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  • redirecting the root domain - SEO and other issues, need some guidance!

    - by Jim Sp
    I'm not familiar with some of these forwarding methods and I need help. My issue is this: I have a site hosted on discountasp.net. My domain was registered through 1&1 and I redirected the DNS to what discountasp.net wanted. So when a user types www.mydomain.com, he/she sees the ASP.NET site hosted on discountasp.net, which is all fine My main page is Index.aspx, I really suck at html page design and I don't have time or the talent to fiddle with it (or money to get it done by a pro). The rest of the pages are fine. I want to use a good theme from tumblr or bloggr - one of the blog sites and create a page that I want to use as the first page - directly on blogger or tumblr - say yyy.blogspot.com (I have many reasons, so for now please don't bash my decision - let's just say that's what I want). That means when a user types www.mydomain.com, it should redirect it to the blogger or tumblr page. Everything else stays the sme - the links on the blogger page will say www.mydomain.com/xxxx and show up what's on the hosted website. I have setup the IIS rewrite rules etc. etc. so that all works just fine The bottom line is I want to show an external site's web page as my root page. I suppose I'm struggling to even explain what I want! I can of course do a response.redirect on the Index.aspx page - which is the simplest way to manage this, but the big question is will this hurt SEO in some way? If not, that would be what I do and leave the rest of the infrastructure intact (I have already done this to test and it works fine) Thank you very much j

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  • changing asp .net web service namespace when already in productive state

    - by eloQ
    by some unfortunate events we published a web service with the tempuri-namespace a couple of months ago and no one did notice (not in our company, not the companies connecting to the web service) even though it's live since that time and lots of companies (~25 i guess) already access this web service. now i'm thinking of correcting that mistake and have the namespace fixed to a proper value. the only problem is: as soon as we would do it, all the programs and services connected to this web service would stop working. i can't really allow that to happen. is there any way to fix the namespace for future purpose or to have the web service operate under two namespaces as one web service? any tip at all what i could do to get rid of the tempuri-namespace and have it fixed without needing to synchronize the change with all the external companies? i'm all out of ideas, so any help would be much appreciated! thanks! I hope this question is alright here, first time user, found this through using search engines on my research and found tempuri.org related posts, just not the right one..

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  • java , eclipse jar problem

    - by Raxvan
    Hello , i'm kind of new to java. I use eclipse and i imported some jar files with some classes by going to properties - Add External Jars; The problem is that when i try to use a class from the jar i get the following exception: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: nextapp/echo2/app/event/ActionListener at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader.access$000(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(Unknown Source) at Program.main(Program.java:12) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: nextapp.echo2.app.event.ActionListener at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(Unknown Source) ... 13 more The class is supposed to create a window, i guess that the jar has to import somehow other stuff or something like that, How can i fix this? PS. Sorry for the bad code , i don't know tags here. thansk, Raxvan

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  • MS Excel automation without macros in the generated reports. Any thoughts?

    - by ezeki77
    Hello! I know that the web is full of questions like this one, but I still haven't been able to apply the answers I can find to my situation. I realize there is VBA, but I always disliked having the program/macro living inside the Excel file, with the resulting bloat, security warnings, etc. I'm thinking along the lines of a VBScript that works on a set of Excel files while leaving them macro-free. Now, I've been able to "paint the first column blue" for all files in a directory following this approach, but I need to do more complex operations (charts, pivot tables, etc.), which would be much harder (impossible?) with VBScript than with VBA. For this specific example knowing how to remove all macros from all files after processing would be enough, but all suggestions are welcome. Any good references? Any advice on how to best approach external batch processing of Excel files will be appreciated. Thanks! PS: I eagerly tried Mark Hammond's great PyWin32 package, but the lack of documentation and interpreter feedback discouraged me.

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  • Is this a good starting point for iptables in Linux?

