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• Combining properties made available via webservices profile service aspnet

  - by Adam

  I really wasn't sure what the title for my question could be, so sorry if it's a bit vague. I'm working on an application that uses client application services for authentication/profile management etc. In web.config for my website, I have the following profile properties like this: <properties> <add name="FirstName" type="string" defaultValue="" customProviderData="FirstName;nvarchar"/> ... Basic things like first name, last name etc. I'm exposing properties for my client app like this: <system.web.extensions> <scripting> <webServices> <authenticationService enabled="true" requireSSL="false"/> <profileService enabled="true" readAccessProperties="UserProfile" writeAccessProperties="UserProfile"/> <roleService enabled="true"/> </webServices> </scripting> </system.web.extensions> What I'm wondering is whether it's possible to bundle all the individual profile properties into a single object for client apps to utilize? I originally had all my profile data stored as members of a single class (UserProfile) but I broke it all out so that I could use the SqlTableProfileProvider to store each field as individual columns in relevant tables. I know I can create an class with members for each type, I'm just not sure if there's an easy way to create an object with all my property values (other than assigning values to this object whenever I assign to the the standalone properties). I don't think I'm explaining this very well, so I'll try an example. Say in my website profile I have FirstName and LastName as properties. For my client application profileService I want to have one ReadAccessProperty FullName. Is there some way to automatically create FullName from the existing FirstName and LastName properties without having to also have a seperate FullName property (and manually assign data to it whenever I assign data to FirstName and LastName)?

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• How can i add list data in my object?

  - by Phsika

  Below codes run perfectly but i want to re generate simply static void YeniMethodListele() { Calisan calisan = new Calisan(){ ID=1, Ad="yusuf", SoyAd="karatoprak"}; List<Calisan> myList = new List<Calisan>(); myList.Add(calisan); MyCalisan myCalisan = new MyCalisan() { list = myList }; //myCalisan.list.Add(calisan); foreach (Calisan item in myCalisan.list) { Console.WriteLine(item.Ad.ToString()); } } } public class Calisan { public int ID { get; set; } public string Ad { get; set; } public string SoyAd { get; set; } } public class MyCalisan { public List<Calisan> list { get; set; } public MyCalisan() { list = new List<Calisan>(); } } static void YeniMethodListele() { Calisan calisan = new Calisan(){ ID=1, Ad="yusuf", SoyAd="karatoprak"}; MyCalisan myCalisan = new MyCalisan(); myCalisan.list.Add(calisan); foreach (Calisan item in myCalisan.list) { Console.WriteLine(item.Ad.ToString()); } } } public class Calisan { public int ID { get; set; } public string Ad { get; set; } public string SoyAd { get; set; } } public class MyCalisan { public List<Calisan> list { get; set; } public MyCalisan() { list = new List<Calisan>(); } }

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• JBoss: What does the warning EJBTHREE-1246 from the InterceptorRegistry mean?

  - by Simon Lehmann

  I am currently developing an EJB 3.0 based application on the JBoss AS 5.0.0.GA and just recently the following warning showed up in the server log: 09:50:19,735 WARN [InterceptorsFactory] EJBTHREE-1246: Do not use InterceptorsFactory with a ManagedObjectAdvisor, InterceptorRegistry should be used via the bean container 09:50:19,735 WARN [InterceptorsFactory] EJBTHREE-1246: Do not use InterceptorsFactory with a ManagedObjectAdvisor, InterceptorRegistry should be used via the bean container 09:50:19,735 WARN [InterceptorRegistry] applicable interceptors is non-existent for ... ... The warnings are generated as soon as an EJB (a stateless session bean) is injected into a backing bean of my JSF web-application. The beans do work without problems though, but I still would like to know where that warning comes from and what I can do to avoid it. I have already searched a bit around, but haven't found a good answer (some say, bean developers do not have to worry, but its a warning, so I'd like to have a better solution): http://www.jboss.com/index.html?module=bb&op=viewtopic&t=147292 http://www.jboss.com/index.html?module=bb&op=viewtopic&p=4180366 http://www.jboss.com/index.html?module=bb&op=viewtopic&p=4140136 JBoss JIRA Issue about the warning (Not that helpful in my opinion) So has anyone an explanation what causes the warning (in terms of a bean developer, not application server developer) and what to do to avoid it? Update: I've just upgraded JBoss to 5.0.1.GA (Download, Release-Notes) but unfortunatly the warning still appears.

