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  • AutoCompleteTextView displays 'android.database.sqlite.SQLiteCursor@'... after making selection

    - by user244190
    I am using the following code to set the adapter (SimpleCursorAdapter) for an AutoCompleteTextView mComment = (AutoCompleteTextView) findViewById(R.id.comment); Cursor cComments = myAdapter.getDistinctComments(); scaComments = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this,R.layout.auto_complete_item,cComments,new String[] {DBAdapter.KEY_LOG_COMMENT},new int[]{R.id.text1}); mComment.setAdapter(scaComments); auto_complete_item.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <TextView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/text1" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> and thi is the xml for the actual control <AutoCompleteTextView android:id="@+id/comment" android:hint="@string/COMMENT" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:textSize="18dp"/> The dropdown appears to work correctly, and shows a list of items. When I make a selection from the list I get a sqlite object ('android.database.sqlite.SQLiteCursor@'... ) in the textview. Anyone know what would cause this, or how to resolve this? thanks Ok I am able to hook into the OnItemClick event, but the TextView.setText() portion of the AutoCompleteTextView widget is updated after this point. The OnItemSelected() event never gets fired, and the onNothingSelected() event gets fired when the dropdown items are first displayed. mComment.setOnItemClickListener( new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> arg0, View arg1, int arg2, long arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub SimpleCursorAdapter sca = (SimpleCursorAdapter) arg0.getAdapter(); String str = getSpinnerSelectedValue(sca,arg2,"comment"); TextView txt = (TextView) arg1; txt.setText(str); Toast.makeText(ctx, "onItemClick", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }); mComment.setOnItemSelectedListener(new OnItemSelectedListener() { @Override public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0, View arg1, int arg2, long arg3) { Toast.makeText(ctx, "onItemSelected", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } @Override public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Toast.makeText(ctx, "onNothingSelected", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }); Anyone alse have any ideas on how to override the updating of the TextView? thanks patrick

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  • (fluent) nhibernate conditional table mapping strategy

    - by grenade
    I have no control over database schema and have the following (simplified) table structure: CityProfile Id Name CountryProfile Id Name RegionProfile Id Name I have a .Net enum and class encapsulating the lot: public enum Scope { Region, Country, City } public class Profile { public Scope Scope { get; set; } public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } I am looking for a mechanism that allows me to map to the correct table, something like: public class ProfileMap : ClassMap<Profile> { public ProfileMap() { switch (x => x.Scope) { // <--Invalid code here! case Scope.City: Table("CityProfile"); break; case Scope.Country: Table("CountryProfile"); break; case Scope.Region: Table("RegionProfile"); break; } Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); } } Or have I approached this wrong?

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  • Dependency Property on ValueConverter

    - by spoon16
    I'm trying to initialize a converter in the Resources section of my UserControl with a reference to one of the objects in my control. When I try to run the application I get an XAML parse exception. XAML: <UserControl.Resources> <converter:PointConverter x:Key="pointConverter" Map="{Binding ElementName=ThingMap}" /> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <m:Map x:Name="ThingMap" /> </Grid> Point Converter Class: public class PointConverter : DependencyObject, IValueConverter { public Microsoft.Maps.MapControl.Map Map { get { return (Microsoft.Maps.MapControl.Map)GetValue(MapProperty); } set { SetValue(MapProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Map. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty MapProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Map", typeof(Microsoft.Maps.MapControl.Map), typeof(PointConverter), null); public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { string param = (string)parameter; Microsoft.Maps.MapControl.Location location = value as Microsoft.Maps.MapControl.Location; if (location != null) { Point point = Map.LocationToViewportPoint(location); if (string.Compare(param.ToUpper(), "X") == 0) return point.X; else if (string.Compare(param.ToUpper(), "Y") == 0) return point.Y; return point; } return null; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } }

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  • Is this possible? Overflow-y:visible with overflow-x:scroll/auto

