Search Results

Search found 68147 results on 2726 pages for 'context sensitive help'.

Page 730/2726 | < Previous Page | 726 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737  | Next Page >

  • Are there any downsides in using C++ for network daemons?

    - by badcat
    Hey guys! I've been writing a number of network daemons in different languages over the past years, and now I'm about to start a new project which requires a new custom implementation of a properitary network protocol. The said protocol is pretty simple - some basic JSON formatted messages which are transmitted in some basic frame wrapping to have clients know that a message arrived completely and is ready to be parsed. The daemon will need to handle a number of connections (about 200 at the same time) and do some management of them and pass messages along, like in a chat room. In the past I've been using mostly C++ to write my daemons. Often with the Qt4 framework (the network parts, not the GUI parts!), because that's what I also used for the rest of the projects and it was simple to do and very portable. This usually worked just fine, and I didn't have much trouble. Being a Linux administrator for a good while now, I noticed that most of the network daemons in the wild are written in plain C (of course some are written in other languages, too, but I get the feeling that 80% of the daemons are written in plain C). Now I wonder why that is. Is this due to a pure historic UNIX background (like KISS) or for plain portability or reduction of bloat? What are the reasons to not use C++ or any "higher level" languages for things like daemons? Thanks in advance! Update 1: For me using C++ usually is more convenient because of the fact that I have objects which have getter and setter methods and such. Plain C's "context" objects can be a real pain at some point - especially when you are used to object oriented programming. Yes, I'm aware that C++ is a superset of C, and that C code is basically C++. But that's not the point. ;)

    Read the article

  • How can I invoke a .Net DLL from a LabView 6.1 VI?

    - by tw1k
    I work in a manufacturing company that uses LabView for testing the devices we make. Most of the test engineers are using 7.1 which can natively reference a .Net assembly. However, there is a group that is stuck on LabView 6.1. I would like for them to be able to use my .Net assembly which is basically a proxy to some web services. I have created a test assembly that is nothing more than Hello World, and I'm trying to consume it in a VI. I made it COM visible, and registered it with regasm.exe and created a type library, which I'm not sure I need. I can see it in Visual Studio in the list of COM objects when I open the Add Reference window, so I know it's registered properly. I'm very unfamiliar with VI's. I'm only looking at it because no one I have spoken to in manufacturing knows anything about invoking a COM object in a VI. I'm basically looking for some names of controls or menu options to get the test engineers pointed in the right direction. I did a bunch of web searching on Google and the NI forums, but didn't find much. Alternatively, would it be easier to write a C or C++ DLL that acts as a proxy to my .Net DLL? Or is there a simple way to invoke a web service from a VI? That might obviate the need for a DLL altogether. I'm currently reading through this document from NI for help, but it obviously knows nothing about .Net and might not be able to help me choose the best path forward.

    Read the article

  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

    Read the article

  • How do you populate a NSArrayController with CoreData rows programmatically?

    - by Andrew McCloud
    After several hours/days of searching and diving into example projects i've concluded that I need to just ask. If I bind the assetsView (IKImageBrowserView) directly to an IB instance of NSArrayController everything works just fine. - (void) awakeFromNib { library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; } Both NSLogs are empty. I know i'm missing something... I just don't know what. The goal is to eventually allow multiple instances of this view's "library" filtered programmatically with a predicate. For now i'm just trying to have it display all of the rows for the "Asset" entity. Addition: If I create the NSArrayController in IB and then try to log [library arrangedObjects] or manually set the data source for assetsView I get the same empty results. Like I said earlier, if I bind library.arrangedObjects to assetsView.content (IKImageBrowserView) in IB - with same managed object context and same entity name set by IB - everything works as expected. - (void) awakeFromNib { // library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; // [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; // [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; }