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• Proper use of HttpRequestInterceptor and CredentialsProvider in doing preemptive authentication with

  - by Preston

  I'm writing an application in Android that consumes some REST services I've created. These web services aren't issuing a standard Apache Basic challenge / response. Instead in the server-side code I'm wanting to interrogate the username and password from the HTTP(S) request and compare it against a database user to make sure they can run that service. I'm using HttpClient to do this and I have the credentials stored on the client after the initial login (at least that's how I see this working). So here is where I'm stuck. Preemptive authenticate under HttpClient requires you to setup an interceptor as a static member. This is the example Apache Components uses. HttpRequestInterceptor preemptiveAuth = new HttpRequestInterceptor() { @Override public void process( final HttpRequest request, final HttpContext context) throws HttpException, IOException { AuthState authState = (AuthState) context.getAttribute(ClientContext.TARGET_AUTH_STATE); CredentialsProvider credsProvider = (CredentialsProvider) context.getAttribute( ClientContext.CREDS_PROVIDER); HttpHost targetHost = (HttpHost) context.getAttribute(ExecutionContext.HTTP_TARGET_HOST); if (authState.getAuthScheme() == null) { AuthScope authScope = new AuthScope(targetHost.getHostName(), targetHost.getPort()); Credentials creds = credsProvider.getCredentials(authScope); if (creds != null) { authState.setAuthScheme(new BasicScheme()); authState.setCredentials(creds); } } } }; So the question would be this. What would the proper use of this be? Would I spin this up as part of the application when the application starts? Pulling the username and password out of memory and then using them to create this CredentialsProvider which is then utilized by the HttpRequestInterceptor? Or is there a way to do this more dynamically?

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• Excel VBA - export to UTF-8

  - by Tom

  The macro I created works fine, I just need to sort out the saving business. Now I get a popup asking me where to save it, but I would like it to save it under a default name and path AND encoded in UTF-8. This is my full code I use, the bottom part saves the document I presume. Public Sub ExportToTextFile(FName As String, Sep As String, SelectionOnly As Boolean, AppendData As Boolean) Dim WholeLine As String Dim fnum As Integer Dim RowNdx As Long Dim ColNdx As Integer Dim StartRow As Long Dim EndRow As Long Dim StartCol As Integer Dim EndCol As Integer Dim CellValue As String Dim teller As Integer 'Teller aangemaakt ter controle voor het aantal velden 'teller = 1 Application.ScreenUpdating = False On Error GoTo EndMacro: fnum = FreeFile If SelectionOnly = True Then With Selection StartRow = .Cells(1).Row StartCol = .Cells(26).Column EndRow = .Cells(.Cells.Count).Row EndCol = .Cells(.Cells.Count).Column End With Else With ActiveSheet.UsedRange StartRow = .Cells(1).Row StartCol = .Cells(26).Column EndRow = .Cells(.Cells.Count).Row EndCol = .Cells(26).Column End With End If If AppendData = True Then Open FName For Append Access Write As #fnum Else Open FName For Output Access Write As #fnum End If For RowNdx = StartRow To EndRow WholeLine = "" For ColNdx = StartCol To EndCol If Cells(RowNdx, ColNdx).Value = "" Then CellValue = "" Else CellValue = Cells(RowNdx, ColNdx).Value End If WholeLine = WholeLine & CellValue & Sep Next ColNdx WholeLine = Left(WholeLine, Len(WholeLine) - Len(Sep)) Print #fnum, WholeLine, "" 'Print #fnum, teller, WholeLine, "" 'teller = teller + 1 Next RowNdx EndMacro: On Error GoTo 0 Application.ScreenUpdating = True Close #fnum End Sub Sub Dump4Mini() Dim FileName As Variant Dim Sep As String FileName = Application.GetSaveAsFilename(InitialFileName:=Blank, filefilter:="Text (*.txt),*.txt") If FileName = False Then Exit Sub End If Sep = "|" If Sep = vbNullString Then Exit Sub End If Debug.Print "FileName: " & FileName, "Separator: " & Sep ExportToTextFile FName:=CStr(FileName), Sep:=CStr(Sep), SelectionOnly:=False, AppendData:=False End Sub

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• What's the equivalent of gcc's -mwindows option in cmake?

