Search Results

Search found 21343 results on 854 pages for 'pass by reference'.

Page 722/854 | < Previous Page | 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728 729  | Next Page >

• How to check a bool setting in my iphone app

  - by dusk

  I have a setting in Root.plist with Key = 'latestNews' of type PSToggleSwitchSpecifier and DefaultValue as a boolean that is checked. If I understand that correctly, it should = YES when I pull it in to my code. I'm trying to check that value and set an int var to pass it to my php script. What is happening is that my boolean is either nil or NO and then my int var = 0. What am I doing wrong? int latestFlag; NSUserDefaults *prefs = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; BOOL latestNews = [prefs boolForKey:@"latestNews"]; if (latestNews) latestFlag = 1; else latestFlag = 0; NSString *urlstr = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"http://www.mysite.com/folder/iphone-test.php?latest=%d", latestFlag]; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:urlstr]; //these are auto-released NSString *ans = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:url]; NSArray *listItems = [ans componentsSeparatedByString:@","]; self.listData = listItems; [urlstr release]; [url release];

  Read the article

• Working with PHP and MySQL - need a good and secure design with OO design

  - by Andrew

  I am new to PHP- first time developer. I am working on my web application and it is nearly done; nevertheless, most of my sql was done directly via code using direct mysql requests. This is the way I approached it: In classes_db.php I declared the db settings and created methods that I use to open and close DB connections. I declare those objects on my regular pages: class classes_db { public $dbserver = 'server; public $dbusername = 'user'; public $dbpassword = 'pass'; public $dbname = 'db'; function openDb() { $dbhandle = mysql_connect($this->dbserver, $this->dbusername, $this->dbpassword); if (!$dbhandle) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } $selected = mysql_select_db($this->dbname, $dbhandle) or die("Could not select the database"); return $dbhandle; } function closeDb($con) { mysql_close($con); } } On my regular page, I do this: <?php require 'classes_db.php'; session_start(); //create instance of the DB class $db = new classes_db(); //get dbhandle $dbhandle = $db->openDb(); //process query $result = mysql_query("update user set username = '" . $usernameFromForm . "' where iduser= " . $_SESSION['user']->iduser); //close the connection if (isset($dbhandle)) { $db->closeDb($dbhandle); } ?> My questions is: how to do it right and make it OO and secure? I know that I need incorporate prepared queries- how to do it the best way? Please provide some code

  Read the article

• Java reflection appropriateness

  - by jsn

  This may be a fairly subjective question, but maybe not. My application contains a bunch of forms that are displayed to the user at different times. Each form is a class of its own. Typically the user clicks a button, which launches a new form. I have a convenience function that builds these buttons, you call it like this: buildButton( "button text", new SelectionAdapter() { @Override public void widgetSelected( SelectionEvent e ) { showForm( new TasksForm( args... ) ); } } ); I do this dozens of times, and it's really cumbersome having to make a SelectionAdapter every time. Really all I need for the button to know is what class to instantiate when it's clicked and what arguments to give the constructor, so I built a function that I call like this instead: buildButton( "button text", TasksForm.class, args... ); Where args is an arbitrary list of objects that you could use to instantiate TasksForm normally. It uses reflection to get a constructor from the class, match the argument list, and build an instance when it needs to. Most of the time I don't have to pass any arguments to the constructor at all. The downside is obviously that if I'm passing a bad set of arguments, it can't detect that at compilation time, so if it fails, a dialog is displayed at runtime. But it won't normally fail, and it'll be easy to debug if it does. I think this is much cleaner because I come from languages where the use of function and class literals is pretty common. But if you're a normal Java programmer, would seeing this freak you out, or would you appreciate not having to scan a zillion SelectionAdapters?

  Read the article

• structDelete doesn't effect the shallow copy?

