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• Emails sometimes get scrambled

  - by Alex

  Folks, I have a PHP-based based site (using the QCubed framework); as a part of the site, I have a daemon that's sending out several thousand emails a day (no i'm not a spammer, everything is opt-in :)). Emails are sent through a custom framework component; that component serves as an SMTP client. I'm using a paid SMTP gateway from DNSExit.com to get the emails actually delivered. Those emails are simple HTML-based emails; they really have just simple links inside. My issue is that these links sometimes (not consistently!) get scrambled during transition. Tags somehow get mixed up, and some links are non-functional in the email. The issue happens on a small percentage of all sent emails; it is not consistent (i.e. the same exact source message HTML may or may not cause the scrambling in transition). Have any of you seen this? Any thoughts on how to troubleshoot?

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• RewriteCond and RewriteRule newbie

  - by mybrokengnome

  I'm taking over a website for a client that is running on a custom built CMS (that I didn't write). I don't mess with .htaccess files usually because a lot of the hosting I do is on IIS, or I used WordPress as a CMS and don't have to worry about messing with the .htaccess file. Here's the contents of the file: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ framework.php?%{QUERY_STRING}&resource=$1& [L] I get what it's doing (sending all requests through the framework.php file). The client wants a WordPress blog added to their site. I'm placing it in a /blog/ folder. The problem is that because of the rewrite rules and conditions in the .htaccess file whenever I try to go /blog/ the other CMS freaks out because it doesn't like me trying to go there. My question is how do I write a rule/cond that tells apache to send all requests made to the /blog/ folder to the /blog/ folder, but keep all other requests piped through the framework.php file like it is now? Any help is appreciated, thanks!

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• Clone existing structs with different alignment in Visual C++

  - by Crend King

  Is there a way to clone an existing struct with different member alignment in Visual C++? Here is the background: I use an 3rd-party library, which uses several structs. To fill up the structs, I pass the address of the struct instances to some functions. Unfortunately, the functions only returns unaligned buffer, so that data of some members are always wrong. /Zp is out of choice, since it breaks the other parts of the program. I know #pragma pack modifies the alignment of the following struct, but I would like to avoid copying the structs into my code, for the definitions in the library might change in the future. Sample code: test.h: struct am_aligned { BYTE data1[10]; ULONG data2; }; test.cpp: #include "test.h" // typedef alignment(1) struct am_aligned am_unaligned; int APIENTRY wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPTSTR lpCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { char buffer[20] = {}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(unaligned_struct); i++) { buffer[i] = i; } am_aligned instance = *(am_aligned*) buffer; return 0; } Consider am_aligned is defined in the library header file. am_unaligned is my custom declaration, and only effective in test.cpp. The commented line does not work of course. instance.data2 is 0x0f0e0d0c, while 0x0d0c0b0a is desired. Thanks for help!

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• How do I use InputType=numberDecimal with the "phone" soft keypad?

  - by Adam Dunn

  For an EditText box, the user should only be entering valid numbers, so I am using android:inputType="numberDecimal". Unfortunately, the soft keyboard that Android brings up has numbers only along the top row, while the next three rows have various other symbols (dollar sign, percent sign, exclamation mark, space, etc). Since the numberDecimal only accepts numbers 0-9, negative sign, and decimal point, it would make more sense to use the "phone" soft keyboard (0-9 in a 3x3 grid, plus some other symbols). This would make the buttons larger and easier to hit (since it's a 4x4 grid rather than a 10x4 grid in the same screen area). Unfortunately, using android:inputType="phone" allows non-numeric characters such as parentheses I have attempted to use android:inputType="numberDecimal|phone", but the numberDecimal aspect of the bit flag seems to be ignored. I have also tried using android:inputType="phone" in combination with android:digits="0123456789-.", but that still allows multiple negative signs or decimal points (inputType="number" has really good error checking for things like that, and won't let the user even type it in). I have also tried using android:inputType="phone" in the xml layout file, while using a DigitsKeyListener in the java code, but then that just uses the default number soft keyboard (the one that has numbers only along top row) (it appears to set InputType.TYPE_CLASS_NUMBER, which voids the InputType.TYPE_CLASS_PHONE set by the xml layout). Writing a custom IME wouldn't work, since the user would have to select the IME as a global option outside the app. Is there any way to use the "phone" style soft keyboard while also using the "number" restrictions on what is entered?

