> TimeTest.find(:first) => #<TimeTest id: 1, time: "2000-01-01 20:13:21"> So, the time is coming back blank. Checking the table, the data looks OK: sqlite> select * from time_tests; 1|2010-05-03 20:13:21.774741 I guess it's on the retrieval part? What's going on here?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC3 ValueProvider drops string input to a double property

  - by Daniel Koverman

  I'm attempting to validate the input of a text box which corresponds to a property of type double in my model. If the user inputs "foo" I want to know about it so I can display an error. However, the ValueProvider is dropping the value silently (no errors are added to the ModelState). In a normal submission, I fill in "2" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submit the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=2, among other correct inputs. bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == 2, as expected. The bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 6 and bindingContext.ModelState["myDouble"].Errors.Count == 0. Everything is good and the model binds as expected. Then I fill in "foo" for the text box corresponding to myDouble and submitted the form. Inspecting controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form shows that myDouble=foo, which is what I expected. However, bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("myDouble") == null and bindingContext.ModelState.Count == 5 (The exact number isn't important, but it's one less than before). Looking at the ValueProvider, is as if myDouble was never submitted and the model binding occurs as if it wasn't. This makes it difficult to differentiate between a bad input and no input. Is this the expected behavior of ValueProvider? Is there a way to get ValueProvider to report when conversion fails without implementing a custom ValueProvider? Thanks!

  Read the article

• SYN receives RST,ACK very frequently

  - by user1289508

  Hi Socket Programming experts, I am writing a proxy server on Linux for SQL Database server running on Windows. The proxy is coded using bsd sockets and in C, and it is working just fine. When I use a database client (written in JAVA, and running on a Linux box) to fire queries (with a concurrency of 100 or more) directly to the Database server, not experiencing connection resets. But through my proxy I am experiencing many connection resets. Digging deeper I came to know that connection from 'DB client' to 'Proxy' always succeeds but when the 'Proxy' tries to connect to the DB server the connection fails, due to the SYN packet getting RST,ACK. That was to give some background. The question is : Why does sometimes SYN receives RST,ACK? 'DB client(linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ---- Works fine 'DB client(linux) to 'Proxy(Linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ----- problematic I am aware that this can happen in "connection refused" case but this definitely is not that one. SYN flooding might be another scenario, but that does not explain fine behavior while firing to Server directly. I am suspecting some socket option setting may be required, that the client does before connecting and my proxy does not. Please put some light on this. Any help (links or pointers) is most appreciated. Additional info: Wrote a C client that does concurrent connections, which takes concurrency as an argument. Here are my observations: - At 5000 concurrency and above, some connects failed with 'connection refused'. - Below 2000, it works fine. But the actual problem is observed even at a concurrency of 100 or more. Note: The problem is time dependent sometimes it never comes at all and sometimes it is very frequent and DB client (directly to server) works fine at all times .

  Read the article

• Why is T() = T() allowed?

  - by Rimo

  I believe the expression T() creates an rvalue (by the Standard). However, the following code compiles (at least on gcc4.0): class T {}; int main() { T() = T(); } I know technically this is possible because member functions can be invoked on temporaries and the above is just invoking the operator= on the rvalue temporary created from the first T(). But conceptually this is like assigning a new value to an rvalue. Is there a good reason why this is allowed? Edit: The reason I find this odd is it's strictly forbidden on built-in types yet allowed on user-defined types. For example, int(2) = int(3) won't compile because that is an "invalid lvalue in assignment". So I guess the real question is, was this somewhat inconsistent behavior built into the language for a reason? Or is it there for some historical reason? (E.g it would be conceptually more sound to allow only const member functions to be invoked on rvalue expressions, but that cannot be done because that might break some existing code.)

  Read the article

• Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

  - by StackedCrooked

  Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

  Read the article

• Why <textarea> and <textfield> not taking font-family and font-size from body?