    - by Kostrzak
    We have a problem in our team which we cannot solve :/ We made our own Grid control. When you click on the icon next to column name, the pop-up div (call it divFilter) appears and you can set filtering there. There can be dynamically generated div for each column so we can have f.e 5 divFilters in 5 different places. It works, but the only problem is that when there is for example 1-2 records on the Grid, the pop-up div will be displayed under horizontal scroll of div. We've tried with z-index but it looks like that won't work. We can set overflow:visible but we also need that horizontal scroll(our grids have up to 50 columns). We thought that we can solve it buy setting overflow-y visible and overflow-x:scroll but according to our tests and that page: http://www.brunildo.org/test/Overflowxy2.html it isn't possible(for IE7,IE8). I've also found this similar question CSS overflow-y:visible, overflow-x:scroll ,but our pop-up div must be position:absolute, because we need to position them under columns. Any ideas or workaround to it? Is it even possible to set it only with CSS without using Javascript(for dynamically changing gridview hight etc.). Thanks!!

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  • WPF Exposing a calculated property for binding (as DependencyProperty)

    - by kubal5003
    Hello, I have a complex WPF control that for some reasons (ie. performance) is not using dependency properties but simple C# properties (at least at the top level these are exposed as properties). The goal is to make it possible to bind to some of those top level properties - I guess I should declare them as DPs.(right? or is there some other way to achieve this? ) I started reading on MSDN about DependencyProperties and DependencyObjects and found an example: public class MyStateControl : ButtonBase { public MyStateControl() : base() { } public Boolean State { get { return (Boolean)this.GetValue(StateProperty); } set { this.SetValue(StateProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty StateProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "State", typeof(Boolean), typeof(MyStateControl),new PropertyMetadata(false)); } If I'm right - this code enforces the property to be backed up by DependencyProperty which restricts it to be a simple property with a store(from functional point of view, not technically) instead of being able to calculate the property value each time getter is called and setting other properties/fields each time setter is called. What can I do about that? Is there any way I could make those two worlds meet at some point?

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  • Datetime Format Setting In SSRS

    - by Amit
    We have a requirement where date time values would be passed to the report parameter which is of "String" date type (and not "DateTime"). The report parameter would be a queried one i.e. it would have a list of values in which the passed value should fall in. The strange part is that if the date time value passed to this parameter is passed in this format mm/dd/yyyy hh:mm:ss AM/PM then only it succeeds otherwise a error is displayed (If month/date/hour/minute/second is having a single digit value then we need to pass single digit value to parameter as well). Assuming that the report server picks this format from the "regional settings" in control panel, we tried modifying the date & time formats as yyyy-mm-dd & HH:mm:ss but the outcome was the same. On researching more I found some suggestions specifying to change the language property in the rdl (I was not able to figure out how) but this would not be the solution I am looking for. I also found another topic here but it didn't provide the solution but it didn't provide the solution we are looking for. I need to understand on if this format is controlled by the report server & is it configurable. It would be great if someone can provide some guidance. Thanks.

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  • "Permission denied to access property 'href' from a non-chrome context" in JavaScript and OpenLayers

    - by Mark Iliffe
    This is really two questions one leading into the other. Firstly what does 'Permission denied to access property 'href' from a non-chrome context' actually mean? Secondly I am using overlays in OpenLayers and wish to change the opacity of said layers, this is where this error is being thrown the code of which is here... <input id='opacity' value="1.0" onChange="changeOpacity()"> Of which changeOpacity() is the following function... function changeOpacity() { var newOpacity = parseFloat(OpenLayers.Util.getElement('opacity').value); newOpacity = Math.min(1.0, Math.max(0.1, newOpacity)); OpenLayers.Util.getElement('opacity').value = newOpacity; for (var i=0; i<images.length; i++) { layers[images[i]].setOpacity(newOpacity); } } which throws the error at "var href = originalElement.href;" here... function mD(e) { //what is originalElement/srcElement/originalTarget? var originalElement = e.srcElement || e.originalTarget; var href = originalElement.href; if (originalElement.nodeName == "A" && href.match("http://www.openstreetmap.org/browse/")) { href = href.replace('http://www.openstreetmap.org/browse/','http://www.openstreetmap.org/api/0.6/'); if (gml) { map.removeLayer(gml); } //$("status").innerHTML = 'loading'; } gml = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("OSM", href, {format: OpenLayers.Format.OSM}); map.addLayer(gml); gml.preFeatureInsert = style_osm_feature; var sf = new OpenLayers.Control.SelectFeature(gml, {'onSelect': on_feature_hover}); map.addControl(sf); sf.activate(); return false; } } Any help/ideas is great appreciated! I am using firefox 3.5.9 and firebug 1.5.4

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  • What is the most important thing you weren't taught in school?