  - by Runner

  I'm following the tuto: http://zetcode.com/tutorials/gtktutorial/firstprograms/ It works but each time I double click on the executable,there is a console which I don't want it there. How do I get rid of that console? I tried this: add_executable(Cmd WIN32 cmd.c) But got this fatal error: MSVCRTD.lib(crtexew.obj) : error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol _WinMain@16 referenced in function ___tmainCRTStartup Cmd.exe : fatal error LNK1120: 1 unresolved externals While using gcc directly works: gcc -o Cmd cmd.c -mwindows .. I'm guessing it has something to do with the entry function: int main( int argc, char *argv[]),but why gcc works? How can I make it work with cmake? UPDATE Let me paste the source code here for convenience: #include <gtk/gtk.h> int main( int argc, char *argv[]) { GtkWidget *window; gtk_init(&argc, &argv); window = gtk_window_new(GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); gtk_widget_show(window); gtk_main(); return 0; } UPDATE2 Why gcc -mwindows works but add_executable(Cmd WIN32 cmd.c) not? Maybe that's not the equivalent for -mwindows in cmake?

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• C# Uploading files to file server

  - by JustFoo

  Hello All, Currently I have an application that receives an uploaded file from my web application. I now need to transfer that file to a file server which happens to be located on the same network (however this might not always be the case). I was attempting to use the webclient class in C# .NET. string filePath = "C:\\test\\564.flv"; try { WebClient client = new WebClient(); NetworkCredential nc = new NetworkCredential(uName, password); Uri addy = new Uri("\\\\192.168.1.28\\Files\\test.flv"); client.Credentials = nc; byte[] arrReturn = client.UploadFile(addy, filePath); Console.WriteLine(arrReturn.ToString()); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } The machine located at 192.168.1.28 is a file server and has a share c:\Files. As of right now I am receiving an error of Login failed bad user name or password, but I can open explorer and type in that path login successfully. I can also login using remote desktop, so I know the user account works. Any ideas on this error? Is it possible to transfer a file directly like that? With the webclient class or maybe some other class? Thanks

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• How to know if all the Thread Pool's thread are already done with its tasks?

  - by mcxiand

  I have this application that will recurse all folders in a given directory and look for PDF. If a PDF file is found, the application will count its pages using ITextSharp. I did this by using a thread to recursively scan all the folders for pdf, then if then PDF is found, this will be queued to the thread pool. The code looks like this: //spawn a thread to handle the processing of pdf on each folder. var th = new Thread(() => { pdfDirectories = Directory.GetDirectories(pdfPath); processDir(pdfDirectories); }); th.Start(); private void processDir(string[] dirs) { foreach (var dir in dirs) { pdfFiles = Directory.GetFiles(dir, "*.pdf"); processFiles(pdfFiles); string[] newdir = Directory.GetDirectories(dir); processDir(newdir); } } private void processFiles(string[] files) { foreach (var pdf in files) { ThreadPoolHelper.QueueUserWorkItem( new { path = pdf }, (data) => { processPDF(data.path); } ); } } My problem is, how do i know that the thread pool's thread has finished processing all the queued items so i can tell the user that the application is done with its intended task?

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• How do I write test code to exercise a C# generic Pair<TKey, TValue> ?

  - by Scott Davies

  Hi, I am reading through Jon Skeet's "C# in Depth", first edition (which is a great book). I'm in section 3.3.3, page 84, "Implementing Generics". Generics always confuse me, so I wrote some code to exercise the sample. The code provided is: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; public sealed class Pair<TFirst, TSecond> : IEquatable<Pair<TFirst, TSecond>> { private readonly TFirst first; private readonly TSecond second; public Pair(TFirst first, TSecond second) { this.first = first; this.second = second; } ...property getters... public bool Equals(Pair<TFirst, TSecond> other) { if (other == null) { return false; } return EqualityComparer<TFirst>.Default.Equals(this.First, other.First) && EqualityComparer<TSecond>.Default.Equals(this.Second, other.Second); } My code is: class MyClass { public static void Main (string[] args) { // Create new pair. Pair thePair = new Pair(new String("1"), new String("1")); // Compare a new pair to previous pair by generating a second pair. if (thePair.Equals(new Pair(new string("1"), new string("1")))) System.Console.WriteLine("Equal"); else System.Console.WriteLine("Not equal"); } } The compiler complains: "Using the generic type 'ManningListing36.Paie' requires 2 type argument(s) CS0305" What am I doing wrong ? Thanks, Scott

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• Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc 2109, 2965)?