  - by metal-gear-solid

  Why Textarea and textfield not taking font-family and font-size from body? See live example here http://jsbin.com/ucano4 Code <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>texearea font</title> <style type="text/css"> body { font-family: Verdana, Geneva, sans-serif; font-size:16px } </style> </head> <body> <form action="" method="get"> <textarea name="" cols="20" rows="4"></textarea> <input name="" type="text" /> </form> <p>some text here</p> </body> </html> If it's a usual behavior then should i write in css like this. i need same style in all body,textarea,input { font-family: Verdana, Geneva, sans-serif; font-size:16px } And how many other elements in XHTML which will not take font styling from body {....}?

  Read the article

• Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

  - by The Demigeek

  I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

  Read the article

• Wicket: Where to add components? Constructor? Or onBeforeRender?

  - by gmallett

  I'm a Wicket newb. This may just be my ignorance of the Wicket lifecycle so please enlighten me! My understanding is that Wicket WebPage objects are instantiated once and then serialized. This has led to a point of confusion for me, see below. Currently I have a template class which I intend to subclass. I followed the example in the Wicket docs demonstrating how to override the template's behavior in the subclass: protected void onBeforeRender() { add(new Label("title", getTitle())); super.onBeforeRender(); } protected String getTitle() { return "template"; } Subclass: protected String getTitle() { return "Home"; } This works very well. What's not clear to me are the "best practices" for this. It seems like onBeforeRender() is called on every request for the page, no? This seems like there would be substantially more processing done on a page if everything is in onBeforeRender(). I could easily follow the example of the other Wicket examples and add some components in the constructor that I do not want to override, but then I've divided by component logic into two places, something I'm hesitant to do. If I add a component that I intend to be in all subclasses, should I add it to the constructor or onBeforeRender()?

  Read the article

• [IE6] Cannot upload non-existent file

  - by geff_chang

  I am asking the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/691323/trying-to-upload-a-non-existent-file-in-internet-explorer-form-is-not-submitted I'm not sure if the topic starter found a solution, since he did not post the answer. So, I'd like to ask you guys this question again. I have type=input in my form, and a submit button. If I type garbage input into the textbox (like the text "abc") in the file control's textbox, and click the submit button, the form is not submitted to the server. AND, no feedback is given to the user. Instead of this "Is-the-submit-button-broken?" behavior, is there a way I could notify the user that the file does not exist? (I am aware this is not possible, except with ActiveX, but I don't want to go into that) My client wants to hide the textbox of the file control, but I'm not sure if this is a good design. What do you guys suggest? (If it makes any difference, I am also using this jquery plugin: http://www.fyneworks.com/jquery/multiple-file-upload/)

  Read the article

• Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

  - by Kettch19

  I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

  Read the article

• JavaScript for loop index strangeness

  - by pythonBOI

  I'm relatively new to JS so this may be a common problem, but I noticed something strange when dealing with for loops and the onclick function. I was able to replicate the problem with this code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function () { var buttons = document.getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var i=0; i<2; i++) { buttons[i].onclick = function () { alert(i); return false; } } } </script> </head> <body> <a href="">hi</a> <br /> <a href="">bye</a> </body> </html> When clicking the links I would expect to get '0' and '1', but instead I get '2' for both of them. Why is this? BTW, I managed to solve my particular problem by using the 'this' keyword, but I'm still curious as to what is behind this behavior.

  Read the article

• HABTM selection seemingly ignores joinTable

  - by TheCapn

  I'm attempting to do a HABTM relationship between a Users table and Groups table. The problem is, that I when I issue this call: $this->User->Group->find('list'); The query that is issued is: SELECT [Group].[id] AS [Group__id], [Group].[name] AS [Group__name] FROM [groups] AS [Group] WHERE 1 = 1 I can only assume at this point that I have defined my relationship wrong as I would expect behavior to use the groups_users table that is defined on the database as per convention. My relationships: class User extends AppModel { var $name = 'User'; //...snip... var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Group' => array( 'className' => 'Group', 'foreignKey' => 'user_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'group_id', 'joinTable' => 'groups_users', 'unique' => true, ) ); //...snip... } class Group extends AppModel { var $name = 'Group'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array ( 'User' => array( 'className' => 'User', 'foreignKey' => 'group_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'user_id', 'joinTable' => 'groups_users', 'unique' => true, )); } Is my understanding of HABTM wrong? How would I implement this Many to Many relationship where I can use CakePHP to query the groups_users table such that a list of groups the currently authenticated user is associated with is returned?