    - by sbrattla
    Hi, I'm new to iptables, and i've been trying to put together a firewall which purpose is to protect a web server. The below rules are the ones i've put together so far, and i would like to hear if the rules makes sense - and wether i've left out anything essential? In addition to port 80, i also need to have port 3306 (mysql) and 22 (ssh) open for external connections. Any feedback is highly appreciated! #!/bin/sh # Clear all existing rules. iptables -F # ACCEPT connections for loopback network connection, 127.0.0.1. iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT # ALLOW established traffic iptables -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # DROP packets that are NEW but does not have the SYN but set. iptables -A INPUT -p tcp ! --syn -m state --state NEW -j DROP # DROP fragmented packets, as there is no way to tell the source and destination ports of such a packet. iptables -A INPUT -f -j DROP # DROP packets with all tcp flags set (XMAS packets). iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --tcp-flags ALL ALL -j DROP # DROP packets with no tcp flags set (NULL packets). iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --tcp-flags ALL NONE -j DROP # ALLOW ssh traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport ssh -m limit --limit 1/s -j ACCEPT # ALLOW http traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport http -m limit --limit 5/s -j ACCEPT # ALLOW mysql traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport mysql -m limit --limit 25/s -j ACCEPT # DROP any other traffic. iptables -A INPUT -j DROP

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  • Web Reference Code generator template.

    - by Bluephlame
    I Have an internal SOAP Web service that is being called from an external REST service in .NET it works fine however I am simply passing through the SOAP objects of the REST Layer but the automatic generation of the WebReference Code in Visual Studio adds the 'field' to the end of every attribute. basically it makes my XML look all nasty. Everything works I just want to clean up my XML. Any ideas how i can change the template for the reference.cs or to make the XML generate nicely from the Web Service Objects. Here is an example of the reference.cs public int HeadLeft { get { return this.headLeftField; } set { this.headLeftField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadTop { get { return this.headTopField; } set { this.headTopField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadWidth { get { return this.headWidthField; } set { this.headWidthField = value; } } Here is an examle of the XML <a:headHeightField>208</a:headHeightField> <a:headLeftField>316</a:headLeftField> <a:headTopField>103</a:headTopField> <a:headWidthField>161</a:headWidthField>

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  • Javascript and jQuery (Fancybox) question

    - by songdogtech
    Javascript and jQuery (Fancybox) question I'm using the Javascript function below for Twitter sharing (as well as other services; the function code is simplified to just Twitter for this question) that grabs the to-be-shared page URL and title and it is invoked in the link with onclick. That results in the Twitter share page loading in a pop up browser window, i.e.<img src="/images/twitter_16.png" onclick="share.tw()" /> In order to be consistent with other design aspects of the site, what I'd like to be able to do is have the Twitter share page open not in a standard browser window but in a Fancybox (jQuery) window. Fancybox can load an external page in an iFrame when the img or href link contains a class (in this case class="iframe" ) in the link and in the document ready function in the header. Right now, of course, when I give the iframe class to the link that also has the onclick share.tw(), I get two popups: one browser window popup with the correct Twitter share page loaded, and a Fancybox jQuery popup that shows a site 404. How can I change the function to use Fancybox to present the Twitter share page? Is that a correct way to approach it? Or is there a better way, such as implementing the share function in jQuery, too? Thanks... Javascript share function: var share = { tw:function(title,url) { this.share('http://twitter.com/home?status=##URL##+##TITLE##',title,url); }, share:function(tpl,title,url) { if(!url) url = encodeURIComponent(window.location); if(!title) title = encodeURIComponent(document.title); tpl = tpl.replace("##URL##",url); tpl = tpl.replace("##TITLE##",title); window.open(tpl,"sharewindow"+tpl.substr(6,15),"width=640,height=480"); } }; It is invoked, i.e.: <img src="/images/twitter_16.png" onclick="share.tw()" /> Fancybox function, invoked by adding class="iframe" in the img or href link $(".iframe").fancybox({ 'width' : '100%', 'height' : '100%', 'autoScale' : false, 'transitionIn' : 'none', 'transitionOut' : 'none', 'type' : 'iframe' });

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  • Android - Where to store generated bitmaps?