  - by Artyom

  Hello, According to RFC 2109, 2965 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109 and RFC2965 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

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• .net 4.5 Asp Mvc -> Error 403.14- IIS 7 - Windows Server 2008 R2

  - by Boas Enkler

  When I want to deploy an MVC 4 (.net 4.5) application to my iis i got the 403.14 calling me that the content ist not browseable. This also occurs when i deploy the unchanged mvc 4 template. when using the mvc 4 template with .net 4.0 everything works. I checked the other posts but can't figure out the solution. ist set i ran aspnet_regiss -i which completed without any errors. the only strange thing is that .net 4.5 is installed in the .net 4.0 directory %windows%/microsoft.net/Framework64/4.0.30319 From this folder i also ran aspnet_regiis. to ensure that 4.5 is installed i restarted the .net 4.5 setup and it tells me taht it is installes Also the apppools show me 4.0.30319 as version. There is an other application targeting mvc with 4.5 which runs. but i don't know wether it was created with a 4.0 templated and retargeted to 4.5 Any hints? The app.config is the unchanged default from the mvc 4 template. I just tested to create a subfolder which i convert to an application. placing the site there makes it working. But why not on root folder?

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• Help using RDA on a Desktop Applicaton?

  - by Joel

  I have a .NET 3.5 Compact Framework project that uses RDA for moving data between its mobile device's local SqlCe database and a remote MSSql-2008 server(it uses RDA Push and Pull). The server machine a virtual directory with sqlcesa35.dll (v3.5.5386.0) setup for RDA. We usually install these cabs on the mobile devices and the RDA process does not have any problems: sqlce.wce5.armv4i.cab sqlce.repl.wce5.armv4i.cab Now I am trying to run this application as a desktop application. RDA Pull (download) has been working well. But the RDA Push (upload) is giving me some problems. This is the exception that I get on the desktop application when I try to use RDA Push: System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException The Client Agent and Server Agent component versions are incompatible. The compatible versions are: Client Agent versions 3.0 and 3.5 with Server Agent versions 3.5 and Client Agent version 3.5 with Server Agent version 3.5. Re-install the replication components with the matching versions for client and server agents. [ 35,30,Client Agent version = ,Server Agent version = ] I have tried copying the file C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition\v3.5\Desktop\SqlServerCe.dll (v3.5.5692.0) to bin\debug I have also tried copying another version of SqlServerCe.dll (v3.0.5206.0) to bin\debug. But this just gives me a slightly different exception: System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException [ 35,30 ] Is there a different setup or any different dlls that I need to use? Thanks, -Joel

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• firefox and javascript redirection

  - by Joe

  Hello there, I currently have a issue with firefox, where all other browser behave in the right way - even IE6! What I want to do is redirection to a subpage but leaving a history entry. There are 2 methods of rewriting the url as far as I know: window.location = "some.url"; - redirect to some.url with history entry window.location.replace("some.url"); - redirect without history entry So I have to use the first one and tested in the firebug console everthing works fine. Now there is the kind of strange part of this question: the same statement, that worked fine in the console doesn't in some jQuery callback handler: jQuery("#selector").bind("submit", function() { $.getJSON("some_cool_json", function(response) { var redirect_path = response.path; window.location = redirect_path; }); return false; }); where response_path is set correctly, I checked it! Even the redirection is working correctly, but there is no history entry created. Any ideas on that one? Would be great! ;) Cheers Joe

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• SHGetFolderPath returns path with question marks in it

  - by Colen

  Hi, Our application calls ShGetFolderPath when it runs, to get the My Documents folder. This normally works great. However, for three users - ???????, Jörg and Jörgen (see if you can spot the pattern!) - the call returns some very strange results. For example, for ???????, the call returns: c:\Users\???????\Documents I assume there's some sort of character encoding shenanigan going on here, possibly related to Unicode, but I don't have any experience with that sort of thing. How can I get a useful path to the folder (and other related folders) out of windows, without grovelling through registry keys for the information? In an email to me, ??????? ("Dmitry"), told me his "my documents" folder was actually located here: C:\Users\43D6~1\Documents So I know there's a way to get a "normal" version of the path out of Windows, I just don't know what it is. Background: Our application is not unicode-aware, and uses standard "char *" strings. How can we get the "normal" path? I'm not opposed to calling the "unicode" version of the function, then converting it to "normal" text, if that's possible. Converting the application entirely to use unicode is not an option here (we don't have the time). Thanks.