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• What is the fastest way to find duplicates in multiple BIG txt files?

  - by user2950750

  I am really in deep water here and I need a lifeline. I have 10 txt files. Each file has up to 100.000.000 lines of data. Each line is simply a number representing something else. Numbers go up to 9 digits. I need to (somehow) scan these 10 files and find the numbers that appear in all 10 files. And here comes the tricky part. I have to do it in less than 2 seconds. I am not a developer, so I need an explanation for dummies. I have done enough research to learn that hash tables and map reduce might be something that I can make use of. But can it really be used to make it this fast, or do I need more advanced solutions? I have also been thinking about cutting up the files into smaller files. To that 1 file with 100.000.000 lines is transformed into 100 files with 1.000.000 lines. But I do not know what is best: 10 files with 100 million lines or 1000 files with 1 million lines? When I try to open the 100 million line file, it takes forever. So I think, maybe, it is just too big to be used. But I don't know if you can write code that will scan it without opening. Speed is the most important factor in this, and I need to know if it can be done as fast as I need it, or if I have to store my data in another way, for example, in a database like mysql or something. Thank you in advance to anybody that can give some good feedback.

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• unable to set fields of a collection-property elements after changing their order (elements becoming

  - by Jaroslav Záruba

  Hello I want to change order of objects in a collection, and then to access+modify fields of those items. Unfortunately the items somehow become 'deleted'. This is what I do... if(someCondition) { MainEvent mainEvent = pm.getObjectById(MainEvent.class, mainEventKey); /* * events in the original order * MainEvent.subEvents field is not in default fetch group, * therefore I also tried to add the named group into the * persistenceManeger fetch plan, no difference * (mainEvent is not instance of the Event sub/class BTW) */ List<Event> subEvents = mainEvent.getSubEvents(); // re-arrange the events according to keysOrdered { Map<Key, Event> eventMap = new HashMap<Key, Event>(); for(Event event : subEvents) eventMap.put(event.getKey(), event); List<Event> eventsOrdered = new LinkedList<Event>(); for(Key eventKey : keysOrdered) eventsOrdered.add(eventMap.put(eventKey, eventMap.get(eventKey))); // } // put the re-arranged items back into the collection property { subEvents.clear(); subEvents.addAll(eventsOrdered); // } pm.makePersistent(mainEvent); eventsOrdered = subEvents; } else eventsOrdered = getEventsUsingAlternateApproach(); /* * so by now the mainEvent variable does not exist; * could it be this lead the persistence manager to mark * my events as abandoned/obsolete/invalid/deleted...? */ for(Event event : eventsOrdered) event.setDate(new Date()); // -> "Cannot write fields to a deleted object" What am I doing wrong please?

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• Leveraging hobby experience to get a job

  - by Bernard

  Like many other's I began programming at an early age. I started when I was 11 and I learned C when I was 14 (now 26). While most of what I did were games just to entertain myself I did everything from low level 2D graphics, and binary I/O, to interfacing with free API's, custom file systems, audio, 3D animations, OpenGL, web sites, etc. I worked on a wide variety of things trying to make various games. Because of this experience I have tested out of every college level C/C++ programming course I have ever been offered. In the classes I took, my classmates would need a week to do what I finished in class with an hour or two of work. I now have my degree now and I have 2 years of experience working full time as a web developer however I would like to get back into C++ and hopefully do simulation programming. Unfortunately I have yet to do C++ as a job, I have only done it for testing out of classes and doing my senior project in college. So most of what I have in C++ is still hobby experience and I don't know how to best convey that so that I don't end up stuck doing something too low level for me. Right now I see a job offer that requires 2 years of C++ experience, but I have at least 9 (I didn't do C++ everyday for the last 14 years). How do I convey my experience? How much is it truly worth? and How do I get it's full value? The best thing that I can think of is a demo and a portfolio, however that only comes into play after an interview has been secured. I used a portfolio to land my current job. All answers and advice are appreciated.

