Search Results

Search found 35869 results on 1435 pages for 'object context'.

Page 727/1435 | < Previous Page | 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734  | Next Page >

• stuck with enable session state

  - by Shrewd Demon

  hi i have an application wherein i am accessing the Session object in the CommonCode.cs file that resides in the App_Code folder. But when the session object is accessed the application throws me an error: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. Now i have already enabled the session state property in the web.config file, here is my code from the web.config file: <pages enableSessionState="true" autoEventWireup="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </controls> </pages> I dont understand why am i still getting that error !! please help ! thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• How to use symbols/punctuation characters in discriminated unions

  - by user343550

  I'm trying to create a discriminated union for part of speech tags and other labels returned by a natural language parser. It's common to use either strings or enums for these in C#/Java, but discriminated unions seem more appropriate in F# because these are distinct, read-only values. In the language reference, I found that this symbol ``...`` can be used to delimit keywords/reserved words. This works for type ArgumentType = | A0 // subject | A1 // indirect object | A2 // direct object | A3 // | A4 // | A5 // | AA // | ``AM-ADV`` However, the tags contain symbols like $, e.g. type PosTag = | CC // Coordinating conjunction | CD // Cardinal Number | DT // Determiner | EX // Existential there | FW // Foreign Word | IN // Preposision or subordinating conjunction | JJ // Adjective | JJR // Adjective, comparative | JJS // Adjective, superlative | LS // List Item Marker | MD // Modal | NN // Noun, singular or mass | NNP // Proper Noun, singular | NNPS // Proper Noun, plural | NNS // Noun, plural | PDT // Predeterminer | POS // Possessive Ending | PRP // Personal Pronoun | PRP$ //$ Possessive Pronoun | RB // Adverb | RBR // Adverb, comparative | RBS // Adverb, superlative | RP // Particle | SYM // Symbol | TO // to | UH // Interjection | VB // Verb, base form | VBD // Verb, past tense | VBG // Verb, gerund or persent participle | VBN // Verb, past participle | VBP // Verb, non-3rd person singular present | VBZ // Verb, 3rd person singular present | WDT // Wh-determiner | WP // Wh-pronoun | WP$ //$ Possessive wh-pronoun | WRB // Wh-adverb | ``#`` | ``$`` | ``''`` | ``(`` | ``)`` | ``,`` | ``.`` | ``:`` | `` //not sure how to escape/delimit this ``...`` isn't working for WP$ or symbols like ( Also, I have the interesting problem that the parser returns `` as a meaningful symbol, so I need to escape it as well. Is there some other way to do this, or is this just not possible with a discriminated union? Right now I'm getting errors like Invalid namespace, module, type or union case name Discriminated union cases and exception labels must be uppercase identifiers I suppose I could somehow override toString for these goofy cases and replace the symbols with some alphanumeric equivalent?

  Read the article

• Java: Implement own message queue (threadsafe)

  - by derMax

  The task is to implement my own messagequeue that is thread safe. My approach: public class MessageQueue { /** * Number of strings (messages) that can be stored in the queue. */ private int capacity; /** * The queue itself, all incoming messages are stored in here. */ private Vector<String> queue = new Vector<String>(capacity); /** * Constructor, initializes the queue. * * @param capacity The number of messages allowed in the queue. */ public MessageQueue(int capacity) { this.capacity = capacity; } /** * Adds a new message to the queue. If the queue is full, it waits until a message is released. * * @param message */ public synchronized void send(String message) { //TODO check } /** * Receives a new message and removes it from the queue. * * @return */ public synchronized String receive() { //TODO check return "0"; } } If the queue is empty and I call remove(), I want to call wait() so that another thread can use the send() method. Respectively, I have to call notifyAll() after every iteration. Question: Is that possible? I mean does it work that when I say wait() in one method of an object, that I can then execute another method of the same object? And another question: Does that seem to be clever?