    - by Josh
    I've got an app which dynamically generates anywhere from 6 to 100 small bitmaps for the user to move around the screen in a given session. I currently generate them in onCreate and store them to the sd card, so that after an orientation change I can grab them out of external storage and display them again. However, this takes time (the loading) and I'd like to keep the bitmap references around between lifecyle changes for quicker access. My question is, is there a better place to store my generated bitmaps? I was thinking about creating a static storage library in my base activity, something that would only need to be reloaded when the app is completely removed from memory (shutdown, other apps need resources, 30 minute restart, etc). Ideally, I'd like the user to be able to back out to the title screen, click a "Resume" button, and in onCreate I just have access to those resident bitmap references instead of having to load them from storage again. For this reason I don't think Activity.onRetainNonConfigurationInstance is what I need. Alternatively, is there a better way to handle multiple generated bitmaps than what I'm doing or the plan I described?

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  • Ajax Request not working. onSuccess and onFailure not triggering

    - by Kye
    Hi all, trying to make a page which will recursively call a function until a limit has been reached and then to stop. It uses an ajax query to call an external script (which just echo's "done" for now) howver with neither onSuccess or onFailure triggering i'm finding it hard to find the problem. Here is the javascript for it. In the header for the webpage there is a script to an ajax.js document which contains the request data. I know the ajax.js works as I've used it on another website var Rooms = "1"; var Items = "0"; var ccode = "9999/1"; var x = 0; function echo(string,start){ var ajaxDisplay = document.getElementById('ajaxDiv'); if(start) {ajaxDisplay.innerHTML = string;} else {ajaxDisplay.innerHTML = ajaxDisplay.innerHTML + string;} } function locations() { echo("Uploading location "+x+" of " + Rooms,true); Ajax.Request("Perform/location.php", { method:'get', parameters: {ccode: ccode, x: x}, onSuccess: function(reply) {alert("worked"); if(x<Rooms) { x++; locations(); } else { x=0; echo("Done",true); } }, onFailure: function() {alert("not worked"); echo("not done"); } }); alert("boo"); } Any help or advice will be most appreciated.

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  • File.Move, why do i get a FileNotFoundException? The file exist...

    - by acidzombie24
    Its extremely weird since the program is iterating the file! outfolder and infolder are both in H:/ my external HD using windows 7. The idea is to move all folders that only contain files with the extention db and svn-base. When i try to move the folder i get an exception. VS2010 tells me it cant find the folder specified in dir. This code is iterating through dir so how can it not find it! this is weird. string []theExt = new string[] { "db", "svn-base" }; foreach (var dir in Directory.GetDirectories(infolder)) { bool hit = false; if (Directory.GetDirectories(dir).Count() > 0) continue; foreach (var f in Directory.GetFiles(dir)) { var ext = Path.GetExtension(f).Substring(1); if(theExt.Contains(ext) == false) { hit = true; break; } } if (!hit) { var dst = outfolder + "\\" + Path.GetFileName(dir); File.Move(dir, outfolder); //FileNotFoundException: Could not find file dir. } } }

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  • Elegant Disjunctive Normal Form in Django

    - by Mike
    Let's say I've defined this model: class Identifier(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) key = models.CharField(max_length=64) value = models.CharField(max_length=255) Each user will have multiple identifiers, each with a key and a value. I am 100% sure I want to keep the design like this, there are external reasons why I'm doing it that I won't go through here, so I'm not interested in changing this. I'd like to develop a function of this sort: def get_users_by_identifiers(**kwargs): # something goes here return users The function will return all users that have one of the key=value pairs specified in **kwargs. Here's an example usage: get_users_by_identifiers(a=1, b=2) This should return all users for whom a=1 or b=2. I've noticed that the way I've set this up, this amounts to a disjunctive normal form...the SQL query would be something like: SELECT DISTINCT(user_id) FROM app_identifier WHERE (key = "a" AND value = "1") OR (key = "b" AND value = "2") ... I feel like there's got to be some elegant way to take the **kwargs input and do a Django filter on it, in just 1-2 lines, to produce this result. I'm new to Django though, so I'm just not sure how to do it. Here's my function now, and I'm completely sure it's not the best way to do it :) def get_users_by_identifiers(**identifiers): users = [] for key, value in identifiers.items(): for identifier in Identifier.objects.filter(key=key, value=value): if not identifier.user in users: users.append(identifier.user) return users Any ideas? :) Thanks!

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  • When should we use private variables and when should we use properties.