  - by Travis

  I was playing around onError so I tried to create an error using a large xml document object. <cfset variables.XMLByRef = variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement.XMLChildElement> <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML, "XMLRootElement")> <cfset variables.startXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> <cfloop from = "1" to = "#arrayLen(variables.XMLByRef)#" index = "variables.i"> <cfoutput>#variables.XMLByRef[variables.i].id.xmltext#</cfoutput><br /> </cfloop> <cfset variables.stopXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> I expected to get an error because I deleted the structure I was referencing. From LiveDocs: Variable Assignment - Creates an additional reference, or alias, to the structure. Any change to the data using one variable name changes the structure that you access using the other variable name. This technique is useful when you want to add a local variable to another scope or otherwise change a variable's scope without deleting the variable from the original scope. instead I got 580df1de-3362-ca9b-b287-47795b6cdc17 25a00498-0f68-6f04-a981-56853c0844ed ... ... ... db49ed8a-0ba6-8644-124a-6d6ebda3aa52 57e57e28-e044-6119-afe2-aebffb549342 Looped 12805 times in 297 milliseconds <cfdump var = "#variables#"> Shows there's nothing in the structure, just parsedXML.xmlRoot.xmlName with the value of XMLRootElement. I also tried <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement, "XMLChildElement")> as well as structClear for both. More information on deleting from the xml document object. http://help.adobe.com/en_US/ColdFusion/9.0/Developing/WSc3ff6d0ea77859461172e0811cbec22c24-78e3.html Can someone please explain my faulty logic? Thanks.

  Read the article

• How can I automatically highlight a specific character in link text using JQuery + CSS?

  - by Chris McCall

  I'm adding hotkeys to a web application in order to enable keyboard shortcuts for our CSRs to use, to reduce injury and increase calls-per-hour. I'm using an ASP.net UserControl to inject javascript into the page and it's working great. I want the control to "just work", so that when hotkeys are assigned, using a declarative syntax, if the hotkeyed letter exists in the link text, it will be highlighted automatically, so the developer doesn't have to do anything, and also to maintain consistency in visual cues. Here's the code to assign hotkeys, if it matters: <uc:HotKeysControl ID="theHotkeys" runat="server" Visible="true"> <uc:HotKey ControlName="AccStatus$btnInvoiceEverBill" KeyCode="ctrl+v" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="AccStatus$btnRefund" KeyCode="ctrl+u" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="thirdControl" KeyCode="ctrl+p" /> </uc:HotKeysControl> I want something like: <a href="whatever" name="thirdControl">Make a <span class=hotkey">P</span>ayment</a> ...but I'm not married to the idea of injecting a <span/> in there if there's a better way. How can I do this in CSS or JQuery? Is there a way to pass in a letter to a CSS style and have it change the color of the text displayed? Should I generate javascript to highlight the text when the page loads? What would/did you do in this situation?

  Read the article

• Efficient (basic) regular expression implementation for streaming data

  - by Brendan Dolan-Gavitt

  I'm looking for an implementation of regular expression matching that operates on a stream of data -- i.e., it has an API that allows a user to pass in one character at a time and report when a match is found on the stream of characters seen so far. Only very basic (classic) regular expressions are needed, so a DFA/NFA based implementation seems like it would be well-suited to the problem. Based on the fact that it's possible to do regular expression matching using a DFA/NFA in a single linear sweep, it seems like a streaming implementation should be possible. Requirements: The library should try to wait until the full string has been read before performing the match. The data I have really is streaming; there is no way to know how much data will arrive, it's not possible to seek forward or backward. Implementing specific stream matching for a couple special cases is not an option, as I don't know in advance what patterns a user might want to look for. For the curious, my use case is the following: I have a system which intercepts memory writes inside a full system emulator, and I would like to have a way to identify memory writes that match a regular expression (e.g., one could use this to find the point in the system where a URL is written to memory). I have found (links de-linkified because I don't have enough reputation): stackoverflow.com/questions/1962220/apply-a-regex-on-stream stackoverflow.com/questions/716927/applying-a-regular-expression-to-a-java-i-o-stream www.codeguru.com/csharp/csharp/cs_data/searching/article.php/c14689/Building-a-Regular-Expression-Stream-Search-with-the-NET-Framework.htm But all of these attempt to convert the stream to a string first and then use a stock regular expression library. Another thought I had was to modify the RE2 library, but according to the author it is architected around the assumption that the entire string is in memory at the same time. If nothing's available, then I can start down the unhappy path of reinventing this wheel to fit my own needs, but I'd really rather not if I can avoid it. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• Downloading a webpage in C# example