  Read the article

• What can be used instead of Datatable in LINQ

  - by Kabi

  I have a SQL query that returns a Datatable: var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); and then we can work with Datatable object of routesTable if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } I want to change this code to linq but I don't know how can I simulate Datatable in LINQ ,I wrote this part: Route result = null; aspnetdbDataContext aspdb = new aspnetdbDataContext(); var Result = from r in aspdb.RouteLinqs where r.UserId == userId && r.RouteId==routeId select r; .... but I don't know how can I change this part: if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; would you please tell me how can I do this? EDIT here you can see the whole block of code in original public Route GetById(int routeId, Guid userId) { Route result = null; var inputParams = new Dictionary<string, object> { {"UserId", userId}, {"RouteId", routeId} }; var routesTable = _dbhelper.Select("SELECT [RouteId],[UserId],[SourceName],[CreationTime] FROM [Routes] WHERE UserId=@UserId AND RouteId=@RouteId", inputParams); if (routesTable.Rows.Count == 1) { result = new Route(routeId) { Name = (string)routesTable.Rows[0]["SourceName"], Time = routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"] is DBNull ? new DateTime() : Convert.ToDateTime(routesTable.Rows[0]["CreationTime"]) }; result.TrackPoints = GetTrackPointsForRoute(routeId); } return result; }

  Read the article

• Modify request querystring paramaters to build a new link without resorting to string manipulation

  - by Andrew M

  Hi All, I want to dynamically populate a link with the URI of the current request, but set one specific query string parameter. All other querystring paramaters (if there are any) should be left untouched. And I don't know in advance what they might be. Eg, imagine I want to build a link back to the current page, but with the querystring parameter "valueOfInterest" always set to be "wibble" (I'm doing this from the code-behind of an aspx page, .Net 3.5 in C# FWIW). Eg, a request for either of these two: /somepage.aspx /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=sausages would become: /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=wibble And most importantly (perhaps) a request for: /somepage.aspx?boring=something /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=sausages would preserve the boring params to become: /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=wibble Caveats: I'd like to avoid string manipulation if there's something more elegant in asp.net that is more robust. However if there isn't something more elegant, so be it. I've done (a little) homework: I found a blog post which suggested copying the request into a local HttpRequest object, but that still has a read-only collection for the querystring params. I've also had a look at using a URI object, but that doesn't seem to have a querystring

  Read the article

• linq - how to sort a list

  - by Billy Logan

  Hello everyone, I have a linq query that populates a list of designers. since i am using the filters below my sorting is not functioning properly. My question is with the given code below how can i best sort this List after the fact or sort while querying? I have tried to sort the list after the fact using the following script but i receive a compiler error: List<TBLDESIGNER> designers = new List<TBLDESIGNER>(); designers = 'calls my procedure below and comes back with an unsorted list of designers' designers.Sort((x, y) => string.Compare(x.FIRST_NAME, y.LAST_NAME)); Query goes as follows: List<TBLDESIGNER> designer = null; using (SOAE strikeOffContext = new SOAE()) { //Invoke the query designer = AdminDelegates.selectDesignerDesigns.Invoke(strikeOffContext).ByActive(active).ByAdmin(admin).ToList(); } Delegate: public static Func<SOAE, IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER>> selectDesignerDesigns = CompiledQuery.Compile<SOAE, IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER>>( (designer) => from c in designer.TBLDESIGNER.Include("TBLDESIGN") orderby c.FIRST_NAME ascending select c); Filter ByActive: public static IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> ByActive(this IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> qry, bool active) { //Return the filtered IQueryable object return from c in qry where c.ACTIVE == active select c; } Filter ByAdmin: public static IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> ByAdmin(this IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> qry, bool admin) { //Return the filtered IQueryable object return from c in qry where c.SITE_ADMIN == admin select c; } Thanks in advance, Billy

  Read the article

• Inode to device information

  - by Methos

  I have 3 questions: I want to figure out if a file belongs to a USB device given the file inode. By looking in the latest kernel sources (2.6.33) on LXR, I think one can find that information by following pointers as follows: inode-super_block-block_device-backing_dev_info-device-device_driver(or device_type). However, the kernel that I am working with - 2.6.22.14 - does not have struct device pointer in the backing_dev_info object. So how can I figure out to which device does a file belong to from just the inode? I see that each of the inode, super_block and block_device contain an object of type 'dev_t'. But even after searching a lot, I could not find out how to convert 'dev_t' into struct device *. Is there any way to get that infomation? I tried to print device major and minor numbers using imajor(inode) and iminor(inode). However, for every file - belonging to hdd or usb - it always prints major and minor number as zero. Why would that be happening? I searched online for USB major numbers and I found out that major number for a USB is 180. However, on multiple machines, it showed me the major number associated with the USB dev as 253. $ ls -ltr /dev/usb* crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 4 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon4 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 3 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon3 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 8 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon8 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 5 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon5 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 1 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon1 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 7 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon7 Why is that so?

