Search Results

Search found 19788 results on 792 pages for 'remote host'.

Page 721/792 | < Previous Page | 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728  | Next Page >

  • Coldfusion 8 and HTTP PUT - is there a way to PUT an object?

    - by ciaranarcher
    Hi all We are using EHCache with CF 8 to cache stuff on a central server using a RESTful interface over HTTP. I am trying to cache a cfquery object to the cache server. I can get this to work if I call EHCache direct (i.e. store it in a local cache) but if I try to cache on a remote server over HTTP I am running into problems. The code I am using is as follows: <cfhttp url="http://localhost:8080/myCache/myKey" method="put" result="r" timeout="2" throwonerror="true" > <cfhttpparam type="body" value="#ARGUMENTS.item#" /> </cfhttp> CF doesn't like this reference to #ARGUMENTS.item# and it complains Complex object types cannot be converted to simple values. Can anyone give me an example of how to put an object over http using CF? If this is not possible with CF then a Java example would be the next best thing. Many thanks in advance! PS: I do not want to use serialization to text/JSON etc. as this approach has issues with data integrity and most importantly it's not fast enough.

    Read the article

  • Why can’t I create a database in an empty ASP MVC 2 project using Project->Add->New Item->SQL Server

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving head first into ASP MVC and am playing around with creating and manipulating a database. I did a search and found this tutorial for creating a database, however when I follow it, I get this error right at the start when trying to add a new database to my fresh, empty ASP MVC 2 project... A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) The only requirement the tutorial mentioned was SQL Server Express, but when I went to download it, it said it was already installed. I'm assuming it was part of the VS 2010 RC I installed and am running. So I don't know what else I need if I am missing something. This is all new to me, so I'm sure I'm missing something obvious here and after I'm done posting this question, I plan to do some more research into the topic of databases and how they work with ASP MVC. In the meantime, I was you could help me answer a couple high level questions... What am I missing/forgetting to do that is causing this error? Any suggestions for good resources/tutorials that focus on using databases with ASP MVC? I've done a lot of database programming in the past, so I'm familiar with the concepts of relational databases and the SQL language. I wish I could find a good resource for learning how to work with them in an ASP dev environment, as well as a good breakdown of all the related technologies used for working with them (i.e. LINQ to SQL). Thanks so much in advance for all your help! I'm going to start researching these questions right now.

    Read the article

  • How do I format a Uri when binding an Image in Silverlight?

    - by Scott
    I haven't been able to find an answer to this. I have a database that has image paths in it ("images/myimage.jpg"). These images exist on my asp.net site which is also where I host the SL. I want to bind these images to my ListBox control so that the image displays. I have read that since I have a string value, "images/myimage.jpg", that I need to convert it to a BitMap image. I have done this: the xaml: <Image Source="{Binding ImageFile, Converter={StaticResource ImageConverter}}"/> the ImageConverter class: public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { try { Uri source= new Uri(value.ToString()); return new BitmapImage(source); } catch(Exception ex) { return new BitmapImage(); } } I get an error when creating the Uri, "The Format of the URI could not be determined". What am I doing wrong? If I create a Uri that looks like this: http://localhost:49723/images/myimage.jpg, it works just fine. Why doesn't just "images/myimage.jpg" work?

    Read the article

  • Releasing from development into production in maven

    - by Bruce
    Hi all, I'm confused about the use of maven in development and production environments - I'm sure it's something simple that I'm missing. Grateful for any help.. I set up maven inside eclipse on my local machine and wrote some software. I really like how it's made things like including dependent jars very easy. So that's my development environment. But now I want to release the project to production on a remote server. I've searched the documentation, but I can't figure out how it's supposed to work or what the maven best practice is.. Are you supposed to: a) Also be running maven on your production environment, and upload all your files to your production environment and rebuild your project there? (Something in me baulks at the idea of rebuilding 'released' code on the production server, so I'm fairly sure this isn't right..) b) use mvn:package to create your jar file and then copy that up to production? (But then what of all those nice dependencies? Isn't there a danger that your tested code is now going to be running against different versions of the dependent jars in the production environment, possibly breaking your code? Or missing a jar..?) c) Something else that I'm not figuring out.. Thanks in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • How do i close a socket after a timeout in node.js?