    - by Alexandre Brisebois
    What is the most important thing you weren't taught in school? What topics are missing from the CS/IS education? Posted so far How to sell an idea Principles: Often, good enough is better than perfect. Making mistakes is actually a Good Thing™ -- as long as they're new mistakes. If a user can break your code they will. In the Real World™ they're all open-book exams Self confidence is way more important in getting ahead than intelligence. Always prefer simplicity over complexity. The best code is the code that you don't write. You never know when you'll meet someone again ... or where. It's always worthwhile to treat people with respect and kindness. Be aware of what you don't know and don't be afraid to ask questions when you need to Missing knowledge: How to communicate effectively. Lack of source control Lack of Softskills experience How to productize code How to write secure code How to formulate problems How to self-measurement. To evaluate ones true competences and market worth. How to debug code How important is backup How to read code on a large scale (being able to adapt and build upon existing projects) Good Regular expressions comprehension How to teach others effectively TDD/Unit testing Critical thinking How to integrate different skills and languages in a single project

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  • WPF Usercontrol interaction with parent view / viewmodel

    - by obaylis
    Hi I have a mainView window which has its dataContext set to it's own viewModel. On that viewModel is a DateTime property which in turn is bound to a datepicker on my main view using 2 way binding. <toolkit:DatePicker DateSelected="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty, Mode=TwoWay}" /> This is all fine so far. On the change of my datetime property I create a list which is then bound to a datagrid elsewhere on the mainview. This all works fine. My question is to do with a usercontrol I want to add to the main view. I want this usercontrol to be self contained so have created it with it's own viewmodel but it does also need access to mainDateTimeProperty I thought that best way to go would be to create a dependencyProperty on the usercontrol and when I create my control in the main view I bind the dp to the datetime as follows. <uc:MyNewUserControl DateProperty="{Binding mainDateTimeProperty}" /> Trouble is how do I have the usercontrol maintain datacontext with it's viewmodel and yet still have the dependency property bound to a property on the main view model? Hope this is clear. Can post some more code if necessary. Looking for a best practice approach if possible. Thanks very much for any advice.

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  • How to determine the correct (case sensitive) URL for a SharePoint site

    - by Goyuix
    SharePoint is generally very tolerant of accepting a URL in a case-insensitive fashion, however there are a few cases where it completely breaks down. For example, when creating a site column it somehow stores and uses the URL when it was created, and when trying to edit the field definition through the Site Column Gallery (fldedit.aspx page in the LAYOUTS) you end up throwing the error below. Value does not fall within the expected range. at Microsoft.SharePoint.SPFieldCollection.GetFieldByInternalName(String strName, Boolean bThrowException) at Microsoft.SharePoint.SPFieldCollection.GetFieldByInternalName(String strName) at Microsoft.SharePoint.ApplicationPages.BasicFieldEditPage.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) How can I reliably get the correct URL for a site/web? The SPSite.Url and SPWeb.Url properties seem to return back whatever case they are instantiated with. In other words, the site collection is provisioned using the following URL: http://server/Path/Site If I create a new Site Column using the SharePoint object model and happen to use http://server/path/site when instantiating the SPSite and SPWeb objects, the site column will be made available but when trying to access it through the gallery the error above is generated. If I correct the URL in the address bar, I can still view/modify the definition for the SPField in question, but the default URL that is generated is bogus. Clear as mud? Example code: (this is a bad example because of the case sensitivity issue) // note: site should be partially caps: http://server/Path/Site using (SPSite site = new SPSite("http://server/path/site")) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { web.Fields.AddFieldAsXml("..."); // correct XML really here } }

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  • Deploy multiple instances of an EAR (representing versions) to Glassfish