  Read the article

• Raising C# events with an extension method - is it bad?

  - by Kyralessa

  We're all familiar with the horror that is C# event declaration. To ensure thread-safety, the standard is to write something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; protected virtual void OnSomethingHappened(EventArgs e) { var handler = SomethingHappened; if (handler != null) handler(this, e); } Recently in some other question on this board (which I can't find now), someone pointed out that extension methods could be used nicely in this scenario. Here's one way to do it: static public class EventExtensions { static public void RaiseEvent(this EventHandler @event, object sender, EventArgs e) { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } static public void RaiseEvent<T>(this EventHandler<T> @event, object sender, T e) where T : EventArgs { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } } With these extension methods in place, all you need to declare and raise an event is something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; void SomeMethod() { this.SomethingHappened.RaiseEvent(this, EventArgs.Empty); } My question: Is this a good idea? Are we missing anything by not having the standard On method? (One thing I notice is that it doesn't work with events that have explicit add/remove code.)

  Read the article

• When to Store Temporary Values in Hidden Field vs. Session vs. Database?

  - by viatropos

  I am trying to build a simple OpenID login panel similar to how Stack Overflow's works. The goal is: User clicks OpenID/Oauth provider OpenID/Oauth stuff happens, we end up with the result (already made that) Then we want to confirm that the user wants to actually create a new account (vs. associating account with another OpenID account). In StackOverflow, they keep a hidden field on a form that looks like this: <form action="/users/openidconfirm" method="post"> <p>This is an OpenID we haven't seen on Stack Overflow before:</p> <p class="openid-identifier">https://me.yahoo.com/a/some-hash</p> <p>Do you want to associate this OpenID with your Stack Overflow account?</p> <div> <input type="hidden" name="fkey" value="9792ab2zza1q2a4ac414casdfa137eafba7"> <input type="hidden" name="s" value="c1a3q133-11fa-49r0-a7bz-da19849383218"> <input type="submit" value="Associate OpenID"> <input type="button" value="Cancel" onclick="window.location.href = 'http://stackoverflow.com/users/169992/viatropos?s=c1a3q133-11fa-49r0-a7bz-da19849383218'"> </div> </form> Initial question is, what are those hashes fkey and s? Not that I really care what these specific hashes are, but what it seems like is happening is they have processed the openid response and saved it to the DB in a temporary object or something, and from there they generate these keys, because they don't look like Oauth keys to me. Main situation is: after I have processed OpenID/Oauth responses, I don't yet want to create a new user/account until the user submits the "confirm" form. Should I store the keys and tokens temporarily in a "Confirm" form like this? Or is there a better way? It seems that using a temp database object would be a lot of work to manage properly. Thanks for the help. Lance

  Read the article

• NHibernate.QueryException with dynamic-component

  - by Ken

  OK, this is going to be kind of a long shot, since it's a big system (which I don't claim to fully understand, yet), and the problem might not be with NHibernate itself, and I'm even having trouble reproducing it, but... I've got a class with a <dynamic-component section, and when I run a query on it (through my ASP.NET MVC app), it fails, but only sometimes. (Yeah, the worst kind!) The exception I'm seeing is: NHibernate.QueryException: could not resolve property: Attributes.MyAttributeName of: MyClassName at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractPropertyMapping.GetColumns(String propertyName) at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractPropertyMapping.ToColumns(String alias, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.BasicEntityPropertyMapping.ToColumns(String alias, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Persister.Entity.AbstractEntityPersister.ToColumns(String alias, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaQueryTranslator.GetColumns(String propertyName, ICriteria subcriteria) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaQueryTranslator.GetColumnsUsingProjection(ICriteria subcriteria, String propertyName) at NHibernate.Criterion.CriterionUtil.GetColumnNamesUsingPropertyName(ICriteriaQuery criteriaQuery, ICriteria criteria, String propertyName, Object value, ICriterion critertion) at NHibernate.Criterion.CriterionUtil.GetColumnNamesForSimpleExpression(String propertyName, IProjection projection, ICriteriaQuery criteriaQuery, ICriteria criteria, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters, ICriterion criterion, Object value) at NHibernate.Criterion.SimpleExpression.ToSqlString(ICriteria criteria, ICriteriaQuery criteriaQuery, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaQueryTranslator.GetWhereCondition(IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaJoinWalker..ctor(IOuterJoinLoadable persister, CriteriaQueryTranslator translator, ISessionFactoryImplementor factory, CriteriaImpl criteria, String rootEntityName, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Loader.Criteria.CriteriaLoader..ctor(IOuterJoinLoadable persister, ISessionFactoryImplementor factory, CriteriaImpl rootCriteria, String rootEntityName, IDictionary`2 enabledFilters) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.List(CriteriaImpl criteria, IList results) at NHibernate.Impl.CriteriaImpl.List(IList results) at NHibernate.Impl.CriteriaImpl.UniqueResult[T]() ...my code below here... Can anybody explain exactly what this QueryException means, i.e., so I can have an idea of what exactly it thinks is going wrong? Thanks!

