Search Results

Search found 51282 results on 2052 pages for 'empty class'.

Page 731/2052 | < Previous Page | 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738  | Next Page >

  • Prettify working using python idle but not when using python script

    - by Loclip
    So when I use print soup.prettify() on idle it's prettifying my html but when I calling the script from server the prettify() not working #!/usr/bin/python import cgi, cgitb, urllib2, sys from bs4 import BeautifulSoup styles = [] i = 1 site = "www.example.com" page = urllib2.urlopen(site) soup = BeautifulSoup(page) table = soup.find('table', {'class' :'style5'}) alltd = table.findAll('td') allspans = table.findAll('span') while i<55: styles.append("style" + str(i)) i+=1 for td in alltd: if any(x in td["class"] for x in styles): td["class"] = "align" for span in allspans: span.replaceWithChildren() print "Content-type: text/html" print print "<!DOCTYPE html>" print "<html>" print "<head>" print '<meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8">' print '<link rel="stylesheet" href="lightbox/css/lightbox.css" type="text/css" media="screen">' print '<style type="text/css">' print "body {background-color:#b0c4de;}" print '.align {text-align: center;}' print "</style>" print "</head>" print "<body>" print table.pretiffy() print "</body>" print "</html>"

    Read the article

  • django hidden field error

    - by dana
    hi, there, i'm building a message system for a virtual community, but i can't take the userprofile id i have in views.py def save_message(request): if request.method == 'POST': form = MessageForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): new_obj = form.save(commit=False) new_obj.sender = request.user u = UserProfile.objects.get(request.POST['userprofile_id']) new_obj.owner = u new_obj.save() return HttpResponseRedirect('.') else: form = MessageForm() return render_to_response('messages/messages.html', { 'form': form, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) and the template: {% block primary %} <form action="." method="post"> {{ form.as_p }} <p><input type="hidden" value="{{ userprofile.id }}" name = "owner" /></p> <p><input type="submit" value="Send Message!" /></p> </form> {% endblock %} forms.py: class MessageForm(ModelForm): class Meta: model = Messages fields = ['message'] models.py: class Messages(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length = 300) read = models.BooleanField(default=False) owner = models.ForeignKey(UserProfile) sender = models.ForeignKey(User) I don't figure out why i get this error,since i'm just trying to get the profileId of a user, using a hiddeen field. the error is: Key 'UserProfile_id' not found in <QueryDict: {u'owner': [u''], u'message': [u'fdghjkl']}> and i'm getting it after i fill out the message text field. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jQuery - how to repeat a function within itself to include nested files

    - by brandonjp
    I'm not sure what to call this question, since it involves a variety of things, but we'll start with the first issue... I've been trying to write a simple to use jQuery for includes (similar to php or ssi) on static html sites. Whenever it finds div.jqinclude it gets attr('title') (which is my external html file), then uses load() to include the external html file. Afterwards it changes the class of the div to jqincluded So my main index.html might contain several lines like so: <div class="jqinclude" title="menu.html"></div> However, within menu.html there might be other includes nested. So it needs to make the first level of includes, then perform the same action on the newly included content. So far it works fine, but it's very verbose and only goes a couple levels deep. How would I make the following repeated function to continually loop until no more class="jqinclude" elements are left on the page? I've tried arguments.callee and some other convoluted wacky attempts to no avail. I'm also interested to know if there's another completely different way I should be doing this. $('div.jqinclude').each(function() { // begin repeat here var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); $(this).find('div.jqinclude').each(function() { // end repeat here var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); $(this).find('div.jqinclude').each(function() { var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); }); }); }); }); }); });

    Read the article

  • Django sitemap intermittent www

    - by Jen Z
    The automatic sitemap for my Django site fluctuates between including the www on urls and leaving it out (I'm aiming to have it in all the time). This has ramifications in google not indexing my pages properly so I'm trying to narrow down what would be causing this issue. I have set PREPEND_WWW = True and my site record in the sites framework is set to include the www e.g. it's set to www.example.com as opposed to example.com. I'm using memcached but pages should expire from the cache after 48 hours so I wouldn't have thought that would be causing the issue? You can see the problem in effect at http://www.livingspaceltd.co.uk/sitemap.xml (refresh the page a few times). My sitemaps setup is fairly prosaic so I'm doubtful that that is the issue, but in case it's something obvious I'm missing here's the code: ***urls.py*** sitemaps = { 'subpages': Subpages_Sitemap, 'standalone_pages': Standalone_Sitemap, 'categories': Categories_Sitemap, } urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^sitemap\.xml$', 'django.contrib.sitemaps.views.sitemap', {'sitemaps': sitemaps}), ... ***sitemaps.py*** # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from django_ls.livingspace.models import Page, Category, Standalone_Page, Subpage from django.contrib.sitemaps import Sitemap class Subpages_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "monthly" priority = 0.4 def items(self): return Subpage.objects.filter(restricted_to__isnull=True) class Standalone_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 1 def items(self): return Standalone_Page.objects.all() class Categories_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 0.7 def items(self): return Category.objects.all()