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I basically want to be able to deploy multiple versions of the same EAR file to the same server (Glassfish instance?) , and have a unique path to each version separating them. From my reading on this it appears that multiple EARs deploy to the root of the web server namespace so that they can coexist if they do not have colliding context-root's of WAR's. In my case I'd rather have that instead of everything going under "/", I'd like to be able to brand a given EAR-file build to ALWAYS deploy under a given path like "/foo-20100319" or "/foo-CUSTOMER-20010101". This can easily be done with a single WAR file just by renaming it. I do not need or want them to disturb each other. It is my understanding that this remapping is outside the scope of the application.xml file, so I found that http://docs.sun.com/app/docs/doc/820-7693/beayr?a=view says that I can specify web-uri and context-root, but I am not certain that what I wish to do, can be specified with these in Glassfish. How should I approach this? I have full control over the build process. (I have found http://stackoverflow.com/questions/877390/deploying-multiple-java-web-apps-to-glassfish-in-one-go but I am not certain how to apply this to what I need).

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  • Posting xml from classic asp to asp.net

    - by Chris Dunaway
    I apologize if this has been asked before. I searched and didn't find anything that matched my situation. Also bear in mind I am fairly new to asp/asp.net development. My current project is a relatively simple e-commerce site. The customer will connect to the site, select products, input shipping and billing information, payment information (credit card) and submit the order. The project is being split into two parts: The store front which includes displaying the items and taking the customer's shipping and billing information and the payment site which will collect the customers credit card, compute tax, and save the order into the company's system. The reason that the site was split up, was that our side (payment side) already has facilities for credit card handling and tax computation. There may also be some regulatory issues that the store front side does not want to deal with (which we already do). I'm working on the payment portion of the app and I am using asp.net. The store front side is being written in classic asp (not my decision). Each part will be hosted on different servers. The problem I am having is transferring the contents of the "shopping cart" to our app so that we can collect the cc info and submit the order. We had thought that the classic asp could somehow post an xml fragment which contains the billing/shipping info and the items selected. Our side would display a summary of the order, securely collect the credit card info, and submit the order to our system. But I have been unable to post or send the xml from a classic asp on one server, to our asp.net application on another. It all works just fine when I test on the same server. How can I post (or otherwise transfer) the shopping cart data from classic asp to asp.net across server boundaries and transfer control to the asp.net application? As I said, I am new to web development, so this is proving quite a challenge for me. Thanks

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  • Debugger Visualizer, ElementHost, and Edit and Continue problems

    - by Frank Fella
    I recently wrote a custom Debugger Visualizer for Visual Studio 2008 for one of the custom types in my application. The UI for the visualizer is written in WPF and is hosted in an element host and shown using the IDialogVisualizerService windowService object. Everything works great, and my visualizer loads and shows the relevant information, but if try to "edit and continue" in my application after loading the visualizer, Visual Studio crashes with no useful error message. In trying to debug this I removed almost all of my code from the solution to the point where I was only serializing a string with the ObjectSource and displaying just an empty element host and I still get the crash on edit and continue. If I remove the element host and show a WinForms control or form there is no crash. Here is the Visualizer code: using System; using System.Drawing; using System.IO; using System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Windows.Forms.Integration; using Microsoft.VisualStudio.DebuggerVisualizers; using ObjectVisualizerShared; using ObjectVisualizerUI; namespace ObjectVisualizer { public class Visualizer : DialogDebuggerVisualizer { protected override void Show(IDialogVisualizerService windowService, IVisualizerObjectProvider objectProvider) { try { Stream stream = objectProvider.GetData(); if (stream.Length > 0) { BinaryFormatter formatter = new BinaryFormatter(); VisualizerNode node = (VisualizerNode)formatter.Deserialize(stream); if (node != null) { VisualizerWindow window = new VisualizerWindow(node); ElementHost host = new ElementHost(); host.Child = window; host.Dock = DockStyle.Fill; host.Size = new Size(800, 600); windowService.ShowDialog(host); } } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(string.Format("Error!\n{0}", ex), "Object Visualizer"); } } } } Any ideas?