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    In most of the cases we usually creates a private variable and its corresponding public properties and uses them for performing our functionalities. Everyone has different approach like some ppl uses properties every where and some uses private variables within a same class as they are private and opens it to be used by external environment by using properties. Suppose I takes a scenario say insertion in a database. I creates some parameters that need to be initialized. I creates 10 private variables and their corresp public properties which are given as private string name; public string Name { get{return name;} set{name=value;} } and so on. In these cases what should be used internally variables or properties. And in those cases like public string Name { get{return name;} set{name=value>5?5:0;} //or any action can be done. this is just an eg. } In such cases what should be done.

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  • Deploying DotNetNuke and separate ASP.NET Application together - Possible Issues?

    - by TheTXI
    I am making this in a proactive attempt to head off any potential problems which could arise from this. The situation is that we are developing an ASP.NET application for a client which will handle the online ordering from their customers. This application is going to be using the same database that their current WinForms application uses (no real issue here). At the same time we are developing a new front-end website for them using DotNetNuke. The DotNetNuke app will simply be linking to the ASP.NET application for the customers to submit their orders (no need for them to communicate back and forth, etc.) The plan is to host both applications on the same box at the client location. What I am looking for are potential problems or setup tips which would prevent possible conflict between the two apps (web.config conflicts, etc.) Is there a problem with having both hosted on the same location, how should IIS be set up, etc.? If there are any external resources also available which could address this, please feel free to link them as well.

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  • How do I correctly reference georss: point in my xsd?

    - by Chris Hinch
    I am putting together an XSD schema to describe an existing GeoRSS feed, but I am stumbling trying to use the external georss.xsd to validate an element of type georss:point. I've reduced the problem to the smallest components thusly: XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <this> <apoint>45.256 -71.92</apoint> </this> XSD: <xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:georss="http://www.georss.org/georss"> <xs:import namespace="http://www.georss.org/georss" schemaLocation="http://georss.org/xml/1.1/georss.xsd"/> <xs:element name="this"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="apoint" type="georss:point"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> If I make apoint type "xs: string" instead of "georss: point", the XML validates happily against the XSD, but as soon as I reference an imported type (georss: point), my XML validator (Notepad++ | XML Tools) "cannot parse the schema". What am I doing wrong?

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  • CreateProcess() fails with an access violation

    - by John Doe
    My aim is to execute an external executable in my program. First, I used system() function, but I don't want the console to be seen to the user. So, I searched a bit, and found CreateProcess() function. However, when I try to pass a parameter to it, I don't know why, it fails. I took this code from MSDN, and changed a bit: #include <windows.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <tchar.h> void _tmain( int argc, TCHAR *argv[] ) { STARTUPINFO si; PROCESS_INFORMATION pi; ZeroMemory( &si, sizeof(si) ); si.cb = sizeof(si); ZeroMemory( &pi, sizeof(pi) ); /* if( argc != 2 ) { printf("Usage: %s [cmdline]\n", argv[0]); return; } */ // Start the child process. if( !CreateProcess( NULL, // No module name (use command line) L"c:\\users\\e\\desktop\\mspaint.exe", // Command line NULL, // Process handle not inheritable NULL, // Thread handle not inheritable FALSE, // Set handle inheritance to FALSE 0, // No creation flags NULL, // Use parent's environment block NULL, // Use parent's starting directory &si, // Pointer to STARTUPINFO structure &pi ) // Pointer to PROCESS_INFORMATION structure ) { printf( "CreateProcess failed (%d).\n", GetLastError() ); return; } // Wait until child process exits. WaitForSingleObject( pi.hProcess, INFINITE ); // Close process and thread handles. CloseHandle( pi.hProcess ); CloseHandle( pi.hThread ); } However, this code crated access violation somehow. Can I execute mspaint without showing user the console? Thank you very much.

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  • submittingthe form even if the form is in invalid state

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

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  • C# XML node with colon

    - by Sticky
    Hi, my code attempts to grab data from the RSS feed of a website. It grabs the nodes fine, but when attempting to grab the data from a node with a colon, it crashes and gives the error "Namespace Manager or XsltContext needed. This query has a prefix, variable, or user-defined function." The code is shown below: WebRequest request = WebRequest.Create("http://buypoe.com/external.php?type=RSS2&lastpost=true"); WebResponse response = request.GetResponse(); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(""); System.IO.StreamReader rssStream = new System.IO.StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream(), System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding("utf-8")); XmlDocument rssDoc = new XmlDocument(); rssDoc.Load(rssStream); XmlNodeList rssItems = rssDoc.SelectNodes("rss/channel/item"); for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) { XmlNode rssDetail; rssDetail = rssItems.Item(i).SelectSingleNode("dc:creator"); if (rssDetail != null) { user = rssDetail.InnerText; } else { user = ""; } } I understand that I need to define the namespace, but am unsure how to do this. Help would be appreciated.