    Read the article

  • Basic C programming question

    - by Amit
    Hi all, I've just started to learn C and it's going pretty slow...I wanted to write a program that takes in an integer argument and returns it's doubled value (aka take in integer, multiply by 2, and printf that value). I purposely did not want to use the scanf function. Here's what I have so far and what is not compiling... #include <stdio.h> int main(int index) { if (!(index)) { printf("No index given"); return 1; } a = index*2; printf("Mult by 2 %d",a); return 0; } So basically when the program is executed I want to supply the index integer. So, in cygwin, I would write something like ./a 10 and 10 would be stored into the index variable. Also, I want to program to return "No index given" and exit if no index value was supplied... Anyone care to help what I'm doing wrong? EDIT: This code returns 1 error upon compilation and is based on the help by @James: #include <stdio.h> int main(int 1, char index) { int index, a; if (!(index)) { printf("No index given"); return 1; } a = index*2; printf("Mult by 2 %d",a); return 0; } Thanks! Amit

    Read the article

  • define a closure as method from class

    - by user272839
    Hi, i'm trying to play with php5.3 and closure. I see here (Listing 7. Closure inside an object : http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/opensource/library/os-php-5.3new2/index.html) that it's possible to use $this in the callback function, but it's not. So I try to give $this as use variable : $self = $this; $foo = function() use($self) { //do something with $self } So to use the same example : class Dog { private $_name; protected $_color; public function __construct($name, $color) { $this->_name = $name; $this->_color = $color; } public function greet($greeting) { $self = $this; return function() use ($greeting, $self) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; }; } } $dog = new Dog("Rover","red"); $dog->greet("Hello"); Output: Hello, I am a red dog named Rover. First of all this example does not print the string but return the function, but that's not my problem. Secondly I can't access to private or protected, because the callback function is a global function and not in the context from the Dog object. Tha't my problem. It's the same as : function greet($greeting, $object) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; } And I want : public function greet($greeting) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; } Which is from Dog and not global. I hope that I am clear ...

    Read the article

  • Insert or Update using Oracle and PL/SQL

    - by Shane
    I have a PL/SQL function that performs an update/insert on an Oracle database that maintains a target total and returns the difference between the existing value and the new value. Here is the code I have so far: FUNCTION calcTargetTotal(accountId varchar2, newTotal numeric ) RETURN number is oldTotal numeric(20,6); difference numeric(20,6); begin difference := 0; begin select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; exception when NO_DATA_FOUND then begin difference := newTotal; insert into target_total ( account_id, value ) values ( accountId, newTotal ); -- sometimes a race condition occurs and this stmt fails -- in those cases try to update again exception when DUP_VAL_ON_INDEX then begin difference := 0; select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; end; end; end; return difference end calcTargetTotal; This works as expected in unit tests with multiple threads never failing. However when loaded on a live system we have seen this fail with a stack trace looking like this: ORA-01403: no data found ORA-00001: unique constraint () violated ORA-01403: no data found The line numbers (which I have removed since they are meaningless out of context) verify that the first update fails due to no data, the insert fail due to uniqueness, and the 2nd update is failing with no data, which should be impossible. From what I have read on other thread a MERGE statement is also not atomic and could suffer similar problems. Does anyone have any ideas how to prevent this from occurring?

    Read the article

  • Sqlite3 prompting `...>` instead of `sqlite>`

    - by Imray
    I'm following a beginners tutorial to sqlite3. The first step is creating a new database. So I enter a name (movies.db). I'm expecting to get another sqlite> prompt on the next line, and continue with the tutorial, but instead I get a lame ...> after which I can type any gibbersish I want. Clearly, this is not good. What my command prompt looks like: SQLite version 3.8.1 2013-10-17 12:57:35 Enter ".help" for instructions Enter SQL statements terminated with a ";" sqlite> $ sqlite3 movies.db ...> gibberish ...> dsds ...> sdada ...> gfgys ...> a ...> Aaaaarrrgh! ...> How do I get sqlite3 to work normally for me? Pardon my newbie-ness. I hope I've phrased this question in a way that might help other newbs too.