    Read the article

  • MKAnnotationView for userLocation pin iPhone

    - by Mauricio Galindo
    I have an application that uses MKMapView and at some point in the app I need to remove all the current pins in the map using [mapView removeAnnotations:mapView.annotations] And then I want to show again the current user location mapView.showUserLocation = YES But I can only make it reappear as a regular pin, because the userLocation view class its not public so I cant return views of that type. Here is my code - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)theMapView viewForAnnotation:(id <MKAnnotation>)annotation MKPinAnnotationView* annView = (MKPinAnnotationView *)[mapView dequeueReusableAnnotationViewWithIdentifier:@"currentloc"]; if (!annView) { MKPinAnnotationView *annView=[[MKPinAnnotationView alloc] initWithAnnotation:annotation reuseIdentifier:@"currentloc"]; annView.pinColor = MKPinAnnotationColorRed; annView.animatesDrop=TRUE; annView.canShowCallout = YES; annView.calloutOffset = CGPointMake(-5, 5); if ([annotation isKindOfClass:[DraggableAnnotationAM class]] ) annView.draggable = YES; return annView; } else { if ([annotation isKindOfClass:[DraggableAnnotationAM class]] ) annView.draggable = YES; annView.annotation = annotation; return annView; } Also I have found through reflection that MKUserLocationView is the class that is used to display the current location, but because its not public its not safe to use and my app keeps crashing and Im sure theres a easier way. Is it possible to do what I want, or should I just never remove the user location annotation of the mapView? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

    - by Glinkot
    Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

    Read the article

  • iterate trough each selecter jquery

    - by Sam Vloeberghs
    Hi I'm having problems calculating stuff on my web app. Here is the scenario: I have a html markup like this: <table> <tr> <td><span class="sub_total">10</span></td> </tr> <tr> <td><span class="sub_total">10</span></td> </tr> <tr> <td><span class="sub_total">10</span></td> </tr> </table> <p><span id="total"></span></p> I would like to calculate the main total of all the sub totals: var total; $('.sub_total').each(function(){ total = total + parseInt($(this).text()); }); $('#total').text(total); But I can't get this to work. I get a NaN notification.. Plz help and advice Greeting

    Read the article

  • jquery keypress iterate through each loop?

    - by user239831
    hey guys, probably a simpel question, however couldn't find anything online. i have a list with search results and i want to be able to navigate through the list with my up and down keys. if (e.keyCode == 40) { //down //alert('down'); $('#searchresults ul li').each(function() { }); } if (e.keyCode == 38) { //up //alert('up'); } if (e.keyCode == 13) { //enter //alert('enter'); } the searchresults look like this: <ul> <li class="matched"><a href="link1">link1</a></li> <li class="matched"><a href="link2">link2</a></li> <li class="matched"><a href="link3">link3</a></li> </ul> So basically i just want to be able to navigate through my searchresults with the up and down keys. the selection of the current element should maybe just change the background color and when i press enter the linked and matched element is fired. any idea how i can iterate through the searchresults? thank you

    Read the article

  • Problem with date_select when using :discard option. (Rails)

    - by MikeH
    I'm using a date_select with the option :discard_year => true If a user selects a date in the date select, and then he comes back and returns the select to the prompt values of Month and Day, Rails automatically sets the select values to January 1. I know this is the intended functionality if a month is selected and a day is left blank, but that's not the case here. In my example, the user sets both the month and day back to the prompt. By Rails forcing January 1, I'm getting bad results. I've tried every parameter available in the api. :default = nil, :include_blank = true. None of those change the behavior I'm describing. I've isolated the root of the problem, which is this: Because I'm discarding the :year parameter, when the user tries to return the month and day to the prompt values, Rails doesn't see an empty prompt select. It perhaps sees a year selected with empty month and day, which it then sets to January 1. This is the case because the :discard_year parameter does in fact set a date in the database, it just removes it from the view. How can I code around this problem?