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  • File.Replace throwing IOException

    - by WebDevHobo
    I have an app that can make modify images. In some cases, this makes the filesize smaller, in some cases bigger. The program doesn't have an option to "not replace the file if result has a bigger filesize". So I wrote a little C# app to try and solve this. Instead of overwriting the files, I make the app write the result to a folder under the current one and name that folder Test. The C# app I wrote compares grabs the contents of both folders and puts the full path to the file(s) in two List objects. I then compare and replace. The replacing isn't working however. I get the following IOException: Unable to remove the file to be replaced The location is on an external hard-drive, on which I have full rights. Now, I know I can just do File.Delete and File.Move in that order, but this exception has gotten me interested in why this particular setup wont work. Here's the source code: http://pastebin.com/4Vq82Umu And yes, the file specified as last argument of the Replace function does exist.

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  • Building an 'Activation Key' Generator in JAVA

    - by jax
    I want to develop a Key generator for my phone applications. Currently I am using an external service to do the job but I am a little concerned that the service might go offline one day hence I will be in a bit of a pickle. How authentication works now. Public key stored on the phone. When the user requests a key the 'phone ID' is sent to the "Key Generation Service" and the encrypted key key is returned and stored inside a license file. On the phone I can check if the key is for the current phone by using a method getPhoneId() which I can check with the the current phone and grant or not grant access to features. I like this and it works well, however, I want to create my own "Key Generation Service" from my own website. Requirements: Public and Private Key Encryption:(Bouncy Castle) Written in JAVA Must support getApplicationId() (so that many applications can use the same key generator) and getPhoneId() (to get the phone id out of the encrypted license file) I want to be able to send the ApplicationId and PhoneId to the service for license key generation. Can someone give me some pointers on how to accomplish this? I have dabbled around with some java encryption but am definitely no expert and can't find anything that will help me. A list of the Java classes I would need to instantiate would be helpful.

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  • Serialization of Entity Framework Models with .NET WCF Rest Service

    - by Chris Phillips
    I'm trying to put together a very simple REST-style interface for communicating with our partners. An example object in the API is a partner, which we'd like to have serialized like this: <partner> <id>ID</id> <name>NAME</name> </partner> This is fairly simply to achieve using the .NET 4.0 WCF REST template if we simply declare a partner class as: public class Partner { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } But when I use the Entity Framework to define and store Partner objects, the resulting serialization looks something like this: <Partner p1:Id="NCNameString" p1:Ref="NCNameString" xmlns:p1="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2003/10/Serialization/" xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/TheTradeDesk.AdPlatform.Provisioning"> <EntityKey p1:Id="NCNameString" p1:Ref="NCNameString" xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data.Objects.DataClasses"> <EntityContainerName xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data">String content</EntityContainerName> <EntityKeyValues xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data"> ... This XML is obviously unacceptable for use as an external API. What are suggested mechanisms for using EF for the data store but maintaining a simple XML serialization interface?

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  • Eclipse cannot find existing project in build path