  Read the article

• What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

  - by s093294

  Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

  Read the article

• vector::erase with pointer member

  - by matt

  I am manipulating vectors of objects defined as follow: class Hyp{ public: int x; int y; double wFactor; double hFactor; char shapeNum; double* visibleShape; int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; Hyp(int xx, int yy, double ww, double hh, char s): x(xx), y(yy), wFactor(ww), hFactor(hh), shapeNum(s) {visibleShape=0;shapeNum=-1;}; //Copy constructor necessary for support of vector::push_back() with visibleShape Hyp(const Hyp &other) { x = other.x; y = other.y; wFactor = other.wFactor; hFactor = other.hFactor; shapeNum = other.shapeNum; xmin = other.xmin; xmax = other.xmax; ymin = other.ymin; ymax = other.ymax; int visShapeSize = (xmax-xmin+1)*(ymax-ymin+1); visibleShape = new double[visShapeSize]; for (int ind=0; ind<visShapeSize; ind++) { visibleShape[ind] = other.visibleShape[ind]; } }; ~Hyp(){delete[] visibleShape;}; }; When I create a Hyp object, allocate/write memory to visibleShape and add the object to a vector with vector::push_back, everything works as expected: the data pointed by visibleShape is copied using the copy-constructor. But when I use vector::erase to remove a Hyp from the vector, the other elements are moved correctly EXCEPT the pointer members visibleShape that are now pointing to wrong addresses! How to avoid this problem? Am I missing something?

  Read the article

• Separating columnName and Value in C#

  - by KungfuPanda

  hi, I have a employee object as shown below class emp { public int EmpID { get; set; } public string EmpName { get; set; } public int deptID { get; set; } } I need to create a mapping either in this class or a different class to map the properties with column name of my SQL for eg. EmpdID="employeeID" EmpName="EmployeeName" deptID="DepartmentID" When from my asp.net page when I create the employee class and pass it to a function: for eg: emp e=new emp(); e.EmpID=1; e.EmpName="tommy"; e.deptID=10; When the emp object is populated and passed to the buildValues function it should return array of ComumnName(e.g.employeeID):Value(e.g.1),EmployeeName:tommy,DepartmentID:10) string[] values=buildValues(emp); public string[] buildValues(emp e) { string[] values=null; return values; } I have 2 questions: 1. Where do I specify the mappings 2. How do I use the mappings in my buildValues function shown above and build the values string array. I would really appreciate if you can help me with this

  Read the article

• Display subclass data in XCode Expression window

  - by Nick VanderPyle

  I'm debugging an iPhone application I've written using XCode 3.2 and I cannot view the relevant public properties of an object I pull from Core Data. When I watch the object in the Expressions window it only displays the data from the base NSManagedObject. I'd like to see the properties that are on the subclass, not the superclass. If it helps, here's some of the code I'm using. Settings is a subclass of NSManagedObject. I created it using XCode's built-in modeler. Declared like: @interface Settings : NSManagedObject { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasNews; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * logoUrl; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasPaymentGateway; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * customerCode; ... In the interface of my controller I have: Settings *settings; I populate settings with: settings = (Settings *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Settings" inManagedObjectContext:UIAppManagedObjectContext()]; I then set the properties like: settings.hasNews = [NSNumber numberWithBool:TRUE]; I've tried casting settings as (Settings *) in the Expression window but that doesn't help. All I see are the properties to NSManagedObject. I'm using NSLog but would rather not.