    Read the article

  • Processing XML form input in ASP

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I'm maintaining a legacy application which consists of some ASP.Net pages with c# code behinds and some asp pages. I need to change the way the application accepts it's input from reading a set of parameters from some form fields to reading in one form field which contains contains some XML and parsing to get the parameters out. I've written a C# class that takes an The NameValueCollection from the C# HttpRequest's Form Element. Like so NameValueCollection form = Request.Form; Dictionary<string, string> fieldDictionary = RequestDataExtractor.BuildFieldDictionary(form); The code in the class looks for a particular parameter and if it's there processes the XML and outputs a Dictionary, if its not there it just cycles through the Form parameters and puts them all into the dictionary (Allowing the old method to still work) How would I do this in ASP? Can I use my same class, or a modified version of it? or do I have to write some new code to get this working? If I have to write ASP code Whats the best way to process the XML in ASP? Sorry if this seems like a stupid question but I know next to nothing about ASP and VB.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

    - by user309029
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: &lt div id="container" &gt &lt iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" &gt &lt /iframe &gt &lt /div &gt Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading Ifrmae in FireFox!

    - by maddy
    Hello all, I'm trying to load an aspx page using Iframe in VB.net. I'm trying to do it(setting the source of Iframe) with the help of Ext(JavaScript). aspx code: < div id="container" > < iframe id="pane" name="pane" src="Empty.aspx" frameborder="0" >< /iframe> < /div > Javascript code: Pane = function() { var pane; return { init: function() { if (!document.body) { return; } pane = Ext.get('pane'); if ( something ) { this.load(); } else { this.navigateTo('Page.aspx?id=' + a.ID); } }, load: function() { pane.dom.src = 'HTTPURL'; }, navigateTo: function(url) { var agt = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); if (agt.indexOf("firefox") != -1) { document.getElementById('pane').src = url; } else { pane.dom.src = url; } } }; } (); This works fine with IE and Ifrma gets loaded wuth page.aspx every time the parent page is requested. But with FireFox it doesn't. With FireFox the src attribute remains "Empty.aspx" when the page is loaded but when i refresh the page i.e. in post back event the scr attribute changes to "page.aspx?id=a.id" and iframe gets loaded properly. Has anyone faced such kind of problem before? and knows the solution please help me, it's killing me big. Thanks in Advance. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't is operator take in consideration if the explicit operator is overriden when checking ty

    - by Galilyou
    Hey Guys, Consider this code sample: public class Human { public string Value { get; set;} } public class Car { public static explicit operator Human (Car c) { Human h = new Human(); h.Value = "Value from Car"; return h; } } public class Program { public static void Mani() { Car c = new Car(); Human h = (Human)c; Console.WriteLine("h.Value = {0}", h.Value); Console.WriteLine(c is Human); } } Up I provide a possibility of an explicit cast from Car to Human, though Car and Human hierarchically are not related! The above code simply means that "Car is convertible to human" However, if you run the snippet you will find the expression c is Human evaluates to false! I used to believe that the is operator is kinda expensive cause it attempts to do an actual cast that might result in an InvalidCastException. If the operator is trying to cast, then the cast should succeed as there's an operator logic that should perform the cast! What does "is" test? Does test a hierarchical "is-a" relationship? Does test whether a variable type is convertible to a type?

    Read the article

  • How do JVM's implicit memory barriers behave when chaining constructors

    - by Joonas Pulakka
    Referring to my earlier question on incompletely constructed objects, I have a second question. As Jon Skeet pointed out, there's an implicit memory barrier in the end of a constructor that makes sure that final fields are visible to all threads. But what if a constructor calls another constructor; is there such a memory barrier in the end of each of them, or only in one being called from outside? That is, when the "wrong" solution is: public class ThisEscape { public ThisEscape(EventSource source) { source.registerListener( new EventListener() { public void onEvent(Event e) { doSomething(e); } }); } } And the correct one would be a factory method version: public class SafeListener { private final EventListener listener; private SafeListener() { listener = new EventListener() { public void onEvent(Event e) { doSomething(e); } } } public static SafeListener newInstance(EventSource source) { SafeListener safe = new SafeListener(); source.registerListener(safe.listener); return safe; } } Would the following work too, or not? public class MyListener { private final EventListener Listener; private MyListener() { listener = new EventListener() { public void onEvent(Event e) { doSomething(e); } } } public MyListener(EventSource source) { this(); source.register(listener); } }