  - by Chris

  I am trying to understand some example code on this web page: (http://www.csharp-station.com/HowTo/HttpWebFetch.aspx) that downloads a file from the internet. The piece of code quoted below goes through a loop getting chunks of data and saving them to a string until all the data has been downloaded. As I understand it, "count" contains the size of the downloaded chunk and the loop runs until count is 0 (an empty chunk of data is downloaded). My question is, isn't it possible that count could be 0 without the file being completely downloaded? Say if the network connection is interrupted, the stream may not have any data to read on a pass of the loop and count should be 0, ending the download prematurely. Or does ResStream.Read stop the program until it gets data? Is this the correct way to save a stream? int count = 0; do { // fill the buffer with data count = resStream.Read(buf, 0, buf.Length); // make sure we read some data if (count != 0) { // translate from bytes to ASCII text tempString = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buf, 0, count); // continue building the string sb.Append(tempString); } } while (count 0); // any more data to read?

  Read the article

• Question about using an access database as a resource file in Visual Studio.

  - by user354303

  Hi I am trying to embed a Microsoft Access database file into my Class assembly DLL. I want my code to reference the resource file and use it with a ADODB.Connection object. Any body know a simpler way, or an easier way? Or what is wrong with my code, when i added the resource file it added me dataset definitions, but i have no idea what to do with those. The connection string I am trying below is from an automatically generated app.config. I did add the item as a resource... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; using ConsoleApplication1.Resources;//SPPrinterLicenses using System.Data.OleDb; using ADODB; using System.Configuration; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class SharePointPrinterManager { public static bool IsValidLicense(string HardwareID) { OleDbDataAdapter da = new OleDbDataAdapter(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ADODB.Connection adoCn = new Connection(); ADODB.Recordset adoRs = new Recordset(); //**open command below fails** adoCn.Open( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Resources\SPPrinterLicenses.accdb;Persist Security Info=True", "", "", 1); adoRs.Open("Select * from AllWorkstationLicenses", adoCn, ADODB.CursorTypeEnum.adOpenForwardOnly, ADODB.LockTypeEnum.adLockReadOnly, 1); da.Fill(ds, adoRs, "AllworkstationLicenses"); adoCn.Close(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); //ds.Tables. return true; } } }

  Read the article

• How to create a generic method in C# that's all applicable to many types - ints, strings, doubles et

  - by satyajit

  Let's I have a method to remove duplicates in an integer Array public int[] RemoveDuplicates(int[] elems) { HashSet<int> uniques = new HashSet<int>(); foreach (int item in elems) uniques.Add(item); elems = new int[uniques.Count]; int cnt = 0; foreach (var item in uniques) elems[cnt++] = item; return elems; } How can I make this generic such that now it accepts a string array and remove duplicates in it? How about a double array? I know I am probably mixing things here in between primitive and value types. For your reference the following code won't compile public List<T> RemoveDuplicates(List<T> elems) { HashSet<T> uniques = new HashSet<T>(); foreach (var item in elems) uniques.Add(item); elems = new List<T>(); int cnt = 0; foreach (var item in uniques) elems[cnt++] = item; return elems; } The reason is that all generic types should be closed at run time. Thanks for you comments

  Read the article

• Magento layout related basic Questions ?