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  • Django forms, inheritance and order of form fields

    - by Hannson
    I'm using Django forms in my website and would like to control the order of the fields. Here's how I define my forms: class edit_form(forms.Form): summary = forms.CharField() description = forms.CharField(widget=forms.TextArea) class create_form(edit_form): name = forms.CharField() The name is immutable and should only be listed when the entity is created. I use inheritance to add consistency and DRY principles. What happens which is not erroneous, in fact totally expected, is that the name field is listed last in the view/html but I'd like the name field to be on top of summary and description. I do realize that I could easily fix it by copying summary and description into create_form and loose the inheritance but I'd like to know if this is possible. Why? Imagine you've got 100 fields in edit_form and have to add 10 fields on the top in create_form - copying and maintaining the two forms wouldn't look so sexy then. (This is not my case, I'm just making up an example) So, how can I override this behavior? Edit: Apparently there's no proper way to do this without going through nasty hacks (fiddling with .field attribute). The .field attribute is a SortedDict (one of Django's internal datastructures) which doesn't provide any way to reorder key:value pairs. It does how-ever provide a way to insert items at a given index but that would move the items from the class members and into the constructor. This method would work, but make the code less readable. The only other way I see fit is to modify the framework itself which is less-than-optimal in most situations. In short the code would become something like this: class edit_form(forms.Form): summary = forms.CharField() description = forms.CharField(widget=forms.TextArea) class create_form(edit_form): def __init__(self,*args,**kwargs): forms.Form.__init__(self,*args,**kwargs) self.fields.insert(0,'name',forms.CharField()) That shut me up :)

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  • Silverlight DataForm Memory Leak

    - by Andrew Garrison
    Some Background I have noticed that setting the EditTemplate of a DataForm (from the Silverlight Toolkit) can cause the DataForm to not be garbage collected. Consequently, the parent control of the DataForm cannot be garbage collected either, causing a very significant memory leak. Here's some XAML which demonstrates the case. <toolkit:DataForm HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="10" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <toolkit:DataForm.EditTemplate> <DataTemplate> <toolkit:DataField Label="Dummy Binding:"> <TextBox Text="{Binding DummyBinding, Mode=TwoWay}" /> </toolkit:DataField> </DataTemplate> </toolkit:DataForm.EditTemplate> </toolkit:DataForm> I have opened an issue on CodePlex. The isssue has an attachment which has a project which desmonstrates the case. So, My Question Is Has anyone else encountered this issue? More importantly, does anyone know of any workarounds? How can I force this DataForm to be garbage collected?

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  • Use VersionControlExt.Explorer outside Visual Studio

    - by Ian
    Hi All, I'm developing a TFS tool to assist the developers in our company. This said tool needs to be able to "browse" the TFS server like in the Source Control Explorer. I believe that by using VersionControlExt.Explorer.SelectedItems, a UI will pop-up that will enable the user to browse the TFS server (please correct me if I'm wrong). However, VersionControlExt is only accessible when developing inside Visual Studio (aka Plugin). Unfortunately, I am developing a Windows Application that won;t run inside VS. So the question is, Can I use VersionControlExt outside of Visual Studio? If yes, how? Here's an attempt on using the Changset Details Dialog outside of Visual Studio string path = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location); Assembly vcControls = Assembly.LoadFile(path + @"\Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Controls.dll"); Assembly vcClient = Assembly.LoadFile(path + @"\Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Client.dll"); Type dialogChangesetDetailsType = vcControls.GetType("Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Controls.DialogChangesetDetails",true); Type[] ctorTypes = new Type[3] {vcClient.GetType("Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Client.VersionControlSever"), vcClient.GetType("Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Client.Changeset"), typeof(System.Boolean)}; ConstructorInfo ctorInfo = dialogChangesetDetailsType.GetConstructor(ctorTypes); Object[] ctorObjects = new Object[3] {VersionControlHelper.CurrentVersionControlServer, uc.ChangeSet, true}; Object oDialog = ctorInfo.Invoke(ctorObjects); dialogChangesetDetailsType.InvokeMember("ShowDialog", BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, oDialog, null);

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  • KeepAlive packets over a Soap request