    - by rramsden
    I'm trying to close a socket after a connection times out after 1000ms. I am able to set a timeout that gets triggered after a 1000ms but I can't seem to destroy the socket... any ideas? var connection = http.createClient(80, 'localhost'); var request = connection.request('GET', '/somefile.xml', {'host':'localhost'}); var start = new Date().getTime(); request.socket.setTimeout(1000); request.socket.addListener("timeout", function() { request.socket.destroy(); sys.puts("socket timeout connection closed"); }); request.addListener("response", function(response) { var responseBody = []; response.setEncoding("utf8"); response.addListener("data", function(chunk) { sys.puts(chunk); responseBody.push(chunk); }); response.addListener("end", function() { }); }); request.end(); returns socket timeout connection closed node.js:29 if (!x) throw new Error(msg || "assertion error"); ^ Error: assertion error at node.js:29:17 at Timer.callback (net:152:20) at node.js:204:9

    Read the article

  • Returning two or more values from a function

    - by cf_PhillipSenn
    I need to return multiple values from a ColdFusion function in an ajax callback function. Here's what I've got: $('input[name="StateName"]').live('change', function() { var StateID = $(this).parents('tr').attr('id'); var StateName = $(this).val(); $.ajax({ url: 'Remote/State.cfc' ,type: "POST" ,data: { 'method': 'UpdateStateName' ,'StateID': StateID ,'StateName': StateName } ,success: function(result){ if (isNaN(result)) { $('#msg').text(result).addClass('err'); } else { $('#' + result + ' input[name="StateName"]').addClass('changed'); }; } ,error: function(msg){ $('#msg').text('Connection error').addClass('err'); } }); }); If I trap a database error, then the success callback is fired, and the result is Not a Number (It is in fact, the text of the error message). I need the function to also pass back other values. One might be the primary key of the row that caused the error. Another might be the old StateName, so that I can refresh the old value on the screen so that the client will know absolutely for sure that their change did not take effect. I guess I'm breaking the rule of atomicity here and need to fix that, because I'm using result as both the primary key of the row that was updated, or it's the error message if the update fails. I need to return both the primary key and the error message.

    Read the article

  • Changing the href attribute on hover with jQuery

    - by AverageJoe
    Ok, I have an html page that is loaded into another html page via PHP (ok so its a PHP page, whatever). The page that is loaded is a list of hyperlinks. I need to change the href attribute to make the hyperlinks relative to the location of the stored images they refer too. When i load the page containing the hyperlinks the links are relative to the web host server, not the server that the page is actually hosted from. Somthing like this: <div #screenshots) <p><a href="image1.htm">Image1</a></p> <p><a href="image2.htm">Image2</a></p> <p><a href="image3.htm">Image3</a></p> <p><a href="image4.htm">Image4</a></p> <p><a href="image5.htm">Image5</a></p> </div> When I mouse over the links, the status bar shows the reference as "http://webHostServer.com/image1.htm". If I click it I get a 404 error. I need the href to change to something like this when I mouse over it: "http://www.actualImageHostServerIPaddress/image1.htm" I looked at this for assitance and came out with the following jQuery code, but for some reason none of it works: $(document).ready(function(){ $("button").click(function() { $("#screenshots a").addClass('ss'); }); $(".ss").each(function() { $(this).data("oldHref", $(this).attr("href")); orig = $(this).attr("href"); over = "http://208.167.244.33/208.167.244.33/"; $(this).hover(function() { $(this).attr("href", $(this).attr("href").replace(orig, over+orig)); }, function() { $(this).attr("href", $(this).data("oldHref")); }); }); When I click the button it dosen't add the class to the anchor tags, so when I hover over them nothing changes. Any help here would be great.