  - by user197992

  Here is what I think about Magento (plz correct me if I am wrong ) 1)Each module has its own layout.xml stored in /interface/theme/layouts/ folder. 2)Magento loads all these layouts for current theme and creates a big xml file. Now what I am confused at . a)If magento loads /default/default/ (interface & theme) then why all the templates & layouts are inside base/default/ ?? b)what if I create my module name “page” inside my namespace “Jason” i.e Jason_Page , now what will happen to blocks in layout files which are named c)Since all the layouts are loaded and merged into one big xml file , then what happen to all those reference blocks which have same name attribute and are inside “Default” handle tag ? e.g d)what is Local.xml layout for and its use ?? e)wats the relation ship between a module name foo , and its layout name foo.xml ? What will happen to layout.xml if two modules with same name exist in diff namespace ? Thanks in advance .

  Read the article

• jQuery function unresponsive after changing html

  - by asdgfas sagas

  $(document).ready(function () { $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all content $(".tab_content:first").show(); //Show first tab content $(".next").click(function() { $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all tab content $('#tab_change').html('<div class="back"></div>'); $("#tab2").show(); return false; }); $(".back").click(function() { $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all tab content $('#tab_change').html('<div class="next"></div>'); $("#tab1").show(); return false; }); THe problem is that when next is clicked, the 2nd tab opens. But after the html of #tab_change changed, the back button is responsive. The $(".back").click(function() { doesnt work. HTML is posted for reference. <div class="dialog_content" style="width:780px"> <div id="tab_change" class="left border_right"> <div class="next"></div> </div> <div id="tab1" class="tab_content"> </div> <div id="tab2" class="tab_content"> <div class="right"><?php include("C:/easyphp/www/zabjournal/lib/flexpaper/php/split_document.php"); ?> </div> </div> </div>

  Read the article

• jquery ajax result with a wrong format

  - by ???

  I am facing a problem which is the result processed by AJAX, this situation is I would like to pass the result (from AJAX) 'f f f f \'' into get_option(''), I don't know why it become like this:- <li \'');="" f="" onclick="get_option('f" class="option normal_size"> <a href="javascript:void(0);">f f f f \'</a> </li> What I want is :- <li onclick="get_option('f f f f\'')" class="option normal_size"> <a href="javascript:void(0);">f f f f \'</a> </li> I guess the problem might be the space, but I don't know how to solve it, can anyone do me a favour? my AJAX coding is:- .ajax({ url:'inc_board_saving.php?board_title_input='+board_title_input_encode+'&cate_selected='+cate_selected_input_encode+'&cate_setting_selected='+cate_setting_selected, type:'GET', data:"nums="+Math.random()*1235, success: function(data){ try{ var content=""; var obj = eval('('+data+')'); for (var i=0;i<obj.length;i++){ content += "<li class='option normal_size' onclick=get_option('"+obj[i].board_name_encode+"');><a href='javascript:void(0);'>"+obj[i].board_name+"</a></li>"; } }catch(e){ return; } } }); Result:- [{"board_id":"66","board_name":"f f f f '","board_name_encode":"f f f f \'"},{"board_id":"65","board_name":"t t t t t","board_name_encode":"t t t t t"},{"board_id":"64","board_name":"yy yyy yy","board_name_encode":"yy yyy yy"}] Thanks all

  Read the article

• How to call a generic method with an anonymous type involving generics?

  - by Alex Black

  I've got this code that works: def testTypeSpecialization = { class Foo[T] def add[T](obj: Foo[T]): Foo[T] = obj def addInt[X <% Foo[Int]](obj: X): X = { add(obj) obj } val foo = addInt(new Foo[Int] { def someMethod: String = "Hello world" }) assert(true) } But, I'd like to write it like this: def testTypeSpecialization = { class Foo[T] def add[X, T <% Foo[X](obj: T): T = obj val foo = add(new Foo[Int] { def someMethod: String = "Hello world" }) assert(true) } This second one fails to compile: no implicit argument matching parameter type (Foo[Int]{ ... }) = Foo[Nothing] was found. Basically: I'd like to create a new anonymous class/instance on the fly (e.g. new Foo[Int] { ... } ), and pass it into an "add" method which will add it to a list, and then return it The key thing here is that the variable from "val foo = " I'd like its type to be the anonymous class, not Foo[Int], since it adds methods (someMethod in this example) Any ideas? I think the 2nd one fails because the type Int is being erased. I can apparently 'hint' the compiler like this: def testTypeSpecialization = { class Foo[T] def add[X, T <% Foo[X]](dummy: X, obj: T): T = obj val foo = add(2, new Foo[Int] { def someMethod: String = "Hello world" }) assert(true) }