    Read the article

  • Tomcat does not pick up the class file - the JSP file is not displayed

    - by blueSky
    I have a Java code which is a controller for a jsp page, called: HomeController.java. Code is as follows: @Controller public class HomeController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/mypage") public String home() { System.out.println("HomeController: Passing through..."); return "home"; } } There is nothing especial in the jsp page: home.jsp. If I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/mypage I can view mypage and everything works fine. Also in the tomcat Dos page I can see the comment: HomeController: Passing through... As expected. Now under the same directory that I have HomeController.java, I've created another file called: LoginController.java. Following is the code: @Controller public class LoginController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/loginpage") public String login() { System.out.println("LoginController: Passing through..."); return "login"; } } And under the same place which I have home.jsp, I've created login.jsp. Also under tomcat folders, LoginController.class exists under the same folder that HomeController.class exists and login.jsp exists under the same folder which home.jsp exists. But when I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/loginpage Nothing is displayed! I think tomcat does not pick up LoginController.class b/c on the tomcat Dos window, I do NOT see this comment: LoginController: Passing through... Instead I see following which I do not know what do they mean? [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:34) got manifest [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:36) manifest entrie s 8 The structure and the code for HomeController.java and LoginController.java plus the jsp files match. I have no idea why tomcat sees one of the files and not the other? Clean build did not help. Does anybody have any idea? Any help is greatly appraciated.

    Read the article

  • Long running method causing race condition

    - by keeleyt83
    Hi, I'm relatively new with hibernate so please be gentle. I'm having an issue with a long running method (~2 min long) and changing the value of a status field on an object stored in the DB. The pseudo-code below should help explain my issue. public foo(thing) { if (thing.getStatus() == "ready") { thing.setStatus("finished"); doSomethingAndTakeALongTime(); } else { // Thing already has a status of finished. Send the user back a message. } } The pseudo-code shouldn't take much explanation. I want doSomethingAndTakeALongTime() to run, but only if it has a status of "ready". My issue arises whenever it takes 2 minutes for doSomethingAndTakeALongTime() to finish and the change to thing's status field doesn't get persisted to the database until it leaves foo(). So another user can put in a request during those 2 minutes and the if statement will evaluate to true. I've already tried updating the field and flushing the session manually, but it didn't seem to work. I'm not sure what to do from here and would appreciate any help. PS: My hibernate session is managed by spring.

    Read the article

  • Where does "new" fit in the flex creation cycle?

    - by deux11
    In the following code, the call to myChild.bar() results in an exception because myChild is null. myParent is a valid object. What I don't understand is why myChild has not been created yet. I have read the following document related to object creation sequence, but I am unsure how "new" is related: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=layoutperformance_03.html Any help is appreciated! // Main.mxml <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="created()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public var myParent:Parent = new Parent(); public function created():void { myParent.foo(); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> // Parent.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" xmlns="*"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function foo():void { myChild.bar(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <Child id="myChild"/> </mx:Canvas> // Child.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function bar():void { trace("Hello World"); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Canvas>

    Read the article

  • Using JQuery in an AJAX control and avoiding conflicts

    - by Rich Andrews
    Hi, I am using JQuery within a custom AJAX user control (part of a home grown toolkit) and I need to ensure that JQuery is present on the hosting page. There can be multiple instances of the control on a page and some controls may need to use different versions of JQuery. At the moment I am using the following code to load in JQuery when the control initializes... Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(Page.GetType(), "jquery-1.4.4.min.js", this.ResolveUrl("TextControlPlugin/lib/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")); This works because the scriptmanager handles not putting multiple copies of the same script into he page. Problems... I cannot use JQuery statically in the calling page (I may not have a control on the page but need to use JQuery) The scriptmanager appears to handle only duplicate URL's and I will need to deploy it from potentially 2 different URL's (the calling page's copy and the controls copy) So, is there a way to isolate a version of JQuery to the context of my control that doesnt interfear with any use of JQuery from the calling page? The developer writing the page may not have access to the internals of the control. I have looked at JQuery.noConflict() but cannot seem to get it to work correctly - I believe I'm having problems with the order in which the scripts are injected into the page - I keep getting JQuery is undefined errors. Any help would be much appreciated

    Read the article

  • SQL connection to database repeating

    - by user175084
    ok now i am using the SQL database to get the values from different tables... so i make the connection and get the values like this: DataTable dt = new DataTable(); SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(); connection.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["XYZConnectionString"].ConnectionString; connection.Open(); SqlCommand sqlCmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM Machines", connection); SqlDataAdapter sqlDa = new SqlDataAdapter(sqlCmd); sqlCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@node", node); sqlDa.Fill(dt); connection.Close(); so this is one query on the page and i am calling many other queries on the page. So do i need to open and close the connection everytime...??? also if not this portion is common in all: DataTable dt = new DataTable(); SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(); connection.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["XYZConnectionString"].ConnectionString; connection.Open(); can i like put it in one function and call it instead.. the code would look cleaner... i tried doing that but i get errors like: Connection does not exist in the current context. any suggestions??? thanks

    Read the article

  • How can I replace a UITableViewController with a UIViewController that contains a UITableView?