    Read the article

  • Service behavior not being applied correctly

    - by Rubans
    I have a custom behavior for a service where I want to specify a receive timeout value, I have created a behavior and on the build service header. I use the declarative attribute to apply the behavior or as I thought. But the behavior seems to make no difference, i.e. the set timeout value is not being applied as expected. However when I have noticed the behavior is only being applied when the host is opened rather than when created. The same behavior when applied explicitly through does work. Any ideas? Behavior: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class)] public class BuildServiceBindingBehavior : Attribute, IServiceBehavior { public BuildServiceBindingBehavior( string p_receiveTime ) { ReceiveTimeout = TimeSpan.Parse( p_receiveTime ); } #region IServiceBehavior Members public void AddBindingParameters( ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase, System.Collections.ObjectModel.Collection<ServiceEndpoint> endpoints, System.ServiceModel.Channels.BindingParameterCollection bindingParameters ) { } public void ApplyDispatchBehavior( ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase ) { // add this behavior to each endpoint foreach ( var endPoint in serviceDescription.Endpoints ) { endPoint.Binding.ReceiveTimeout = ReceiveTimeout; } } public void Validate( ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase ) { } #endregion internal TimeSpan ReceiveTimeout { get; set; } } Service code: [ServiceBehavior(Name = "DotNetBuildsService", InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Single )] // Set receieve time out [BuildServiceBindingBehavior( "0:0:1" )] public class BuildService : IBuildTasksService { //implementation code }

    Read the article

  • Error: 'Sys' is undefined

    - by thegunner
    Hi, When I moved my website over to another server I've noticed now that ajax doesn't appear to be working. When I remote desktop to the server and go to the url on the server i.e. http://myserver/mywebsite ... everything works ok. When I open up the website in visual studio on the server it works as no problem as well. It's only when I connect remotely that the 'javascript' error occurs. To my web.config I've added: <httpHandlers> <remove verb="*" path="*.asmx"/> <add verb="*" path="*.asmx" validate="false" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" validate="false" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" validate="false"/> </httpHandlers> <httpModules> <add name="ScriptModule" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </httpModules> I've tried <compilation debug="false"/> and tried emptying web history and still no luck. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Will WCF allow me to use object references across boundries on objects that implement INotifyPropert

    - by zimmer62
    So I've created a series of objects that interact with a piece of hardware over a serial port. There is a thread running monitoring the serial port, and if the state of the hardware changes it updates properties in my objects. I'm using observable collections, and INotifyPropertyChanged. I've built a UI in WPF and it works great, showing me real time updating when the hardware changes and allows me to send changes to the hardware as well by changing these properties using bindings. What I'm hoping is that I can run the UI on a different machine than what the hardware is hooked up to without a lot of wiring up of events. Possibly even allow multiple UI's to connect to the same service and interact with this hardware. So far I understand I'm going to need to create a WCF service. I'm trying to figure out if I'll be able to pass a reference to an object created at the service to the client leaving events intact. So that the UI will really just be bound to a remote object. Am I moving the right direction with WCF? Also I see tons of examples for WCF in C#, are there any good practical use examples in VB that might be along the lines of what I'm trying to do?

    Read the article

  • Nginx Rails app can't deploy

    - by user3596718
    I have an issue with my rails application running with passenger and nginx hosted in Ubuntu 12.04. In the nginx.conf file below, my "example.com" (Regular HTML) and "redmine.example.com" (Rails app) are working perfectly, but my "crete.example.com" (Another Rails app) is showing "502 bad gateway". I have them both hosted in /var/data with the same permissions and ownerships, also tried different ports, I can't think of something else to try. worker_processes 1; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { passenger_root /usr/lib/ruby/vendor_ruby/phusion_passenger/locations.ini; include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; sendfile on; keepalive_timeout 65; server{ listen 80; server_name example.com; root /opt/nginx/html; } server{ server_name redmine.example.com; root /var/data/redmine/public; passenger_enabled on; location ~ ^/<SUBURI>(/.*|$){ alias /var/data/redmine/public$1; passenger_base_uri /redmine; passenger_app_root /var/data/redmine; passenger_document_root /var/data/redmine/public; passenger_enabled on;} } server{ server_name crete.example.com; root /var/data/crete/public; passenger_enabled on; location ~ ^/<SUBURI>(/.*|$){ alias /var/data/crete/public$1; passenger_base_uri /crete; passenger_app_root /var/data/crete; passenger_document_root /var/data/crete/public; passenger_enabled on;} } } This are my Ruby and Rails versions: ruby 2.0.0p451 (2014-02-24 revision 45167) [x86_64-linux] Rails 4.1.0 My nginx error.log 2014/05/02 12:29:50 [error] 3343#0: *4 upstream prematurely closed connection while reading response header from upstream, client: xxx.xx.xx.xx, server: crete.example.com, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", upstream: "passenger:/tmp/passenger.1.0.3 323/generation-0/request:", host: "crete.example.com" Any other conf file you might need to solve this don't hesitate to ask.