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• Does fast typing influence fast programming? [closed]

  - by Lukasz Lew

  Many young programmers think that their bottleneck is typing speed. After some experience one realizes that it is not the case, you have to think much more than type. At some point my room-mate forced me to turn of the light (he sleeps during the night). I had to learn to touch type and I experienced an actual improvement in programming skill. The most surprising was that the improvement not due to sheer typing speed, but to a change in mindset. I'm less afraid now to try new things and refactor them later if they work well. It's like having a new tool in the bag. Have anyone of you had similar experience? Now I trained a touch typing a little with KTouch. I find auto-generate lessons the best. I can use this program to create new lessons out of text files but it's only verbatim training, not auto-generated based on a language model. Do you know any touch typing program that allows creation of custom, but randomized lessons?

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• EF4 Code First - Many to many relationship issue

  - by Yngve B. Nilsen

  Hi! I'm having some trouble with my EF Code First model when saving a relation to a many to many relationship. My Models: public class Event { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Tag> Tags { get; set; } } public class Tag { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Event> Events { get; set; } } In my controller, I map one or many TagViewModels into type of Tag, and send it down to my servicelayer for persistence. At this time by inspecting the entities the Tag has both Id and Name (The Id is a hidden field, and the name is a textbox in my view) The problem occurs when I now try to add the Tag to the Event. Let's take the following scenario: The Event is already in my database, and let's say it already has the related tags C#, ASP.NET If I now send the following list of tags to the servicelayer: ID Name 1 C# 2 ASP.NET 3 EF4 and add them by first fetching the Event from the DB, so that I have an actual Event from my DbContext, then I simply do myEvent.Tags.Add to add the tags.. Problem is that after SaveChanges() my DB now contains this set of tags: ID Name 1 C# 2 ASP.NET 3 EF4 4 C# 5 ASP.NET This, even though my Tags that I save has it's ID set when I save it (although I didn't fetch it from the DB)

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• How can I tell when something outside my UITableViewCell has been touched?

  - by kk6yb

  Similar to this question I have a custom subclass of UITableViewCell that has a UITextField. Its working fine except the keyboard for doesn't go away when the user touches a different table view cell or something outside the table. I'm trying to figure out the best place to find out when something outside the cell is touched, then I could call resignFirstResponder on the text field. If the UITableViewCell could receive touch events for touches outside of its view then it could just resignFirstResponder itself but I don't see any way to get those events in the cell. The solution I'm considering is to add a touchesBegan:withEvent: method to the view controller. There I could send a resignFirstResponder to all tableview cells that are visible except the one that the touch was in (let it get the touch event and handle it itself). Maybe something like this pseudo code: - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { CGPoint touchPoint = // TBD - may need translate to cell's coordinates for (UITableViewCell* aCell in [theTableView visibleCells]) { if (![aCell pointInside:touchPoint withEvent:event]) { [aCell resignFirstResponder]; } } } I'm not sure if this is the best way to go about this. There doesn't seem to be any way for the tableviewcell itself to receive event notifications for events outside its view.

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• Gridview Paging via ObjectDataSource: Why is maximumRows being set to -1?

  - by Bryan

  So before I tried custom gridview paging via ObjectDataSource... I think I read every tutorial known to man just to be sure I got it. It didn't look like rocket science. I've set the AllowPaging = True on my gridview. I've specified PageSize="10" on my gridview. I've set EnablePaging="True" on the ObjectDataSource. I've added the 2 paging parms (maximumRows & startRowIndex) to my business object's select method. I've created an analogous "count" method with the same signature as the select method. The only problem I seem to have is during execution... the ObjectDataSource is supplying my business object with a maximumRows value of -1 and I can't for the life of me figure out why. I've searched to the end of the web for anyone else having this problem and apparently I'm the only one. The StartRowIndex parameter seems to be working just fine. Any ideas?