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• Password Confirmation Overlay

  - by Alasdair

  Hello, I'm creating a J2EE web application that uses jQuery and Ajax to help with some of the presentation for a user-friendly interface. I've done a lot of work ensuring security around persistant login cookies, and I've decided to request the password from any user that logged in using a persistant login cookie before being allowed to make any changes that could be malicious. This request would only happen once to confirm the user is who they say they are and will last throughout the session. At present, any requests that meet this criteria has their request information stored in session and then the user is forwarded to a page to confirm their password. Once confirmed, the user's original request is then performed and the requestion information removed from session. What I would like to do is avoid all this redirection and minimize what's held in session (even if it's just for a small time), thus improving usability and convenience for the user. I believe that a jQuery overlay could allow me to prompt the user for their password (if required) and then continue to submit the request if successful. I would of originally used ThickBox, but since that's now deprecated I don't see the benefit in implementing it in an application at this development stage. However, I have tried to create an overlay using jQuery but I've scrapped every attempt as I can't seem to make it all come together. My main problem is preventing the submission when the user incorrectly types a password or cancels the overlay. Desired Flow Persistant Login Sensitive Page Submit Password Confirmation Overlay [Continue Submit | (Cancel | Incorrect] I have already created JavaScript code to encrypt the password to be sent in a parameter, but all I need now is a method of controlling the overlay and how best to use Ajax for this purpose. Please ignore the fact that this is a J2EE web application when answering as it is irrelevant really. Thanks in advance, Alasdair

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• JS Object this.method() breaks via jQuery

  - by Peter Boughton

  I'm sure there's a simple answer to this, but it's Friday afternoon and I'm tired. :( Not sure how to explain it, so I'll just go ahead and post example code... Here is a simple object: var Bob = { Stuff : '' , init : function() { this.Stuff = arguments[0] } , doSomething : function() { console.log( this.Stuff ); } } And here it is being used: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready( init ); function init() { Bob.init('hello'); Bob.doSomething(); $j('#MyButton').click( Bob.doSomething ); } Everything works, except for the last line. When jQuery calls the doSomething method it is overriding 'this' and stopping it from working. Trying to use just Stuff doesn't work either. So how do I refer to an object's own properties in a way that allows jQuery to call it, and also allows the object to work with the calling jQuery object? i.e. I would like to be able to do things like this: doSomething : function() { console.log( <CurrentObject>.Stuff + $j(<CallerElement>).attr('id') ); } (Where <CurrentObject> and <CallerElement> are replaced with appropriate names.)

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• Using WCF to expose underlying process

  - by Steven

  I think I must be a little dull because I'm having so much difficulty with this. I use WCF for pretty much everything in-house, it's the most appropriate technology. I have a new Silverlight 3 app that is connecting to the WCF service and that's working fine. Where the problem begins is: Because of the expense in creating the objects within this service and the high correlation of individual objects being shared between clients I want to have a console application that basically gathers/calculates/caches all the data for the service 24/7 and the service basically connects to the console app (or whatever it is) and gets the pre-processed data. eg, think of it in terms of a stock reporting app (which it is). Person A has a portfolio of x, y z Person B has a portfolio of x, q, z, r The service needs to provide updated metrics on how their portfolio is performing. So instead of every 1 second processing person A, then person B, the app independently gathers the stock price and persons position information into memory and the service just queries the in memory result. Thanks for your help, I really am feeling dumb right now.

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• Uninterruptible Windows Process

  - by Nullstr1ng

  Hi Guys, We're starting a new custom project right now from a client and one of the requirements is the process cannot be terminated unless the system is shutting down, restarting, or logging-off. This application monitors the USB interface. We will be using WMI to query the device periodically. The client want's to run the application on Windows XP Operating System and doesn't like installing .NET. So we targeted Visual Basic 6 as our language. My main concern is this application cannot be terminated. Our Project Adviser talks about Anti-virus and yes, some of the anti virus cannot be terminated. I was thinking how to do the same in Visual Basic 6. I know there will be API involved on the project but where should I go? so API is ok with me. I saw some articles that converts the EXE to a SERVICE, create Windows Service in Visual Basic 6, etc. So please .. share your thoughts.