    Read the article

  • Hibernate - Problem in parsing mapping file (.hbm.xml)

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am new to Hibernate. I have an exception while running an Hibernate-based application. The exception is as follows: 16 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - Hibernate 3.3.2.GA 16 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - hibernate.properties not found 16 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - Bytecode provider name : javassist 31 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - using JDK 1.4 java.sql.Timestamp handling 94 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration - configuring from resource: /hibernate.cfg.xml 94 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration - Configuration resource: /hibernate.cfg.xml 219 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration - Reading mappings from resource : app/data/City.hbm.xml 266 [main] ERROR org.hibernate.util.XMLHelper - Error parsing XML: XML InputStream(12) Attribute "coloumn" must be declared for element type "property". 266 [main] ERROR org.hibernate.util.XMLHelper - Error parsing XML: XML InputStream(13) Attribute "coloumn" must be declared for element type "property". 266 [main] ERROR org.hibernate.util.XMLHelper - Error parsing XML: XML InputStream(14) Attribute "coloumn" must be declared for element type "property". It seems that it is not finding coloumn attribute of the property element in the mappings file but my mappings file do have the coloumn attribute. Below is the mappings file (City.hbm.xml) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping package="app.data"> <class name="City" table="CITY"> <id column="CITY_ID" name="cityId"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="cityDisplyaName" coloumn="CITY_DISPLAY_NAME" /> <property coloumn="CITY_MEANINGFUL_NAME" name="cityMeaningFulName" /> <property coloumn="CITY_URL" name="cityURL" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

    Read the article

  • jQuery multiple themes on one page

    - by lloydphillips
    This is driving me NUTS! I've followed the post here which just doesn't seem to be working: http://www.filamentgroup.com/lab/using_multiple_jquery_ui_themes_on_a_single_page/ I have a base theme, for examples sake it's the Smoothness theme from the jQuery UI gallery. Then I have a 'red' theme which basically colours the buttons red. Here is the theme I created. So I go to download my theme. Choose Advanced settings, set the scope to 'red' and my theme folder name to 'red' and download. First of all I'm not entirely 100% sure which folder I'm to copy over to my project is it the 'development-bundle\themes' folder (which contains my red folder) or the '\css\red' folder? I've tried both. The post above seems to suggest if I copy my themes folder and link to my theme in the css it'll work when I add a class of 'red' to a wrapper div or element. So I've linked the themes like so in my file: <link type="text/css" href="themes/base/jquery.ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <link type="text/css" href="themes/red/jquery.ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> The base theme loads and works all honkey doorey but the red theme doesn't. I've got a button styled like so: <input type="submit" id="btn" value="A submit button" class="red" /> I've also tried: <div class="red"> <input type="submit" id="btn" value="A submit button" /> </div> Neither work. When I remove the 'themes/base/jquery.ui.all.css' css file link the button's aren't styled at all. Crazy! I'm pulling my hair out. Where am I going wrong? Surely they should just make it easy enough to download JUST the theme folder and reference the ui.all file.

    Read the article

  • Django formset doesn't validate

    - by tsoporan
    Hello, I am trying to save a formset but it seems to be bypassing is_valid() even though there are required fields. To test this I have a simple form: class AlbumForm(forms.Form): name = forms.CharField(required=True) The view: @login_required def add_album(request, artist): artist = Artist.objects.get(slug__iexact=artist) AlbumFormSet = formset_factory(AlbumForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = AlbumFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponse('worked') else: formset = AlbumFormSet() return render_to_response('submissions/addalbum.html', { 'artist': artist, 'formset': formset, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) And the template: <form action="" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data">{% csrf_token %} {{ formset.management_form }} {% for form in formset.forms %} <ul class="addalbumlist"> {% for field in form %} <li> {{ field.label_tag }} {{ field }} {{ field.errors }} </li> {% endfor %} </ul> {% endfor %} <div class="inpwrap"> <input type="button" value="add another"> <input type="submit" value="add"> </div> </form> What ends up happening is I hit "add" without entering a name then HttpResponse('worked') get's called seemingly assuming it's a valid form. I might be missing something here, but I can't see what's wrong. What I want to happen is, just like any other form if the field is required to spit out an error if its not filled in. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • backbone.js removing template from DOM upon success