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• FileReference.save() duplicates ByteArray

  - by bartekb

  Hi, I've encountered a memory problem using FileReference.save(). My Flash application generates of a lot of data in real-time and needs to save this data to a local file. As I understand, Flash 10 (as opposed to AIR) does not support streaming to a file. But, what's even worse is that FileReference.save() duplicates all the data before saving it. I was looking for a workaround to this doubled memory usage and thought about the following approach: What if I pass a custom subclass of ByteArray as an argument to FileReference.save(), where this ByteArray subclass would override all read*() methods. The overridden read*() methods would wait for a piece of data to be generated by my application, return this piece of data and immediately remove it from the memory. I know how much data will be generated, so I could also override length/bytesAvailable methods. Would it be possible? Could you give me some hint how to do it? I've created a subclass of ByteArray, registered an alias for it, passed an instance of this subclass to FileReference.save(), but somehow FileReference.save() seems to treat it just as it was a ByteArray instance and doesn't call any of my overridden methods... Thanks a lot for any help!

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• LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

  - by Manuel Navarro

  I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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• C++ syntax issue

  - by Doug

  It's late and I can't figure out what is wrong with my syntax. I have asked other people and they can't find the syntax error either so I came here on a friend's advice. template <typename TT> bool PuzzleSolver<TT>::solve ( const Clock &pz ) { possibConfigs_.push( pz.getInitial() ); vector< Configuration<TT> > next_; //error is on next line map< Configuration<TT> ,Configuration<TT> >::iterator found; while ( !possibConfigs_.empty() && possibConfigs_.front() != pz.getGoal() ) { Configuration<TT> cfg = possibConfigs_.front(); possibConfigs_.pop(); next_ = pz.getNext( cfg ); for ( int i = 0; i < next_.size(); i++ ) { found = seenConfigs_.find( next_[i] ); if ( found != seenConfigs_.end() ) { possibConfigs_.push( next_[i] ); seenConfigs_.insert( make_pair( next_[i], cfg ) ); } } } } What is wrong? Thanks for any help.

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• Executing untrusted code

  - by MainMa

  Hi, I'm building a C# application which uses plug-ins. The application must guarantee to the user that plug-ins will not do whatever they want on the user machine, and will have less privileges that the application itself (for example, the application can access its own log files, whereas plug-ins cannot). I considered three alternatives. Using System.AddIn. I tried this alternative first, because it seamed much powerful, but I'm really disappointed by the need of modifying the same code seven times in seven different projects each time I want to modify something. Besides, there is a huge number of problems to solve even for a simple Hello World application. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyName, typeName). This is what I used in the preceding version of the application. I can't use it nevermore, because it does not provide a way to restrict permissions. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(AppDomain domain, [...]). That's what I'm trying to implement now, but it seems that the only way to do that is to pass through ObjectHandle, which requires serialization for every used class. Although plug-ins contain WPF UserControls, which are not serializable. So is there a way to create plug-ins containing UserControls or other non serializable objects and to execute those plug-ins with a custom PermissionSet ?

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• Handle window scroll event in greasemonkey script

  - by Akim Khalilov

  Hi. I need some advice. I have a web page and want to extend it's functionality with greasemonkey script and firefox. When page has loaded I need run custom function during user's page scrolling (with mouse whell or scrollbar). I want show some div block when user scrolling down and hide it when he scrolling to the top. But I met some problem - I couldn't assign event handler to the onscroll event. I use next part of the code: function showFixedBlock(){ ... } function onScrollStart(){ ... showFixedBlock(); ... } window.onscroll = onScrollStart; I test this piece of code on my test html page and it works, but when I copy it into greasemonkey, script doesn't work. Should I assign onscroll event handler during page loading? As I know greasemonkey execute it's scripts when page has loaded? Is it the reason of the problem? Is there some additional requirments to handle 'onscroll' event? How can I do that? Thanks.