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• Odd DOM Problem with Firefox

  - by Bob

  Hello. I'm experiencing an odd problem when trying to navigate through a table's rows and cells in a while loop using javascript. I'm using Firefox 3.5.7 on Win7 with Firebug enabled. I have this markup: <table> <tbody> <tr id='firstRow'><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> </tbody> </table> And this javascript: var row = document.getElementById('firstRow'); console.log(row); // Row call 1 while (row) { console.log(row); // Row call 2 row = row.nextSibling; } The problem I'm having is that on the line commented "Row call 1", Firebug is outputting <tr id='firstRow'> as expected. However, in the while loop, Firebug is giving me <tr id='firstRow'> <TextNode textContent="\n"> It is giving me different output for the exact same row, even immediately after the while loop begins executing and nothing else touched the row. For subsequent rows, it of course does not have id='firstRow' as an attribute. The bigger problem this is giving me is that if I'm in the while loop, and I want to access a particular cell of the current row using row.cells[0], Firebug will give me an error that row.cells is undefined. I want to know if someone could shed some light on this situation I am experiencing.

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• VBScript: Disable caching of response from server to HTTP GET URL request

  - by Rob

  I want to turn off the cache used when a URL call to a server is made from VBScript running within an application on a Windows machine. What function/method/object do I use to do this? When the call is made for the first time, my Linux based Apache server returns a response back from the CGI Perl script that it is running. However, subsequent runs of the script seem to be using the same response as for the first time, so the data is being cached somewhere. My server logs confirm that the server is not being called in those subsequent times, only in the first time. This is what I am doing. I am using the following code from within a commercial application (don't wish to mention this application, probably not relevant to my problem): With CreateObject("MSXML2.XMLHTTP") .open "GET", "http://myserver/cgi-bin/nsr/nsr.cgi?aparam=1", False .send nsrresponse =.responseText End With Is there a function/method on the above object to turn off caching, or should I be calling a method/function to turn off the caching on a response object before making the URL? I looked here for a solution: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms535874(VS.85).aspx - not quite helpful enough. And here: http://www.w3.org/TR/XMLHttpRequest/ - very unfriendly and hard to read. I am also trying to force not using the cache using http header settings and html document header meta data: Snippet of server-side Perl CGI script that returns the response back to the calling client, set expiry to 0. print $httpGetCGIRequest-header( -type = 'text/html', -expires = '+0s', ); Http header settings in response sent back to client: <html><head><meta http-equiv="CACHE-CONTROL" content="NO-CACHE"></head> <body> response message generated from server </body> </html> The above http header and html document head settings haven't worked, hence my question.

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• NHibernate Session DI from StructureMap in components

  - by Corey Coogan

  I know this is somewhat of a dead horse, but I'm not finding a satisfactory answer. First let me say, I am NOT dealing with a web app, otherwise managing NH Session is quite simple. I have a bunch of enterprise components. Those components have their own service layer that will act on multiple repositories. For example: Claim Component Claim Processing Service Claim Repository Billing Component Billing Service Billing REpository Policy Component PolicyLockService Policy Repository Now I may have a console, or windows application that needs to coordinate an operation that involves each of the services. I want to write the services to be injected with (DI) their required repositories. The Repositories should have an ISession, or similar, injected into them so that I can have this operation performed under one ISession/ITransaction. I'm aware of the Unit Of Work pattern and the many samples out there, but none of them showed DI. I'm also leery of [ThreadStatic] because this stuff can also be used from WCF and I have found enough posts describing how to do that. I've read about Business Conversations, but need something simple that each windows/console app can easily bootstrap since we have alot of these apps and some pretty inexperienced developers. So how can I configure StructureMap to inject the same ISession into each of the dependent repositories from an application? Here's a totally contrived and totally made up example without using SM (for clarification only - please don't spend energy critisizing): ConsoleApplication Main { using(ISession session = GetSession()) using(ITransaction trans = session.BeginTransaction()) { var policyRepo = new PolicyRepo(session); var policyService = new PolicyService(policyRepo); var billingRepo = new BillingRepo(session) var billingService = new BillingService(billingRepo); var claimRepo = new ClaimsRepo(session); var claimService = new ClaimService(claimRepo, policyService, billingService); claimService.FileCLaim(); trans.Commit(); } }

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• Programming Concepts: What should be done when an exception is thrown?