  Read the article

• transaction handling in dataset based insert/update in c#

  - by user3703611

  I am trying to insert bulk records in a sql server database table using dataset. But i am unable to do transaction handling. Please help me to apply transaction handling in below code. I am using adapter.UpdateCommand.Transaction = trans; but this line give me an error of Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Code: string ConnectionString = "server=localhost\\sqlexpress;database=WindowsApp;Integrated Security=SSPI;"; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString); conn.Open(); SqlTransaction trans = conn.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Serializable); SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM Test ORDER BY Id", conn); SqlCommandBuilder builder = new SqlCommandBuilder(adapter); adapter.UpdateCommand.Transaction = trans; // Create a dataset object DataSet ds = new DataSet("TestSet"); adapter.Fill(ds, "Test"); // Create a data table object and add a new row DataTable TestTable = ds.Tables["Test"]; for (int i=1;i<=50;i++) { DataRow row = TestTable.NewRow(); row["Id"] = i; TestTable .Rows.Add(row); } // Update data adapter adapter.Update(ds, "Test"); trans.Commit(); conn.Close();

  Read the article

• jQuery get the value of ahref and put it to button

  - by user1506189

  i have this problem that i need to get the value of href and pass it to a button. is this correct format of jQuery? $(function() { var getValue = $('#theLink').getAttributeNode('onclick').value; $('.yt_holder').live('click', '.videoThumb4', function(){ $(".videoThumb4").ytplaylist({ holderId: 'ytvideo4', html5: true, playerWidth: '520', autoPlay: false, sliding: false, listsliding: true, social: true, autoHide: false, playfirst: 0, playOnLoad: false, modestbranding: true, showInfo: false }); }); }); the button was working but it only play the first video on his list. the link of the website is here http://cocopop12.site11.com/search/index.php now the button is this. <input class="videoThumb4" onClick="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=' . $yValue['videoid'] . '" type="button" name="previewSel" value="Preview" id="previewbut" /> is that correct? that i need to do a onclick http://www.... blabla? the <a href> that i like to make a button is this. <?php echo ' <a class="videoThumb4" href="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=' . $yValue['videoid'] . '" id="link"> ' . $yValue['description'] . ' </a> '; ?> how can i use .each for the button {Preview}? how can i put the value in the button just like --when i click this href it automatically play the video? but the button it just play the first video but not the second video. this i want to make it like a button. thank you for your time.

  Read the article

• Parallel doseq for Clojure

  - by andrew cooke

  I haven't used multithreading in Clojure at all so am unsure where to start. I have a doseq whose body can run in parallel. What I'd like is for there always to be 3 threads running (leaving 1 core free) that evaluate the body in parallel until the range is exhausted. There's no shared state, nothing complicated - the equivalent of Python's multiprocessing would be just fine. So something like: (dopar 3 [i (range 100)] ; repeated 100 times in 3 parallel threads... ...) Where should I start looking? Is there a command for this? A standard package? A good reference? So far I have found pmap, and could use that (how do I restrict to 3 at a time? looks like it uses 32 at a time - no, source says 2 + number of processors), but it seems like this is a basic primitive that should already exist somewhere. clarification: I really would like to control the number of threads. I have processes that are long-running and use a fair amount of memory, so creating a large number and hoping things work out OK isn't a good approach (example which uses a significant chunk available mem). update: Starting to write a macro that does this, and I need a semaphore (or a mutex, or an atom i can wait on). Do semaphores exist in Clojure? Or should I use a ThreadPoolExecutor? It seems odd to have to pull so much in from Java - I thought parallel programming in Clojure was supposed to be easy... Maybe I am thinking about this completely the wrong way? Hmmm. Agents?