    Read the article

  • Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in

    - by user1493540
    <html> <title>Title</title> <body> <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="css/bootstrap.css"/> </body> <center> <? mysql_connect ("localhost", "root","") or die (mysql_error()); mysql_select_db ("dbname"); $term = $_POST['term']; $sql = mysql_query("select * from items where name like '%$term%'"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($sql)){ echo '<table class="table - striped"> <theader> <tr> <th>ID</th> <th></br> Name</th></tr>'; echo ' <tbody><td>'.$row['id']; echo'</td>'; echo '<td>'; echo '</theader>' .$row['name']; echo '</td>'; echo ''; } ?> </center> <script src="js/bootsrap.js"> </script> </html> I'm, getting this error: Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in /home/runedev1/public_html/itemdb/search.php on line 19 When I run the code on localhost using Xampp, it works fine, when I upload it to the web-host, the error appears. Yes, I am changing the database name, user and password when putting it on the webhost.

    Read the article

  • PHP - complete url parser help

    - by Mark
    I have been trying to find an effective url parser, php's own does not include subdomain or extension. On php.net a number of users had contributed and made this: function parseUrl($url) { $r = "^(?:(?P<scheme>\w+)://)?"; $r .= "(?:(?P<login>\w+):(?P<pass>\w+)@)?"; $r .= "(?P<host>(?:(?P<subdomain>[-\w\.]+)\.)?" . "(?P<domain>[-\w]+\.(?P<extension>\w+)))"; $r .= "(?::(?P<port>\d+))?"; $r .= "(?P<path>[\w/]*/(?P<file>\w+(?:\.\w+)?)?)?"; $r .= "(?:\?(?P<arg>[\w=&]+))?"; $r .= "(?:#(?P<anchor>\w+))?"; $r = "!$r!"; // Delimiters preg_match ( $r, $url, $out ); return $out; } Unfortunately it fails on paths with a '-' and I can't for the life of me workout how to amend it to accept '-' in the path name. Thanks

    Read the article

  • New user register, script auto create problems!

    - by SKY
    Hi, im currently trying to create a php script that when a new user register, a script (eg:wordpress,blog etc..) will install for them. I'm currently got the code below for just single setup, but how can i setup a form for multi user? which only allowing them to input the username (subdomain) and password. <?php class scriptname_Config { public static $title = 'new_script_title'; // Domain name and path where new script will installed in public static $domain = 'username.domain.com'; public static $absolutePath = '/new_register_username/'; // Settings for general mysql database public static $db = array( 'host' => 'localhost', 'database' => 'scriptname', 'user' => 'root', 'password' => '', 'prefix' => 'scriptname_' ); } define( 'scriptname_BASE_URL', 'http://'.scriptname_Config::$domain.scriptname_Config::$absolutePath ); ?> Or any tutorial that will help is appreciate! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Any techniques to interrupt, kill, or otherwise unwind (releasing synchronization locks) a single de

    - by gojomo
    I have a long-running process where, due to a bug, a trivial/expendable thread is deadlocked with a thread which I would like to continue, so that it can perform some final reporting that would be hard to reproduce in another way. Of course, fixing the bug for future runs is the proper ultimate resolution. Of course, any such forced interrupt/kill/stop of any thread is inherently unsafe and likely to cause other unpredictable inconsistencies. (I'm familiar with all the standard warnings and the reasons for them.) But still, since the only alternative is to kill the JVM process and go through a more lengthy procedure which would result in a less-complete final report, messy/deprecated/dangerous/risky/one-time techniques are exactly what I'd like to try. The JVM is Sun's 1.6.0_16 64-bit on Ubuntu, and the expendable thread is waiting-to-lock an object monitor. Can an OS signal directed to an exact thread create an InterruptedException in the expendable thread? Could attaching with gdb, and directly tampering with JVM data or calling JVM procedures allow a forced-release of the object monitor held by the expendable thread? Would a Thread.interrupt() from another thread generate a InterruptedException from the waiting-to-lock frame? (With some effort, I can inject an arbitrary beanshell script into the running system.) Can the deprecated Thread.stop() be sent via JMX or any other remote-injection method? Any ideas appreciated, the more 'dangerous', the better! And, if your suggestion has worked in personal experience in a similar situation, the best!