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• How can I make this LinqToSQL query work? (SqlExecption)

  - by kversch

  The following code gives me an SqlException: OO theCourse = subject.Course; var students = dc.studentsCourses.Where(x = x.course == theCourse).Select(x = x.student); "Invalid object name 'dbo.studentsCourses'." I tried the following code instead but I also get an Exception. My original question was asked on Aardvark and can be read bellow: var allStudents = from s in dc.students select s; List thestudents = new List(); foreach (student s in allStudents) { if (s.courses.Contains(theCourse)) { thestudents.Add(s); } } I did a right click, "run custom tool" on my dbml and checked my names of my tables and entities. The project compiles but I get an Exception at runtime on this line: "if (s.courses.Contains(theCourse))" Any ideas? Original question on Aardvark: How do I do a LinqToSQL query that gives me this: I want to select all students that attended a certain lesson. The lesson is from a certain course. So select the course the lesson is from. Now select all the students that are following that course. There is a many-to-many relationship between the students and the courses table in my DB. I already extended my LINQ entities to be able to select student.Courses and course.Students using this method: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/linq/linq-to-sql-many-to-many.aspx

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• Why is Routes.rb not loading the IPs from cache?

  - by Christian Fazzini

  I am testing this in local. My ip is 127.0.0.1. The ip_permissions table, is empty. When I browse the site, everything works as expected. Now, I want to simulate browsing the site with a banned IP. So I add the IP into the ip_permissions table via: IpPermission.create!(:ip => '127.0.0.1', :note => 'foobar', :category => 'blacklist') In Rails console, I clear the cache via; Rails.cache.clear. I browse the site. I don't get sent to pages#blacklist. If I restart the server. And browse the site, then I get sent to pages#blacklist. Why do I need to restart the server every time the ip_permissions table is updated? Shouldn't it fetch it based on cache? Routes look like: class BlacklistConstraint def initialize @blacklist = IpPermission.blacklist end def matches?(request) @blacklist.map { |b| b.ip }.include? request.remote_ip end end Foobar::Application.routes.draw do match '/(*path)' => 'pages#blacklist', :constraints => BlacklistConstraint.new .... end My model looks like: class IpPermission < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :ip, :note, :category validates_uniqueness_of :ip, :scope => [:category] validates :category, :inclusion => { :in => ['whitelist', 'blacklist'] } def self.whitelist Rails.cache.fetch('whitelist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'whitelist').all } end def self.blacklist Rails.cache.fetch('blacklist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'blacklist').all } end end

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• Intermittent Issue Writing to Google Appengine Datastore

  - by user242153

  Hi, I have a functioning app and recently have had intermittent problems writing to the datastore. I did not make any relevant code changes, however in the last few days my attempts to write to the datastore sometimes work and sometimes don't. I am trying to save an object that is in a many to one relationship with an existing persisted parent. So, the logic works like this: 1) Parent pulled from the datastore 2) Child created / instantiated using constructor 3) Parent.addSingleChild(child); // the "addSingleChild" method just adds the object argument to the collection of children 4) child.setParent(Parent); // sets the Parent object to the parent field I am using transactions as explained in the documentation ending with "finally {if (tx.isActive()) {tx.rollback(); } }" When the servlet is called, the parent is called from the datastore and the child object is created and added to the many to one mapping to the pre-existing parent. The child should automatically be persisted, since the parent is already persistent, and the child is added to the collection of children that map to the parent. And it worked this way in the past. However, to be sure, i did add a pm.makePersistent(child). Doesn't seem to help, still have the intermittent problem. Any suggestions would be appreciated, and if you need to see the actual code I can post. Thanks

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• Maven - 'all' or 'parent' project for aggregation?

  - by disown

  For educational purposes I have set up a project layout like so (flat in order to suite eclipse better): -product | |-parent |-core |-opt |-all Parent contains an aggregate project with core, opt and all. Core implements the mandatory part of the application. Opt is an optional part. All is supposed to combine core with opt, and has these two modules listed as dependencies. I am now trying to make the following artifacts: product-core.jar product-core-src.jar product-core-with-dependencies.jar product-opt.jar product-opt-src.jar product-opt-with-dependencies.jar product-all.jar product-all-src.jar product-all-with-dependencies.jar Most of them are fairly straightforward to produce. I do have some problem with the aggregating artifacts though. I have managed to make the product-all-src.jar with a custom assembly descriptor in the 'all' module which downloads the sources for all non-transitive deps, and this works fine. This technique also allows me to make the product-all-with-dependencies.jar. I however recently found out that you can use the source:aggregate goal in the source plugin to aggregate sources of the entire aggregate project. This is also true for the javadoc plugin, which also aggregates through the usage of the parent project. So I am torn between my 'all' module approach and ditching the 'all' module and just use the 'parent' module for all aggregation. It feels unclean to have some aggregate artifacts produced in 'parent', and others produced in 'all'. Is there a way of making an 'product-all' jar in the parent project, or to aggregate javadoc in the 'all' project? Or should I just keep both? Thanks