  Read the article

• How do you use boost iterators

  - by Neil G

  It worked, and then I added the typedefs so that I could have a const_sparse_iterator as well. Now, when I compile this and try to use sparse_iterator, it says: /Users/neilrg/nn/src/./core/sparse_vector.h:331: error: invalid use of incomplete type 'struct sparse_vector<A>::sparse_iterator' Here's the code. More code here. tempalte<typename T> class sparse_vector { // There is more code at my previous question, but this might be enough...? private: template<typename base_type> class sparse_iterator_private : public boost::iterator_adaptor< sparse_iterator_private<base_type> // Derived , base_type // Base , value_type // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag // CategoryOrTraversal > { private: struct enabler {}; // a private type avoids misuse public: sparse_iterator_private() : sparse_iterator_private<base_type>::iterator_adaptor_(0) {} explicit sparse_iterator_private(typename array_type::iterator&& p) : sparse_iterator_private<base_type>::iterator_adaptor_(p) {} private: friend class boost::iterator_core_access; reference dereference() const { return this->base()->value; } }; public: typedef sparse_iterator_private<typename array_type::iterator> sparse_iterator; typedef sparse_iterator_private<typename array_type::const_iterator> const_sparse_iterator; };

  Read the article

• ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

  - by user251660

  We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

  Read the article

• Node.js/Express Partials problem: Can't be nested too deep?

  - by heorling

  I'm learning Node.js, Express, haml.js and liking it. I've run into a prety annoying problem though. I'm pretty new to this but have been getting nice results so far. I'm writing a jquery heavy web app that relies on a table containing divs. The divs slide around, switch back and fourth and are resized etc to my hearts content. What I'm looking for a way to switch (template?) the divs. Since I've been building in express and mimicking the chat example it would make sense to use partials. The rub is that I've been using inexplicit divs in haml, held within a td. The divs are cunstructed as follows: %tr %td .class1.class2.class3.classetc Which has worked fine cross browser. Parsing the classes works great for the js code to pass arguments around, fetch values etc. What I'd like to be able to do is something like: %tr %td .class1.class2.class3.classetc %ul#messages != this.partial('message.html.haml', { collection: messages }) Any combination I've tried with this has failed however. And I might have tried them all. If I could put a partial into that div I'd probably be set. And you can nest them as long as you use #ids instead of .classes. But if you use more than one class it breaks! I think that's the most accurate way of summing it up. How do you do this? I've checked out various templating solutions like mu.js and micro template like by John Resig. I earlier checked out this thread on templating engines. It's very possible I'm making some fundamental mistake here, I'm new to this. What's a good way to do this?

  Read the article

• Doctrine: Unable to execute either CROSS JOIN or SELECT FROM Table1, Table2?

  - by ropstah

  Using Doctrine I'm trying to execute either a 1. CROSS JOIN statement or 2. a SELECT FROM Table1, Table2 statement. Both seem to fail. The CROSS JOIN does execute, however the results are just wrong compared to executing in Navicat. The multiple table SELECT doesn't event execute because Doctrine automatically tries to LEFT JOIN the second table. The cross join statement (this runs, however it doesn't include the joined records where the refClass User_Setting doesn't have a value): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key)); And the select from multiple tables (this doesn't event run. It does not spot the many-many relationship between User and Setting in the first ->from() part and throws an exception: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to.): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u, Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key));

  Read the article

• can bind successfully to the ldap server, but needs to know how to find user w/i AD

  - by Brad

  I create a login form to bind to the ldap server, if successful, it creates a session (which the user's username is stored within), then I go to another page that has session_start(); and it works fine. What I want to do now, is add code to test if that user is a member of a specific group. So in theory, this is what I want to do if(username session is valid) { search ldap for user -> get list of groups user is member of foreach(group they are member of) { switch(group) { case STAFF: print 'they are member of staff group'; $access = true; break; default: print 'not a member of STAFF group'; $access = false; break; } if(group == STAFF) { break; } } if($access == TRUE) { // you have access to the content on this page } else { // you do not have access to this page } } How do I do a ldap_search w/o binding? I don't want to keep asking for their password on each page, and I can't pass their password thru a session. Any help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• algorithm to find longest non-overlapping sequences