    Read the article

  • AJAX/JSONP Question. Access id denied using IE while requesting corss domain.

    - by Sisir
    Ok, Here we go. I have already searched the Stack for the answer i have found some useful info but i want to clear up some more things. I also search the net for the answer but no real help. I have worked with some api (yelp, ouside.in). In yelp i use to inject the script to head with the url request to the api with a callback funcion. I worked fine in all browsers. But while using outside.in api when i call the url the callback in not working. In yelp they have a url field can be used like that callback=callbackfuncion so the callback will automatically called. But in outside.in there is not such field available. Is there are any standard command for callback function which will work regardless of any server/api? I also tried a standard ajax request using jQuery $.ajax() function. It worked for my local pc for both IE and other browser but did not working in IE showing the error: access denied, other borwser seems ok. Firebug in my FF also don't notice any errors. Outside.in has an javascript example but it is too hard to me to understand github.com/outsidein/api-examples/tree/master/javascript/browser/ site i am working: http://citystir.com yelp: yelp.com outside.in: outside.in Techniqual info: i am using: wampserver in local, wordpress for hosting, Godaddy, apache for remote with linux. Codes: Using Jquery $.ajax url is like: "http://hyperlocal-api.outside.in/v1.1/states/Illinois/cities/chicago/stories?dev_key="+key+"&sig="+signeture+"&limit=3 function makeOutsideRequest(url){ $.ajax({ url: url, dataType: 'json', type: 'GET', success: function (data, status, xhr) { if (data == null) { alert("An error occurred connecting to " + url + ". Please ensure that the server is running and configured to allow cross-origin requests."); }else{ printHomeNews(data); } }, error: function (xhr, status, error) { alert("An error occurred - check the server log for a stack trace."); } }); } Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Is this a situation where I should "hg push -f"?

    - by user144182
    I have two machines, A and B that both access an external hg repository. I did some development on A, wasn't ready to push changesets to the external, and needed to switch machines, so I pushed the changesets to B using hg serve. Changesets continued on B, were committed and then pushed to external repo. I then pulled on A and updated to default/tip. This left the local changesets that had previously been pushed to B as a branch, but because of how I pushed things around, the changes in the local changesets are already in default/tip. I've now continued to make changes and commit locally on A, but when I try to push hg asks me to merge or do push -f instead. I know push -f is almost never recommended. This situation is close to one where I should use rebase, however the changesets that would be "rebased" I don't really need locally or in the external repository since they are already effectively in default/tip via the push to B. Now, I know I could merge with the latest local changeset and just discard the changes, but then I would still have to commit the merge which gets me back into rebase territory. Is this a case where I could do hg push -f? Also, why would pushing from A create remote heads if I've updated to default/tip before I continued to commit changesets?

    Read the article

  • How can I parse_url in PHP when there is a URL in a string variable?

    - by Eric O
    I am admittedly a PHP newbie, so I need some help. I am creating a self-designed affiliate program for my site and have the option for an affiliate to add a SubID to their link for tracking. Without having control over what is entered, I have been testing different scenarios and found a bug when a full URL is entered (i.e. "http://example.com"). In my PHP I can grab the variable from the string no problem. My problem comes from when I get the referring URL and parse it (since I need to parse the referring URL to get the host mane for other uses). Code below: $refURL = getenv("HTTP_REFERER"); $parseRefURL = parse_url($refURL); WORKS when incoming link is (for example): http://example.com/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=www.test.com ERROR when incoming link is (notice the addition of "http://" after "sid="): http://example.com/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=http://www.test.com Here is the warning message: Warning: parse_url(/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=http://www.test.com) [function.parse-url]: Unable to parse url in /home4/'directory'/public_html/hosterdoodle/header.php on line 28 Any ideas on how to keep the parse-url function from being thrown off when someone may decide to place a URL in a variable? (I actually tested this problem down to the point that it will throw the error with as little as ":/" in the variable)