  - by Dooms101

  This does not really apply to any language specifically, but if it matters I am using VB.NET in Visual Studio 2008. I can't seem to find anything really that useful using Google about this topic, but I was wondering what is common practice when an exception is thrown and caught but since it has been thrown the application cannot continue operating. For example I have exceptions that are thrown by my FileLoader class when a file cannot be found or when a file is deemed corrupt. The exception is only thrown within the class and is not handled really. If the error is detected, then the exception is thrown and whatever function is was thrown is basically quits. So in the code trying to create that object or call one of its members I use a Try...Catch statement. However, I was wondering, what should even do when this exception is caught? My application needs these files to be intact, and if they are not, the application is almost useless. So far I just pop up a message box telling the user their is an error and to reinstall. What else can I do, or better, what's common practice in these situations?

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• Long text input from user and PDF generation

  - by Petteri Hietavirta

  I have built a web application that can be seen as an overcomplicated application form. There are bunch of text areas with a given character limit. After the form submission various things happen and one of them is PDF generation. The text is queried from the DB and inserted in the PDF template created in iReports. This works fine but the major pain is overflowing text. The maximum number of characters is set based on 'average' text. But sometimes people prefer to write with CAPS or add plenty of linefeeds to format their text. These then cause user's text to overflow the space given in PDF. Unfortunately the PDF document must look like a real application form so I cannot allow unlimited space. What kind of approaches you have used to tackle this? Clean/restrict user input? Calculate the space requirement of the text based on font metrics? Provide preview of the PDF? (too bad users are not allowed to change their input after submission...)

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• Getting broken link error whle Using App Engine service accounts

  - by jade

  I'm following this tutorial https://developers.google.com/bigquery/docs/authorization#service-accounts-appengine Here is my main.py code import httplib2 from apiclient.discovery import build from google.appengine.ext import webapp from google.appengine.ext.webapp.util import run_wsgi_app from oauth2client.appengine import AppAssertionCredentials # BigQuery API Settings SCOPE = 'https://www.googleapis.com/auth/bigquery' PROJECT_NUMBER = 'XXXXXXXXXX' # REPLACE WITH YOUR Project ID # Create a new API service for interacting with BigQuery credentials = AppAssertionCredentials(scope=SCOPE) http = credentials.authorize(httplib2.Http()) bigquery_service = build('bigquery', 'v2', http=http) class ListDatasets(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): datasets = bigquery_service.datasets() listReply = datasets.list(projectId=PROJECT_NUMBER).execute() self.response.out.write('Dataset list:') self.response.out.write(listReply) application = webapp.WSGIApplication( [('/listdatasets(.*)', ListDatasets)], debug=True) def main(): run_wsgi_app(application) if __name__ == "__main__": main() Here is my app.yaml file code application: bigquerymashup version: 1 runtime: python api_version: 1 handlers: - url: /favicon\.ico static_files: favicon.ico upload: favicon\.ico - url: .* script: main.py And yes i have added app engine service account name in google api console Team tab with can edit permissions. When upload the app and try to access the link it says Oops! This link appears to be broken. Ealier i ran this locally and tried to access it using link localhost:8080.Then i thought may be running locally might be giving the error so i uploaded my code to http://bigquerymashup.appspot.com/ but still its giving error.

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• Implement user authentication against remote DB with a Web Service

  - by Juan González

  I'm just starting reasearch about the best way to implement user authentication within my soon-to-be app. This is what I have so far: A desktop (Windows) application on a remote server. That application is accessed locally with a browser (it has a web console and MS SQL Server to store everything). The application is used with local credendials stored in the DB. This is what I'd like to accompllish: Provide access to some information on that SQL Server DB from my app. That access of course must be granted once a user has id himself with valid credentials. This is what I know so far: How to create my PHP web service and query info from a DB using JSON. How to work with AFNetworking libraries to retrieve information. How to display that info on the app. What I don't know is which could be the best method to implement user authentication from iOS. Should I send username and password? Should I send some hash? Is there a way to secure the handshake? I'd for sure appreciate any advise, tip, or recommendation you have from previous experience. I don't want to just implement it but instead I want to do it as good as possible.

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