    - by timpone
    I'm writing a simple message board app to learn backbone. It's going ok (a lot of the use of this isn't making sense) but am a little stuck in terms of how I would remove a form / html from the dom. I have included most of the code but you can see about 4 lines up from the bottom, the part that isn't working. How would I remove this from the DOM? thx in advance var MbForm=Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click button.add-new-post': 'savePost' }, el: $('#detail'), template:_.template($('#post-add-edit-tmpl').html()), render: function(){ var compiled_template = this.template(); this.$el.html(compiled_template); return this; }, savePost: function(e){ //var self=this; //console.log("I want you to say Hello!"); data={ header: $('#post_header').val(), detail: $('#post_detail').val(), forum_id: $('#forum_id').val(), post_id: $('#post_id').val(), parent_id: $('#parent_id').val() }; this.model.save(data, { success: function(){ alert('this saved'); //$(this.el).html('this is what i want'); this.$el.remove();// <- this is the part that isn't working /* none of these worked - error Uncaught TypeError: Cannot call method 'unbind' of undefined this.$el.unbind(); this.$el.empty(); this.el.unbind(); this.el.empty(); */ //this.unbind(); //self.append('this is appended'); } });

    Read the article

  • Receiving generic typed <T> custom objects through remote object in Flex

    - by Aaron
    Is it possible to receive custom generic typed objects through AMF? I'm trying to integrate a flex app with an existing C# service but flex is choking on custom generic typed objects. As far as I can tell Flex doesn't even support generics, but I'd like to be able to even just read in the object and cast its members as necessary. I basically just want flex to ignore the <T>. I'm hopeful that there's a way to do this, since flex doesn't complain about typed collections (a server call returning List works fine and flex converts it to an ArrayCollection just like an un-typed List). Here's a trimmed down example of what's going on for me: The custom C# typed class public class TypeTest<T> { public T value { get; set; } public TypeTest () { } } The server method returning the typeTest public TypeTest<String> doTypeTest() { TypeTest<String> theTester = new TypeTest<String>("grrrr"); return theTester; } The corresponding flex value object: [RemoteClass(alias="API.Model.TypeTest")] public class TypeTest { private var _value:Object; public function get value():Object { return _value; } public function set value(theValue:Object):void { _value = value; } public function TypeTest() { } } and the result handler code: public function doTypeTest(result:TypeTest):void { var theString:String = result.value as String; trace(theString); } When the result handler is called I get the runtime error: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert mx.utils::ObjectProxy@11a98041 to com.model.vos.TypeTest. Irritatingly if I change the result handler to take parameter of type Object it works fine. Anyone know how to make this work with the value object? I feel like i'm missing something really obvious.

    Read the article

  • Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache within a session?

    - by Synesso
    Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy=true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

    Read the article

  • Rhino Mocks Partial Mock

    - by dotnet crazy kid
    I am trying to test the logic from some existing classes. It is not possible to re-factor the classes at present as they are very complex and in production. What I want to do is create a mock object and test a method that internally calls another method that is very hard to mock. So I want to just set a behaviour for the secondary method call. But when I setup the behaviour for the method, the code of the method is invoked and fails. Am I missing something or is this just not possible to test without re-factoring the class? I have tried all the different mock types (Strick,Stub,Dynamic,Partial ect.) but they all end up calling the method when I try to set up the behaviour. using System; using MbUnit.Framework; using Rhino.Mocks; namespace MMBusinessObjects.Tests { [TestFixture] public class PartialMockExampleFixture { [Test] public void Simple_Partial_Mock_Test() { const string param = "anything"; //setup mocks MockRepository mocks = new MockRepository(); var mockTestClass = mocks.StrictMock<TestClass>(); //record beahviour *** actualy call into the real method stub *** Expect.Call(mockTestClass.MethodToMock(param)).Return(true); //never get to here mocks.ReplayAll(); //this is what i want to test Assert.IsTrue(mockTestClass.MethodIWantToTest(param)); } public class TestClass { public bool MethodToMock(string param) { //some logic that is very hard to mock throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool MethodIWantToTest(string param) { //this method calls the if( MethodToMock(param) ) { //some logic i want to test } return true; } } } }