  Read the article

• SWT - Table Row - Changing font color

  - by jkteater

  Is it possible to change the font color for a row based on a value in one of the columns? My table has a column that displays a status. The value of the column is going to either be Failed or Success. If it is Success I would like for that rows font be green. If the status equals Failed, I want that rows font be red. Is this possible, if so where would I put the logic. EDIT Here is my Table Viewer code, I am not going to show all the columns, just a couple private void createColumns() { String[] titles = { "ItemId", "RevId", "PRL", "Dataset Name", "Printer/Profile" , "Success/Fail" }; int[] bounds = { 100, 75, 75, 150, 200, 100 }; TableViewerColumn col = createTableViewerColumn(titles[0], bounds[0], 0); col.setLabelProvider(new ColumnLabelProvider() { public String getText(Object element) { if(element instanceof AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData) { return ((AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData)element).getItemId(); } return super.getText(element); } }); col = createTableViewerColumn(titles[1], bounds[1], 1); col.setLabelProvider(new ColumnLabelProvider() { public String getText(Object element) { if(element instanceof AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData) { return ((AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData)element).getRevId(); } return super.getText(element); } }); --ETC

  Read the article

• .net user control event handler lost on postback

  - by user154008

  I have a menu usercontrol called LeftMenu that has a bulletedlist of linkitems. It's on the ascx page as such: <asp:BulletedList ID="PublisherList" DisplayMode="LinkButton" OnClick="PublisherList_Click" cssClass="Menu" runat="server"></asp:BulletedList> I databind the list in the page_load under if(!isPostBack) I'm having an issue on a page that loads the control. When the page first loads, the event handler fires. However, when the page posts back it no longer fires and in IE8, when I'm debugging, I get "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" in Visual Studio pointing at "doPostBack('LeftMenu$PublisherList','0')." In FF I don't get the error, but nothing happens. I'm **not loading the control dynamically, it's loaded on the aspx page using: <%@ Register TagPrefix="Standards" TagName="LeftMenu" Src="LeftMenu.ascx" %> <Standards:LeftMenu ID="LeftMenu" runat="server"/> Any ideas of where I'm losing the event handler? I just realized this is happening on another user control I have as well. A text box and a button and I'm using the default button to make sure pressing the enter key uses that button. .Net converts that in the html to: <div id="SearchBarInclude_SearchBar" onkeypress="javascript:return WebForm_FireDefaultButton(event, 'SearchBarInclude_QuickSearchButton')"> so as soon as i enter a key in the box I get a javascript error at the line saying "object expected." It seems like the two issues are related. Edit Again: I think I need to clarify. It's not that I'm clicking on the menu item and it can't find the selected item on postback. I have this search page with the left navigation on it and then the main content of the page is something that causes a postback. Everything is fine with this postback. Once that page has been posted back, now if I click on the bulleted list in the left navigation I get a javascript error and it fails. The page_init for the LeftMenu control is never called.

  Read the article

• Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

  - by Maddy

  Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

  Read the article

• How to loop a video in Flash

  - by james

  So i had a video that was in quicktime format, threw it into flash, encoded it without a problem and here is the result i got: http://www.healthcarepros.net/travel.html I would like the video to "loop" or "autorewind" as soon as it ends but i am having the hardest time trying to figure how to do this. Here is my code, any help would be greatly appreciated... if (AC_FL_RunContent == 0) { alert("This page requires AC_RunActiveContent.js."); } else { AC_FL_RunContent( 'codebase', 'http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0', 'width', '330', 'height', '245', 'src', 'healthcare-video', 'quality', 'high', 'pluginspage', 'http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer', 'align', 'middle', 'play', 'true', 'loop', 'true', 'scale', 'showall', 'wmode', 'window', 'devicefont', 'false', 'id', 'healthcare-video', 'bgcolor', '#ffffff', 'name', 'healthcare-video', 'menu', 'true', 'allowFullScreen', 'false', 'allowScriptAccess','sameDomain', 'movie', 'healthcare-video', 'salign', '' ); //end AC code } <object classid="clsid:d27cdb6e-ae6d-11cf-96b8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=9,0,0,0" width="330" height="245" id="healthcare-video" align="middle"> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="sameDomain" /> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="false" /> <param name="loop" value="true" /> <param name="play" value="true" /> <param name="movie" value="healthcare-video.swf" /><param name="quality" value="high" /><param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <embed src="healthcare-video.swf" play="true" flashvars="autoplay=true&play=true&autorewind=true" quality="high" bgcolor="#ffffff" width="330" height="245" name="healthcare-video" align="middle" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" allowFullScreen="false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer" /> </object>