    - by Nycto
    I've been debugging some Soap requests we are making between two servers on the same VLAN. The app on one server is written in PHP, the app on the other is written in Java. I can control and make changes to the PHP code, but I can't affect the Java server. The PHP app forms the XML using the DOMDocument objects, then sends the request using the cURL extension. When the soap request took longer than 5 minutes to complete, it would always wait until the max timeout limit and exit with a message like this: Operation timed out after 900000 milliseconds with 0 bytes received After sniffing the packets that were being sent, it turns out that the problem was caused by a 5 minute timeout in the network that was closing what it thought was a stale connection. There were two ways to fix it: bump up the timeout in iptables, or start sending KeepAlive packets over the request. To be thorough, I would like to implement both solutions. Bumping up the timeout was easy for ops to do, but sending KeepAlive packets is turning out to be difficult. The cURL library itself supports this (see the --keepalive-time flag for the CLI app), but it doesn't appear that this has been implemented in the PHP cURL library. I even checked the source to make sure it wasn't an undocumented feature. So my question is this: How the heck can I get these packets sent? I see a few clear options, but I don't like any of them: Write a wrapper that will kick off the request by shell_execing the CLI app. This is a hack that I just don't like Update the cURL extension to support this. This is a non-option according to Ops. Open the socket myself. I know just enough to be dangerous. I also haven't seen a way to do this with fsockopen, but I could be missing something. Switch to another library. What exists that supports this? Thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • C#: WebBrowser.Navigated Only Fires when I MessageBox.Show();

    - by tsilb
    I have a WebBrowser control which is being instantiated dynamically from a background STA thread because the parent thread is a BackgroundWorker and has lots of other things to do. The problem is that the Navigated event never fires, unless I pop a MessageBox.Show() in the method that told it to .Navigate(). I shall explain: ThreadStart ts = new ThreadStart(GetLandingPageContent_ChildThread); Thread t = new Thread(ts); t.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t.Name = "Mailbox Processor"; t.Start(); protected void GetLandingPageContent_ChildThread() { WebBrowser wb = new WebBrowser(); wb.Navigated += new WebBrowserNavigatedEventHandler(wb_Navigated); wb.Navigate(_url); MessageBox.Show("W00t"); } protected void wb_Navigated(object sender, WebBrowserNavigatedEventArgs e) { WebBrowser wb = (WebBrowser)sender; // Breakpoint HtmlDocument hDoc = wb.Document; } This works fine; but the messagebox will get in the way since this is an automation app. When I remove the MessageBox.Show(), the WebBrowser.Navigated event never fires. I've tried supplanting this line with a Thread.Sleep(), and by suspending the parent thread. Once I get this out of the way, I intend to Suspend the parent thread while the WebBrowser is doing its job and find some way of passing the resulting HTML back to the parent thread so it can continue with further logic. Why does it do this? How can I fix it? If someone can provide me with a way to fetch the content of a web page, fill out some data, and return the content of the page on the other side of the submit button, all against a webserver that doesn't support POST verbs nor passing data via QueryString, I'll also accept that answer as this whole exercise will have been unneccessary.

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  • How can I get a Silverlight application to check for an update without the user clicking a button?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have made an out-of-browser silverlight application which I want to automatically update every time there is a new .xap file uploaded to the server. When the user right-clicks the application and clicks on Updates, the default is set to "Check for updates, but let me choose whether to download and install them": This leads me to believe that it is possible to make my Silverlight application automatically detect if there is a new .xap file present on the server, and if there is, the Silverlight client will automatically ask the user if he would like to install it. This however is not the case. I upload a new .xap file and the Silverlight application does nothing. Even if I add this to my App.xaml.cs: -- private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { this.RootVisual = new BaseApp(); if (Application.Current.IsRunningOutOfBrowser) { Application.Current.CheckAndDownloadUpdateAsync(); } } and update the .xap file, the Silverlight application does nothing. This information leads me to believe that I have to make a button which the user clicks to see if there is an update. But I don't want the user to have to click a button every day to see if there is an update. I want the application to check by itself if there is a new .xap file and if there is, let the client ask the user if he wants the update. How do I make my Silverlight application check, each time it starts, if there is a new .xap file, and if there is, pass control to the Silverlight client to ask the user if he wants to download it, as the above dialogue implies is possible?