    Read the article

  • Programmatically change an EditorGrid's cell value

    - by Snowright
    Hi, I have an Editor Grid where if a specific cell is in focus (is being edited), a window containing a tree panel pops up allowing the user to choose a node from the treepanel as the new value of the cell. This way, the user isn't actually editing the cell in question, but is using the window to choose the new value. However, I am having difficulties setting the value of the cell in question programmatically. Below is the code I use to set the grid up, including the column model that chooses what editor to use for a cell depending on the value type: var editorCM = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ //config ,editors : { //rest of editors 'id' : new Ext.grid.GridEditor(new Ext.form.TextField({readOnly : true})) } ,getCellEditor : function(col, row) { //choose editor depending on the type value of a cell } }) var editorGrid = new Ext.grid.EditorGridPanel({ //rest of config ,cm : editorCM }) Below is my code to change the cell's value once the user chooses from the treepanel. function submitNode(newValue) { var temp = editorGrid.GetSelectionModel().getSelectedCell(); //returns array containing column and row position of selected cell, which value we want to change. //temp[1] = column index, temp[0] = row index //Gets the cell editor at specific position and sets new value for that cell editorGrid.getColumnModel().getCellEditor(temp[1], temp[0]).setValue(newValue); } I've also tried a few other ways (all including setValue(newValue)), but have come up empty handed. I've looked through the API and the ExtJS forums for any clue but have also come up empty handed.

    Read the article

  • Overloading operator>> to a char buffer in C++ - can I tell the stream length?

    - by exscape
    I'm on a custom C++ crash course. I've known the basics for many years, but I'm currently trying to refresh my memory and learn more. To that end, as my second task (after writing a stack class based on linked lists), I'm writing my own string class. It's gone pretty smoothly until now; I want to overload operator that I can do stuff like cin my_string;. The problem is that I don't know how to read the istream properly (or perhaps the problem is that I don't know streams...). I tried a while (!stream.eof()) loop that .read()s 128 bytes at a time, but as one might expect, it stops only on EOF. I want it to read to a newline, like you get with cin to a std::string. My string class has an alloc(size_t new_size) function that (re)allocates memory, and an append(const char *) function that does that part, but I obviously need to know the amount of memory to allocate before I can write to the buffer. Any advice on how to implement this? I tried getting the istream length with seekg() and tellg(), to no avail (it returns -1), and as I said looping until EOF (doesn't stop reading at a newline) reading one chunk at a time.

    Read the article

  • Determining the color of a pixel in a bitmap using C# in a WPF app

    - by DanM
    The only way I found so far is System.Drawing.Bitmap.GetPixel(), but Microsoft has warnings for System.Drawing that are making me wonder if this is the "old way" to do it. Are there any alternatives? Here's what Microsoft says about the System.Drawing namespace. I also noticed that the System.Drawing assembly was not automatically added to the references when I created a new WPF project. System.Drawing Namespace The System.Drawing namespace provides access to GDI+ basic graphics functionality. More advanced functionality is provided in the System.Drawing.Drawing2D, System.Drawing.Imaging, and System.Drawing.Text namespaces. The Graphics class provides methods for drawing to the display device. Classes such as Rectangle and Point encapsulate GDI+ primitives. The Pen class is used to draw lines and curves, while classes derived from the abstract class Brush are used to fill the interiors of shapes. Caution Classes within the System.Drawing namespace are not supported for use within a Windows or ASP.NET service. Attempting to use these classes from within one of these application types may produce unexpected problems, such as diminished service performance and run-time exceptions. - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.drawing.aspx

    Read the article

  • Magic Methods in Python

    - by dArignac
    Howdy, I'm kind of new to Python and I wonder if there is a way to create something like the magic methods in PHP (http://www.php.net/manual/en/language.oop5.overloading.php#language.oop5.overloading.methods) My aim is to ease the access of child classes in my model. I basically have a parent class that has n child classes. These classes have three values, a language key, a translation key and a translation value. The are describing a kind of generic translation handling. The parent class can have translations for different translation key each in different languages. E.g. the key "title" can be translated into german and english and the key "description" too (and so far and so on) I don't want to get the child classes and filter by the set values (at least I want but not explicitly, the concrete implementation behind the magic method would do this). I want to call parent_class.title['de'] # or also possible maybe parent_class.title('de') for getting the translation of title in german (de). So there has to be a magic method that takes the name of the called method and their params (as in PHP). As far as I dug into Python this is only possible with simple attributes (_getattr_, _setattr_) or with setting/getting directly within the class (_getitem_, _setitem_) which both do not fit my needs. Maybe there is a solution for this? Please help! Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738  | Next Page >