  Read the article

• Criteria for triggering garbage collection in .Net

  - by Kennet Belenky

  I've come across some curious behavior with regard to garbage collection in .Net. The following program will throw an OutOfMemoryException very quickly (after less than a second on a 32-bit, 2GB machine). The Foo finalizer is never called. class Foo { static Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference> allFoos = new Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference>(); Guid guid = Guid.NewGuid(); byte[] buffer = new byte[1000000]; static Random rand = new Random(); public Foo() { // Uncomment the following line and the program will run forever. // rand.NextBytes(buffer); allFoos[guid] = new WeakReference(this); } ~Foo() { allFoos.Remove(guid); } static public void Main(string args[]) { for (; ; ) { new Foo(); } } } If the rand.nextBytes line is uncommented, it will run ad infinitum, and the Foo finalizer is regularly invoked. Why is that? My best guess is that in the former case, either the CLR or the Windows VMM is lazy about allocating physical memory. The buffer never gets written to, so the physical memory is never used. When the address space runs out, the system crashes. In the latter case, the system runs out of physical memory before it runs out of address space, the GC is triggered and the objects are collected. However, here's the part I don't get. Assuming my theory is correct, why doesn't the GC trigger when the address space runs low? If my theory is incorrect, then what's the real explanation?

  Read the article

• RichTextBox text is not shown C#

  - by user271077

  using richtextbox control programatically i'm appending text to the richtextbox . richTextBox1.AppendText("hello"); somehow the text appears in the richTextBox1.Text but is not shown in the form. any idea of what might be the problem? (I checked the forecolor seems ok). Thanks in advance Edit: found the root cause (had by mistake the initializeComponent() twice. ) private void InitializeComponent() { this.richTextBox1 = new System.Windows.Forms.RichTextBox(); this.SuspendLayout(); // // richTextBox1 // this.richTextBox1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(114, 104); this.richTextBox1.Name = "richTextBox1"; this.richTextBox1.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(100, 96); this.richTextBox1.TabIndex = 0; this.richTextBox1.Text = ""; // // Form1 // this.AutoScaleDimensions = new System.Drawing.SizeF(6F, 13F); this.AutoScaleMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoScaleMode.Font; this.ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(284, 262); this.Controls.Add(this.richTextBox1); this.Name = "Form1"; this.Text = "Form1"; this.Load += new System.EventHandler(this.Form1_Load); this.ResumeLayout(false); } public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { richTextBox1.AppendText("hello world"); }` but still curious about why did this cause this weird behavior?

  Read the article

• Why can't multiple programmatically generated FilteringSelect's share a single store?

  - by yarmiganosca

  Before you ask, a MultiSelect wouldn't really be intuitive for the user in this instance. I have an object, with an array as its value for 'items', that's provided on the page in a var statement. I also have a function that generates and places dijit.form.FilteringSelects and is triggered on a certain button's click event. Every one of these selects should have the aformentioned object as their 'store' attribute. If I write store: new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({ data: object_name }), in my select initialization code, I get weird behavior: I click the generate button 2 times and get 2 FilteringSelects (call them A,B). I click on B's dropdown piece, and the menu appears attached to B. Then I click on A's dropdown button, and menu appears attached to A. If I then go back and click on B's dropdown button again, nothing happens (well not nothing; an error gets thrown). However, if instead, I have data: {items: array_literal} everything works fine, and I switch back and forth between the 2 as much as I want. As the data: statement appears once in the javascript code, this isn't a big deal (now that I have a workaround at least). It is however, exceedingly odd. I attempted to dig into the source code, to no avail.Anybody have any idea what's going on here?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728  | Next Page >