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  • ClickOnce permissions

    - by stephenfalken
    We recently updated our main website. This included creating a new directory to hold the new site; then, some of the existing subdirectories needed to be copied over. Some of the virtual directories below the main site are clickonce publishing locations. These have been 100% successful publishing locations for 3 years now. We would update the application in Visual Studio and then publish... painless. Very long story short, since we've copied the directories to the new main site location on disk, all of our clickonce sites except one will no longer publish. They all fail with an error saying "you are not authorized to perform the current operation". This is immeidately after we set permissions to Full Control for my domain user group. I've checked everything I know how to check as far as permissions go and made the non-working ones' permissions match the one that does work, but no joy. We had problems on Friday and I fixed the one site that does work, but I can't remember how I fixed it; all I remember is that it took a long time screwing with it to make it work. Could there be some arcane setting in IIS that has been omitted? Is there a simple list of things to check anywhere on the Net? ClickOnce information is scattered among 50,000 URLs and I haven't been able to figure it out again. Thanks

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  • YSlow Grade F on Add Expires headers - help please

    - by gwmbox
    I am using Joomla for my site and I have included Expires Headers in my htaccess file, however when checking the site via YSlow the grade is still F, the code in the htaccess file for this is <IfModule mod_expires.c> # Enable expiration control ExpiresActive On # Default expiration: Immediate after request ExpiresDefault "now" # CSS and JS expiration: 1 week after request ExpiresByType text/css "now plus 1 week" ExpiresByType application/javascript "now plus 1 week" ExpiresByType application/x-javascript "now plus 1 week" # Image files expiration: 1 month after request ExpiresByType image/bmp "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/gif "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/jpeg "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/jp2 "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/pipeg "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/png "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/svg+xml "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/tiff "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/vnd.microsoft.icon "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/x-icon "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/ico "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/icon "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType text/ico "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType application/ico "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/vnd.wap.wbmp "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType application/vnd.wap.wbxml "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType application/smil "now plus 1 month" # Audio files expiration: 1 month after request ExpiresByType audio/basic "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType audio/mid "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType audio/midi "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType audio/mpeg "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType audio/x-aiff "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType audio/x-mpegurl "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType audio/x-pn-realaudio "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType audio/x-wav "now plus 1 month" # Movie files expiration: 1 month after request ExpiresByType application/x-shockwave-flash "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType x-world/x-vrml "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType video/x-msvideo "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType video/mpeg "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType video/mp4 "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType video/quicktime "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType video/x-la-asf "now plus 1 month" ExpiresByType video/x-ms-asf "now plus 1 month" # webfonts ExpiresByType font/truetype "access plus 1 month" ExpiresByType font/opentype "access plus 1 month" ExpiresByType application/x-font-woff "access plus 1 month" ExpiresByType image/svg+xml "access plus 1 month" ExpiresByType application/vnd.ms-fontobject "access plus 1 month" </IfModule> Can someone please tell me why it is not being graded by Yslow? Thanks GW

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  • Looping through python-dictionary-turned-into-json in javascript.

    - by Phil
    In writing a django app, I am returning the following json on a jQuery ajax call: { "is_owner": "T", "author": "me", "overall": "the surfing lifestyle", "score": "1", "meanings": { "0": "something", "1": "something else", "3": "yet something else", "23": "something random" }, "user vote": "1" } In the javascript/jQuery callback function, I can access the is_owner, author, etc. easily enough. is_owner = json.is_owner; author = json.author; But for meanings, the numbers are different depending on what it pulls from the server. On the server side for the meanings part, right now what I'm doing is constructing a dictionary like so: meanings_dict = {} meanings = requested_tayke.meanings.all() for meaning in meanings: meanings_dict[meaning.location] = meaning.text and then returning a json I create like this: test_json = simplejson.dumps({'is_owner':is_owner, 'overall':overall, 'score':str(score),'user vote':str(user_vote), 'author': author, 'meanings' : meanings_dict }) print test_json return HttpResponse(test_json) My question is this: how do I access the 'meanings' data from my json in javascript? I need to loop through all of it. Maybe I need to be loading it into json differently. I have full control so of both the server and client side so I'm willing to change either to make it work. Also worth noting: I'm not using Django's serialize functionality. I couldn't make it work with my situation.