    - by Dr Dork
    I created a new SplitView iPad project in Xcode and setup the code to populate the TableView (in the RootView on the left) with data. Now I'd like to customize the RootView to contain a DatePicker view along with the TableView, but I'm unsure how to accomplish this. Since the default RootViewController is a subclass of a UITableViewController, I couldn't add a DatePicker view to it in IB (since you can't add a DatePicker to a UITableView). The only way I understand to accomplish my goal of adding a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView is to change the RootViewController from a subclass of a UITableViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController, then I'll be able to add a view to it that contains a DatePicker view and a TableView using IB. Questions... Is this the correct approach to add a DatePicker to the "Left" RootView? If so and I change the RootViewController to a subclass of a UIViewController (instead of a UITableViewController) and add to it a TableView (along with the DatePicker), how will that affect the code I currently have in place for populating my current TableView? Thanks so much for all your help! Below is my current interface code for my RootViewController, if it'll help any. @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet DetailViewController *detailViewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; - (void)insertNewObject:(id)sender; @end

    Read the article

  • How can I evaluate the connectedness of my nodes?

    - by Travis Leleu
    I've got a space that has nodes that are all interconnected, based on a "similarity score". I would like to determine how "connected" a node is with the others. My purpose is to find nodes that are poorly connected to make sure that the backlink from the other node is prioritized. Perhaps an example would help. I've got a web page that links to my other pages based on a similarity score. Suppose I have the pages: A, B, C, ... A has a backlink from every other page, so it's very well connected. It also has links to all my other pages (each line in the graph is essentially bidirectional). B only has 1 backlink, from A. C has a link from A and D. I would like to make sure that the A-B link is prioritized over the A-C link (even if the similarity score between C and A is higher than B and A). In short, I would like to evaluate which nodes are least and best connected, so that I can mangle the results to my means. I believe this is Graph Connectedness, but I'm at a loss to develop a (simple) algorithm that will help me here. Simply counting the backlinks to a node may be a starting point -- but then how do I take the next step, which is to properly weight the links on the original node (A, in the example above)?

    Read the article

  • add namespace + prefix to XML using XSL

    - by Jan
    Hi, I hope you can help... Let's assume I have following XML: <data> <token> <sessionId>12345</sessionId> <userId>john</userId> <moreInfo> <bla> ..... </bla> </moreInfo> </token> </data> And I need this to become <login:data xmlns="http://my.ns.uri"> <login:token> <login:sessionId>12345</sessionId> <login:userId>john</userId> <login:moreInfo> <login:bla> ..... </login:bla> </login:moreInfo> </login:token> </login:data> Can I do this with XSL? I did try but failed miserably ... Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks, Jan

    Read the article

  • Divs, flash and doctype :(

    - by nick
    I have a web-site, that uses colorbox, it also has flash header. Everything works fine in both ff and ie. Before ive started to use colorbox, i had little div that covered small part of flash header for menu purposes. Now, since im using colorbox, i had to declare doctype, and set wmode on flash to 'opaque', in order everything to work right way.But now i cant get that little div, to appear on top of my flash header. If anyone can help me with this, please do so.... or atleast tell me what should i read : ( im will be very gratefull for any solution. current html document structure: ... all the js and css files ... heres that div's style from corresponding css file: .cell_r0_c0{position: absolute;left: 61%;width:260;height:69; background-color: #000000; vertical-align: bottom;} I think i've allready tried all the combinations of position attribute, also tried diff z-index values, and i can't get it work the way i want. Maybe ive missed something idk. Please help me :(

    Read the article

  • How do I loop through elements inside a div?