  - by msalvadores

  I am trying to find the best way to solve the following problem. By best way I mean less complex. As an input a list of tuples (start,length) such: [(0,5),(0,1),(1,9),(5,5),(5,7),(10,1)] Each element represets a sequence by its start and length, for example (5,7) is equivalent to the sequence (5,6,7,8,9,10,11) - a list of 7 elements starting with 5. One can assume that the tuples are sorted by the start element. The output should return a non-overlapping combination of tuples that represent the longest continuos sequences(s). This means that, a solution is a subset of ranges with no overlaps and no gaps and is the longest possible - there could be more than one though. For example for the given input the solution is: [(0,5),(5,7)] equivalent to (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11) is it backtracking the best approach to solve this problem ? I'm interested in any different approaches that people could suggest. Also if anyone knows a formal reference of this problem or another one that is similar I'd like to get references. BTW - this is not homework. Edit Just to avoid some mistakes this is another example of expected behaviour for an input like [(0,1),(1,7),(3,20),(8,5)] the right answer is [(3,20)] equivalent to (3,4,5,..,22) with length 20. Some of the answers received would give [(0,1),(1,7),(8,5)] equivalent to (0,1,2,...,11,12) as right answer. But this last answer is not correct because is shorter than [(3,20)].

  Read the article

• Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

  - by Dougc

  I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

  Read the article

• Does anyone still believe in the Capability Maturity Model for Software?

  - by Ed Guiness

  Ten years ago when I first encountered the CMM for software I was, I suppose like many, struck by how accurately it seemed to describe the chaotic "level one" state of software development in many businesses, particularly with its reference to reliance on heroes. It also seemed to provide realistic guidance for an organisation to progress up the levels improving their processes. But while it seemed to provide a good model and realistic guidance for improvement, I never really witnessed an adherence to CMM having a significant positive impact on any organisation I have worked for, or with. I know of one large software consultancy that claims CMM level 5 - the highest level - when I can see first hand that their processes are as chaotic, and the quality of their software products as varied, as other, non-CMM businesses. So I'm wondering, has anyone seen a real, tangible benefit from adherence to process improvement according to CMM? And if you have seen improvement, do you think that the improvement was specifically attributable to CMM, or would an alternative approach (such as six-sigma) have been equally or more beneficial? Does anyone still believe? As an aside, for those who haven't yet seen it, check out this funny-because-its-true parody

  Read the article

• new Date() In javascript :: need Help

  - by gskoli

  Dear all, i am creating a digital clock using images & javascript but i want to pass a server time that time ... How to do that ... I am getting time from server and passing it to Date Following i have given snippet . var time_str = document.clock_form.time_str.value ; //alert (time_str); function dotime(){ theTime=setTimeout('dotime();',1000); //d = new Date(Date.parse(time_str)); d= new Date(time_str); hr= d.getHours()+100; mn= d.getMinutes()+100; se= d.getSeconds()+100; var time_str = document.clock_form.time_str.value ; //alert (time_str); alert(' TIME ---> '+hr+' :: '+mn+' :: '+ se); if(hr==100){ hr=112;am_pm='am'; } else if(hr<112){ am_pm='am'; } else if(hr==112){ am_pm='pm'; } else if(hr>112){ am_pm='pm';hr=(hr-12); } tot=''+hr+mn+se; document.hr1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(1,2)+'.gif'; document.hr2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(2,3)+'.gif'; document.mn1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(4,5)+'.gif'; document.mn2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(5,6)+'.gif'; document.se1.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(7,8)+'.gif'; document.se2.src = '/flash_files/digits/dg'+tot.substring(8,9)+'.gif'; document.ampm.src= '/flash_files/digits/dg'+am_pm+'.gif'; } dotime(); But it is not working Help me out Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728 729  | Next Page >