    Read the article

  • Concurrent Threads in C# using BackgroundWorker

    - by Jim Fell
    My C# application is such that a background worker is being used to wait for the acknowledgement of some transmitted data. Here is some psuedo code demonstrating what I'm trying to do: UI_thread { TransmitData() { // load data for tx // fire off TX background worker } RxSerialData() { // if received data is ack, set ack received flag } } TX_thread { // transmit data // set ack wait timeout // fire off ACK background worker // wait for ACK background worker to complete // evaluate status of ACK background worker as completed, failed, etc. } ACK_thread { // wait for ack received flag to be set } What happens is that the ACK BackgroundWorker times out, and the acknowledgement is never received. I'm fairly certain that it is being transmitted by the remote device because that device has not changed at all, and the C# application is transmitting. I have changed the ack thread from this (when it was working)... for( i = 0; (i < waitTimeoutVar) && (!bAckRxd); i++ ) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1); } ...to this... DateTime dtThen = DateTime.Now(); DateTime dtNow; TimeSpan stTime; do { dtNow = DateTime.Now(); stTime = dtNow - dtThen; } while ( (stTime.TotalMilliseconds < waitTimeoutVar) && (!bAckRxd) ); The latter generates a very acurate wait time, as compared to the former. However, I am wondering if removal of the Sleep function is interferring with the ability to receive serial data. Does C# only allow one thread to run at a time, that is, do I have to put threads to sleep at some time to allow other threads to run? Any thoughts or suggestions you may have would be appreciated. I am using Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Express Edition. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • PHP: exif_imagetype() not working?

    - by Karem
    I have this extension checker: $upload_name = "file"; $max_file_size_in_bytes = 8388608; $extension_whitelist = array("jpg", "gif", "png", "jpeg"); /* checking extensions */ $path_info = pathinfo($_FILES[$upload_name]['name']); $file_extension = $path_info["extension"]; $is_valid_extension = false; foreach ($extension_whitelist as $extension) { if (strcasecmp($file_extension, $extension) == 0) { $is_valid_extension = true; break; } } if (!$is_valid_extension) { echo "{"; echo "error: 'ext not allowed!'\n"; echo "}"; exit(0); } And then i added this: if (exif_imagetype($_FILES[$upload_name]['name']) != IMAGETYPE_GIF OR exif_imagetype($_FILES[$upload_name]['name']) != IMAGETYPE_JPEG OR exif_imagetype($_FILES[$upload_name]['name']) != IMAGETYPE_PNG) { echo "{"; echo "error: 'This is no photo..'\n"; echo "}"; exit(0); } As soon when I added this to my imageupload function, the function stops working. I dont get any errors, not even the one i made myself "this is no photo", what could be wrong? Just checked with my host. They support the function exif_imagetype()

    Read the article

  • Is NFS capable of preserving order of operations?

    - by JustJeff
    I have a diskless host 'A', that has a directory NFS mounted on server 'B'. A process on A writes to two files F1 and F2 in that directory, and a process on B monitors these files for changes. Assume that B polls for changes faster than A is expected to make them. Process A seeks the head of the files, writes data, and flushes. Process B seeks the head of the files and does reads. Are there any guarantees about how the order of the changes performed by A will be detected at B? Specifically, if A alternately writes to one file, and then the other, is it reasonable to expect that B will notice alternating changes to F1 and F2? Or could B conceivably detect a series of changes on F1 and then a series on F2? I know there are a lot of assumptions embedded in the question. For instance, I am virtually certain that, even operating on just one file, if A performs 100 operations on the file, B may see a smaller number of changes that give the same result, due to NFS caching some of the actions on A before they are communicated to B. And of course there would be issues with concurrent file access even if NFS weren't involved and both the reading and the writing process were running on the same real file system. The reason I'm even putting the question up here is that it seems like most of the time, the setup described above does detect the changes at B in the same order they are made at A, but that occasionally some events come through in transposed order. So, is it worth trying to make this work? Is there some way to tune NFS to make it work, perhaps cache settings or something? Or is fine-grained behavior like this just too much expect from NFS?