    - by crosenblum
    I have to make a custom function for search/replace text, because firefox counts text nodes differently than IE, Google Chrome, etc.. I am trying to use this code, that I saw at Firefox WhiteSpace Issue since in my other function, I am looping numerically through nodes, which serves my functional needs perfectly, in other browsers. But refuses to work, as part of a search/replace function that takes place after some ajax content is loaded. Here is the code, that I have tried to get to work, but I must be missing the correct understanding of the context of how to loop thru elements inside a div. // get all childnodes inside div function div_translate(divid) { // list child nodes of parent if (divid != null) { // var children = parent.childNodes, child; var parentNode = divid; // start loop thru child nodes for(var node=parentNode.firstChild;node!=null;node=node.nextSibling){ // begin check nodeType if(node.nodeType == 1){ // get value of this node var value = content(node); // get class of this node var myclass = node.attr('class'); console.log(myclass); // begin check if value undefined if (typeof(value) != 'undefined' && value != null) { console.log(value); // it is a text node. do magic. for (var x = en_count; x > 0; x--) { // get current english phrase var from = en_lang[x]; // get current other language phrase var to = other_lang[x]; if (value.match(from)) { content(node, value.replace(from, to)); } } } // end check if value undefined } // end check nodeType } // end loop thru child nodes } }

    Read the article

  • QSqlQuery UPDATE/INSERT DateTime with server's time (eg CURRENT_TIMESTAMP)

    - by Skinniest Man
    I am using QSqlQuery to insert data into a MySQL database. Currently all I care about is getting this to work with MySQL, but ideally I'd like to keep this as platform-independent as possible. What I'm after, in the context of MySQL, is to end up with code that effectively executes something like the following query: UPDATE table SET time_field=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP() WHERE id='5' The following code is what I have attempted, but it fails: QSqlQuery query; query.prepare("INSERT INTO table SET time_field=? WHERE id=?"); query.addBindValue("CURRENT_TIMESTAMP()"); query.addBindValue(5); query.exec(); The error I get is: Incorrect datetime value: 'CURRENT_TIMESTAMP()' for column 'time_field' at row 1 QMYSQL3: Unable to execute statement. I am not surprised as I assume Qt is doing some type checking when it binds values. I have dug through the Qt documentation as well as I know how, but I can't find anything in the API designed specifically for supporting MySQL's CURRENT_TIMESTAMP() function, or that of any other DBMS. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity

    - by ProNeticas
    I have a function that shows a map page so I can get the user to choose their current location. But if you run this function twice it crashes the App with the Single MapView in a MapActivity error (i.e. opening that settings view again). public void showMapSetterPage(View v) { Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "Settings screen, set map center launched"); // Set which view object we fired off from set_pv(v); // Show Map Settings Screen setContentView(R.layout.set_map_center); // Initiate the center point map if (mapView == null) { mapView = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.mapview); } mapView.setLongClickable(true); mapView.setStreetView(true); mapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(false); mapView.setSatellite(false); mapController = mapView.getController(); mapController.setZoom(18); LocationManager lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); Location location = lm .getLastKnownLocation(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER); int lat = (int) (location.getLatitude() * 1E6); int lng = (int) (location.getLongitude() * 1E6); Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "The LAT and LONG is: " + lat + " == " + lng); point = new GeoPoint(lat, lng); // mapController.setCenter(point); mapController.animateTo(point); } So I have a button that shows this View and onClick="showMapSetterPage". But if you go back to the settings screen out of the map and click the button again I get this error: 03-06 20:55:54.091: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(28014): Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException: You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity How can I delete the MapView and recreate it?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 5 Enum Naming

    - by Tyrel Van Niekerk
    I am using EF 5 with migrations and code first. It all works rather nicely, but there are some issues/questions I would like to resolve. Let's start with a simple example. Lets say I have a User table and a user type table. The user type table is an enum/lookup table in my app. So the user table has a UserTypeId column and a foreign key ref etc to UserType. In my poco, I have a property called UserType which has the enum type. To add the initial values to the UserType table (or add/change values later) and to create the table in the initial migrator etc. I need a UserType table poco to represent the actual table in the database and to use in the map files. I mapped the UserType property in the User poco to UserTypeId in the UserType poco. So now I have a poco for code first/migrations/context mapping etc and I have an enum. Can't have the same name for both, so do I have a poco called UserType and something else for the enum or have the poco for UserType be UserTypeTable or something? More importantly however, am I missing some key element in how code first works? I tried the example above, ran Add-Migration and it does not add the lookup table for the enum.