  Read the article

• How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

  - by Etienne

  In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

  Read the article

• How do I dispatch to a method based on a parameter's runtime type in C# < 4?

  - by Evan Barkley

  I have an object o which guaranteed at runtime to be one of three types A, B, or C, all of which implement a common interface I. I can control I, but not A, B, or C. (Thus I could use an empty marker interface, or somehow take advantage of the similarities in the types by using the interface, but I can't add new methods or change existing ones in the types.) I also have a series of methods MethodA, MethodB, and MethodC. The runtime type of o is looked up and is then used as a parameter to these methods. public void MethodA(A a) { ... } public void MethodB(B b) { ... } public void MethodC(C c) { ... } Using this strategy, right now a check has to be performed on the type of o to determine which method should be invoked. Instead, I would like to simply have three overloaded methods: public void Method(A a) { ... } // these are all overloads of each other public void Method(B b) { ... } public void Method(C c) { ... } Now I'm letting C# do the dispatch instead of doing it manually myself. Can this be done? The naive straightforward approach doesn't work, of course: Cannot resolve method 'Method(object)'. Candidates are: void Method(A) void Method(B) void Method(C)

  Read the article

• Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

  - by Glinkot

  Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

  Read the article

• Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

  - by Gus

  Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

  Read the article

• transfer database from local machine to hosting server

  - by c11ada

  hey all, im trying to transfer my database from local machine to server, im using the publish to provider wizard in visual web developer to generate a scrip, im then using the generated script on the serever database. i keep getting the following error can some one please tell where im going wrong Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 53 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 58 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 87 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles, Line 92 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 48 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 52 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 79 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 83 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 468, Level 16, State 9, Procedure aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles, Line 93 Cannot resolve the collation conflict between "Latin1_General_CI_AS" and "SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS" in the equal to operation. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_AddUsersToRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. Msg 15151, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Cannot find the object 'aspnet_UsersInRoles_RemoveUsersFromRoles', because it does not exist or you do not have permission. thanks

  Read the article

• iPhone Core Data does not refresh table

  - by Brian515

  Hi all, I'm trying to write an application with Core Data, and I have been able to successfully read and write to the core data database. However, if I write to the database in one view controller, my other view controllers will not see the change until the app is closed then reopened again. This is really frustrating. I'm not entirely sure how to get the refresh - (void)refreshObject:(NSManagedObject *)object mergeChanges:(BOOL)flag method to work. How do I get a reference to my managed object? Anyways, here's the code I'm using to read the data back. This is in the viewDidLoad method. NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Website" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"siteName" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; NSError *error = nil; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; if(mutableFetchResults == nil) { //Handle the error } [self setNewsTitlesArray:mutableFetchResults]; [mutableFetchResults release]; [request release]; [newsSourcesTableView reloadData]; Thanks for help in advance!

  Read the article

• Send HTTPService Request in flex 3 with '-' in the URl Paramerters to get Google Feeds

  - by Goysar

  I am developing application in flex 3 which interacts with the Google feeds to produce my results. The URL to which i want to send request is something like this http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes?q=football+-soccer&start-index=11&max-results=10 Now i can send and receive results with q parameter, but in the next two parameters has a '-' (start-index and max-results). I am using HTTPService to send the requeset like this. SearchService.url = "http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes"; SearchService.method = "GET"; SearchService.contentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Here SearchService is the HTTPService var params:Object = new Object(); params.q = searchText; params.start-index = 11; params.max-results = 100; service.SearchService.send(params); Now my flex IDE throws me a error stating 'Cannot assign a non-reference value'. Only if i send the request with this parameters, i could put pagination in my application. So how can i send HTTPService request with '-' in the URL parameters?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734  | Next Page >