    Read the article

  • help configuring a mail server for use with mail.jar and activation.jar

    - by bobbyblue
    im trying to work with the below code: import javax.servlet.*; import javax.servlet.http.*; import java.io.*; import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; // important import javax.mail.event.*; // important import java.net.*; import java.util.*; public class servletmail extends HttpServlet { public void doPost(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { PrintWriter out=response.getWriter(); response.setContentType("text/html"); try { Properties props=new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host","localhost"); // 'localhost' for testing Session session1 = Session.getDefaultInstance(props,null); String s1 = request.getParameter("text1"); //sender (from) String s2 = request.getParameter("text2"); String s3 = request.getParameter("text3"); String s4 = request.getParameter("area1"); Message message =new MimeMessage(session1); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress(s1)); message.setRecipients (Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse(s2,false)); message.setSubject(s3); message.setText(s4); Transport.send(message); out.println("mail has been sent"); } catch(Exception ex) { System.out.println("ERROR....."+ex); } } } im using mail.jar and activation.jar but i cant understand how shouls i configure it with a mail server which mail server should i use will i be able to send an email using above what are the requirements a mail server? how should i configure it

    Read the article

  • Does Socket open another thread? Does it return something?

    - by Roman
    In the client application I call new Socket(serverIP,serverPort). As a result the client application sends a request to the server application to open a socket. Does it start a new thread? I mean which of the following is true? Client application sends a request and immediately starts to execute following commands (not weighting for the answer). Client sends the request and weights for the answer. As soon as the answer is obtained, the client application continues to execute following commands. The second case seems to be more realistic and logical for me. However, I do not understand what happens if the server does not open a socket and it does not say that it does not "want" to open the second (it can happen if the server does not exist or network is broken). What will happen in this case? Will server weight forever? In general it would be nice for the client to know what is the result of its request for the socket. For example I can imagine the following situations: The socket is opened by the server. The server refuses to open a socket. So, server exists, it got the request from the client but it says "no". There is no response from the server. I know that new Socket(serverIP,serverPort) does not "return" this kind of information. But it throws exceptions. One of them is "UnkownHostException". When it is thrown? When the server is not responding for a while (for how long)? ADDED: I just found out that UnknownHostException is thrown to indicate that the IP address of a host could not be determined. So, it is unrelated with the above described situations (server is not responding, server refuses to open a socket).

    Read the article

  • Invoking a SOAP ( Web Services ) from ORACLE DB

    - by Mousarules
    Dears, Kindly note that I’m trying to invoke a SOAP (web services) from ORACLE DB using pl\sql , after I have done some investigations it says that I have to use the UTL_HTTP package but It didn't work with me !!! Kindly to advice me , where should I exactly place the following SOAP in pl\SQL to be invoked .... is it posible ? SOAP 1.1 The following is a sample SOAP 1.1 request and response. The placeholders shown need to be replaced with actual values. POST /gmgwebservice/service.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: bulk.umniah.com Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "http://tempuri.org/SendSMS" <SendSMS xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <UserName>string</UserName> <Password>string</Password> <MessageBody>string</MessageBody> <Sender>string</Sender> <Destination>string</Destination> </SendSMS> HTTP/1.1 200 OK Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length <SendSMSResponse xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <SendSMSResult>string</SendSMSResult> </SendSMSResponse> --This web services refers to a web site called Bulk Messaging ; the web site sends SMS to a specific mobile number by filling in some text boxes , I need it to be done from ORACLE forms when a specific action occurs ( JOB ) but I don’t know how to use it inside my pl\sql code . Hope that it’s clear ,is there something else I have to mention ?

    Read the article

  • Recreating http request with cURL incl. files

    - by Toby
    I consistently get the error 'failed creating formpost data' from the below code, the same thing works perfectly on my local testing server, but on my shared host it throws the error. The sample part is just to simulate building the array with both files and non-file data. Essentially all I'm trying to do here is redirect the same http request to another server, but I'm running into so many troubles. $count=count($_FILES['photographs']['tmp_name']); $file_posts=array('samplesample' => 'ladeda'); for($i=0;$i<$count;$i++) { if(!empty($_FILES['photographs']['name'][$i])) { $fn = genRandomString(); $file_posts[$fn] = "@".$_FILES['photographs']['tmp_name'][$i]; } } $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,"http://myurl/wp-content/plugins/autol/rec.php"); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 5.01; Windows NT 5.0)"); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_HEADER,TRUE); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POST,TRUE); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,$file_posts); curl_exec($ch); print curl_error($ch); curl_close($ch);

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728  | Next Page >