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• Why do I get "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid"

  - by Brian Ojeda

  Why do I get a "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid" for the first... $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); In the following code... $bId = trim($_POST['bId']); $title = trim($_POST['title']); $story = trim($_POST['story']); $q = "SELECT * "; $q .= "FROM " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` "; $q .= "WHERE `blog`.`id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); //confirm_query($r); if (mysql_num_rows($r) == 1) { $q = "UPDATE " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` SET `title` = '{$title}', `story` = '{$story}' WHERE `id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); if (mysql_affected_rows() == 1) { //Successful $data['success'] = true; $date['errors'] = false; $date['message'] = "You are the Greatest!"; } else { //Fail $data['success'] = false; $data['error'] = true; $date['message'] = "You can't do it fool!"; } } I also get an "mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource" error too. Side notes: I am using 1&1 Hosting (worst hosting ever), custom .htaccess file with one line text to enable PHP 5.2 (only why with 1&1 Hosting).

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• Approaches for cross server content sharing?

  - by Anonymity

  I've currently been tasked with finding a best solution to serving up content on our new site from another one of our other sites. Several approaches suggested to me, that I've looked into include using SharePoint's Lists Web Service to grab the list through javascript - which results in XSS and is not an option. Another suggestion was to build a server side custom web service and use SharePoint Request Forms to get the information - this is something I've only very briefly looked at. It's been suggested that I try permitting the requesting site in the HTTP headers of the serving site since I have access to both. This ultimately resulted in a semi-working solution that had major security holes. (I had to include username/password in the request to appease AD Authentication). This was done by allowing Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * The most direct approach I could think of was to simply build in the webpart in our new environment to have the authors manually update this content the same as they would on the other site. Are any one of the suggestions here more valid than another? Which would be the best approach? Are there other suggestions I may be overlooking? I'm also not sure if WebCrawling or Content Scrapping really holds water here...

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• WPF Usercontrol with textboxes

  - by benPearce

  I have a WPF user control with a number of textboxes, this is hosted on a WPF window. The textboxes are not currently bound but I cannot type into any of them. I have put a breakpoint in the KeyDown event of one of the textboxes and it hits it fine and I can see the key I pressed. The textboxes are declared as <TextBox Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="4" x:Name="PostcodeSearch" Style="{StaticResource SearchTextBox}" KeyDown="PostcodeSearch_KeyDown"/> The style is implemented as <Style x:Key="SearchTextBox" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Setter Property="Control.Margin" Value="2"/> <Setter Property="Height" Value="20"/> <Setter Property="Width" Value="140"/> <Setter Property="HorizontalAlignment" Value="Left"/> </Style> I am hoping I have overlooked something obvious. EDIT: I only added the KeyDown and KeyUp events just to prove that the keys presses were getting through. I do not have any custom functionality.

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• cancelPreviousPerformRequestWithTarget is not canceling my previously delayed thread started with pe

  - by jmurphy

  Hello, I've launched a delayed thread using performSelector but the user still has the ability to hit the back button on the current view causing dealloc to be called. When this happens my thread still seems to be called which causes my app to crash because the properties that thread is trying to write to have been released. To solve this I am trying to call cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget to cancel the previous request but it doesn't seem to be working. Below are some code snippets. - (void) viewDidLoad { [self performSelector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) withObject:nil afterDelay:6]; } (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) object:nil]; } Am I doing something incorrect here? The method myStopUpdatingLocation is defined in the same class that I'm calling the perform requests. A little more background. The function that I'm trying to implement is to find a users location, search google for some locations around that location and display several annotations on the map. On viewDidLoad I start updating the location with CLLocationManager. I've build in a timeout after 6 seconds if I don't get my desired accuracy within the timeout and I'm using a performSelector to do this. What can happen is the user clicks the back button in the view and this thread will still execute even though all my properties have been released causing a crash. Thanks in advance! James

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