    Read the article

  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

    Read the article

  • Windows Server 2008 R2 File Permissions

    - by Fly_Trap
    I’m having some problems understanding some particular file permissions behaviour. Here are the steps to reproduce: Log into the server using the default Administrator account Create a text file (testfile.txt) in C:\ProgramData containing some arbitrary text Create a new user account and make it a member of the Administrators group Log in using new account and open C:\ProgramData\testfile.txt Edit the text and try to save Upon clicking save I’m presented with the save as dialog, which indicates that i do not have the necessary permissions to edit the file. This seems odd considering that the new user account is a member of Administrators. When I view the permissions of the file I can see the there are three groups listed, System, Administrators and Users. SYSTEM and Administrators have full permissions, however, Users only has the Read & Execute and Read permissions checked. It would appear that when I open the testfile.txt from the new users account, it opens in the context of the Users group, despite being a member of Administrators, is this correct? It would certainly explain the behaviour. The reason that this is an issue for me is that if I deploy an application via 'Run as Administrator', will normal users be able to edit the text files I install to ProgramData. Is this behaviour confined to Windows server or is it the same in Vista and Win7.

    Read the article

  • Using sigprocmask to implement locks

    - by EpsilonVector
    I'm implementing user threads in Linux kernel 2.4, and I'm using ualarm to invoke context switches between the threads. We have a requirement that our thread library's functions should be uninterruptable, so I looked into blocking signals and learned that using sigprocmask is the standard way to do this. However, it looks like I need to do quite a lot to implement this: sigset_t new_set, old_set; sigemptyset(&new_set); sigaddset(&new_set, SIGALRM); sigprocmask(SIG_BLOCK, &new_set, &old_set); This blocks SIGALARM but it does this with 3 function invocations! A lot can happen in the time it takes for these functions to run, including the signal being sent. The best idea I had to mitigate this was temporarily disabling ualarm, like this: sigset_t new_set, old_set; time=ualarm(0,0); sigemptyset(&new_set); sigaddset(&new_set, SIGALRM); sigprocmask(SIG_BLOCK, &new_set, &old_set); ualarm(time, 0); Which is fine except that this feels verbose. Isn't there a better way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Set Renderbuffer Width and Height (Open GL ES)

    - by Josh Elsasser
    I'm currently experiencing an issue with an Open GL ES renderbuffer where the backing and width are are both set to 15. Is there any way to set them to the width of 320 and 480? My project is built up on Apple's EAGLView class and ES1Renderer, but I've moved it from the app delegate to a controller. I also moved the CADisplayLink outside of it (I update my game logic with the timestamp from this) Any help would be greatly appreciated. I add the glview to the window as follows: CGRect applicationFrame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]; [window addSubview:gameController.glview]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; I synthesize the controller and the glview within it. The EAGLView and Renderer are otherwise unmodified. Renderer Initialization: // Get the layer CAEAGLLayer *eaglLayer = (CAEAGLLayer *)self.layer; eaglLayer.opaque = TRUE; eaglLayer.drawableProperties = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:FALSE], kEAGLDrawablePropertyRetainedBacking, kEAGLColorFormatRGBA8, kEAGLDrawablePropertyColorFormat, nil]; renderer = [[ES1Renderer alloc] init]; Render "resize from layer" Method - (BOOL)resizeFromLayer:(CAEAGLLayer *)layer { // Allocate color buffer backing based on the current layer size glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, colorRenderbuffer); [context renderbufferStorage:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES fromDrawable:layer]; glGetRenderbufferParameterivOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_WIDTH_OES, &backingWidth); glGetRenderbufferParameterivOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, GL_RENDERBUFFER_HEIGHT_OES, &backingHeight); NSLog(@"Backing Width:%i and Height: %i", backingWidth, backingHeight); if (glCheckFramebufferStatusOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES) != GL_FRAMEBUFFER_COMPLETE_OES) { NSLog(@"Failed to make complete framebuffer object %x", glCheckFramebufferStatusOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES)); return NO; } return YES; }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 726 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737  | Next Page >