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  • Asp.Net MVC2 Clientside Validation problem with controls with prefixes

    - by alexander
    The problem is: when I put 2 controls of the same type on a page I need to specify different prefixes for binding. In this case the validation rules generated right after the form are incorrect. So how to get client validation work for the case?: the page contains: <% Html.RenderPartial(ViewLocations.Shared.PhoneEditPartial, new PhoneViewModel { Phone = person.PhonePhone, Prefix = "PhonePhone" }); Html.RenderPartial(ViewLocations.Shared.PhoneEditPartial, new PhoneViewModel { Phone = person.FaxPhone, Prefix = "FaxPhone" }); %> the control ViewUserControl<PhoneViewModel>: <%= Html.TextBox(Model.GetPrefixed("CountryCode"), Model.Phone.CountryCode) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Phone.CountryCode", new { id = Model.GetPrefixed("CountryCode"), name = Model.GetPrefixed("CountryCode") })%> where Model.GetPrefixed("CountryCode") just returns "FaxPhone.CountryCode" or "PhonePhone.CountryCode" depending on prefix And here is the validation rules generated after the form. They are duplicated for the field name "Phone.CountryCode". While the desired result is 2 rules (required, number) for each of the FieldNames "FaxPhone.CountryCode", "PhonePhone.CountryCode" The question is somewhat duplicate of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2675606/asp-net-mvc2-clientside-validation-and-duplicate-ids-problem but the advise to manually generate ids doesn't helps.

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  • Creating A Single Generic Handler For Agatha?

    - by David
    I'm using the Agatha request/response library (and StructureMap, as utilized by Agatha 1.0.5.0) for a service layer that I'm prototyping, and one thing I've noticed is the large number of handlers that need to be created. It generally makes sense that any request/response type pair would need their own handler. However, as this scales to a large enterprise environment that's going to be A LOT of handlers. What I've started doing is dividing up the enterprise domain into logical processor classes (dozens of processors instead of many hundreds or possibly eventually thousands handlers). The convention is that each request/response type (all of which inherit from a domain base request/response pair, which inherit from Agatha's) gets exactly one function in a processor somewhere. The generic handler (which inherits from Agatha's RequestHandler) then uses reflection in the Handle method to find the method for the given TREQUEST/TRESPONSE and invoke it. If it can't find one or if it finds more than one, it returns a TRESPONSE containing an error message (messages are standardized in the domain's base response class). The goal here is to allow developers across the enterprise to just concern themselves with writing their request/response types and processor functions in the domain and not have to spend additional overhead creating handler classes which would all do exactly the same thing (pass control to a processor function). However, it seems that I still need to have defined a handler class (albeit empty, since the base handler takes care of everything) for each request/response type pair. Otherwise, the following exception is thrown when dispatching a request to the service: StructureMap Exception Code: 202 No Default Instance defined for PluginFamily Agatha.ServiceLayer.IRequestHandler`1[[TSFG.Domain.DTO.Actions.HelloWorldRequest, TSFG.Domain.DTO, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null]], Agatha.ServiceLayer, Version=1.0.5.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=6f21cf452a4ffa13 Is there a way that I'm not seeing to tell StructureMap and/or Agatha to always use the base handler class for all request/response type pairs? Or maybe to use Reflection.Emit to generate empty handlers in memory at application start just to satisfy the requirement? I'm not 100% familiar with these libraries and am learning as I go along, but so far my attempts at both those possible approaches have been unsuccessful. Can anybody offer some advice on solving this, or perhaps offer another approach entirely?

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  • Request for the permission of type 'System.Data.Odbc.OdbcPermission.. help needed

    - by Matt
    I'm getting the following error when trying to connect to a remote mysql server. Request for the permission of type 'System.Data.Odbc.OdbcPermission, System.Data, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. I've installed the odbc 5.1 driver, and can connect to the database using the Data Sources (ODBC) tool in Control Panel. However when I try and run my C# scrip to connect, I get the above error. I've read its something to do with trust levels or something? I don't quite understand what people were talking about though. I went to C:... Framework/v2.0.50727/CONFIG and added to the medium and high trust.config files, but that didn't help.. Can someone help me out here please? My connection string is MyConString = "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};" + "SERVER=" + m_strHost + ";" + "PORT=3306;" + "DATABASE=" + m_strDatabase + ";" + "UID=" + m_strUserName + ";" + "PWD=" + m_strPassword + ";" + "OPTION=3;";

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