    - by PNS
    Here is probably one of the idiosyncrasies of Eclipse and its handling of build paths, which cannot be fixed despite all sorts of workarounds tested so far. The issue relates to a workspace of several projects, each of which compiles into its own JAR. Dependencies among the projects are resolved by adding the relevant ones to the build path (no Maven or other external tool or plugin is used), via Project -> Properties -> Java Build Path -> Projects Among all these projects, a couple (say, com.example.p1 and com.example.p2) refuse to recognize a third (and simple) one (say, com.example.p3), while all other projects do. So, although P3 is added to the build path, all related classes from P3 are imported properly and the source code of each such class is accessible by hitting F3, Eclipse keeps complaining that The import com.example.p3 cannot be resolved and SomeClass cannot be resolved to a type where com.example.p3.SomeClass is one of the P3 classes. If instead of the P3 project I put its compiled JAR in the build path, the issue disappears. However, code in P3 changes frequently and it is a time waste to keep compiling and refreshing the workspace so that the change is picked up, not to mention that this should not happen in an IDE anyway (and it does not for the other projects using P3). Among the workarounds tried are things like: Removing and adding again P1, P2, P3 Cleaning up and recompiling everything Checking whether any other project loads the P3 JAR Putting P3 at the top of the Eclipse build path "Order and Export" list Using the "Fix project setup" suggestion of Eclipse (available when hovering the mouse over the red-underlined-error compilation line). Actually, this option offers adding to the build path either P3 or its JAR, but if P3 is added, the issue reappears. Any ideas?

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  • Sharepoint fails to load a C++ dll on windows 2008

    - by Nathan
    I have a sharepoint DLL that does some licensing things and as part of the code it uses an external C++ DLL to get the serial number of the hardisk. When i run this application on windows server 2003 it works fine, but on 2008 the whole site (loaded on load) crashes and resets continually. This is not 2008 R2 and is the same in 64 or 32 bits. If i put a debugger.break before the dll execution then I see the code get to the point of the break then never come back into the dll again. I do get some debug assertion warnings from within the function, again only in 2008, but im not sure this is related. I created a console app that runs the c# dll, which in turn loads the c++ dll, and this works perfectly on 2008 (although does show the assertion errors, but I have suppressed these now). The assertion errors are not in my code but within ICtypes.c and not something I can debug. If i put a breakpoint in the DLL it is never hit and the compiler says : "step in: Stepping over non user code" if i try to debug into the DLL using VS. I have tried wrapping the code used to call the DLL in: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() but this also does not help. I have the sourcecode for this DLL so that is not a problem. If i delete the DLL from the directory I get an error about a missing DLL, if i replace it back to no error or warning just a complete failure. If i replace this code with a hardcoded string the whole application works fine. Any advice would be much appreciated, I can't understand why it works as a console app yet not when run by sharepoint, this is with the same user account, on the same machine... This is the code used to call the DLL: [DllImport("idDll.dll", EntryPoint = "GetMachineId", SetLastError = true)] extern static string GetComponentId([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)]String s); public static string GetComponentId() { Debugger.Break(); if (_machine == string.Empty) { string temp = ""; id= ComponentId.GetComponentId(temp); } return id; }

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  • JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

    - by Val
    I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

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  • Is there a Symfony callback at the termination of a session?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have an application that is authenticating against an external server in a filter. In that filter, I'm trying to set a couple of session attributes on the user by using Symfony's setAttribute() method: $this->getContext()->getUser()->setAttribute( 'myAttribute', 'myValue' ); What I'm finding is that, if I dump $_SESSION immediately after setting the attribute. On the other hand, if I call getAttribute( 'myAttribute' ), I get back exactly what I put in. All along, I've assumed that reading/writing to user attributes was synonymous with reading/writing to the session, but that seems to be an incorrect assumption. Is there a timing issue? I'm not getting any non-object errors, so it seems that the user is fully initialized. Where is the disconnect here? Thanks. UPDATE The reason this was happening is because I had some code in myUser::shutdown() that cleared out a bunch of stuff. Because myUser is loosely equivalent to $_SESSION (at least with respect to attributes), I assumed that the shutdown() method would be called at the end of each session. It's not. It seems to get called at the close of each request which is why my attributes never seemed to get set. Now, though, I'm left wondering whether there's a session closing callback. Anyone know?

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  • How to properly handle signals when using the worker thread pattern?

    - by ipartola
    I have a simple server that looks something like this: void *run_thread(void *arg) { // Communicate via a blocking socket } int main() { // Initialization happens here... // Main event loop while (1) { new_client = accept(socket, ...); pthread_create(&thread, NULL, &run_thread, *thread_data*); pthread_detach(thread); } // Do cleanup stuff: close(socket); // Wait for existing threads to finish exit(0); ) Thus when a SIGINT or SIGTERM is received I need to break out of the main event loop to get to the clean up code. Moreover most likely the master thread is waiting on the accept() call so it's not able to check some other variable to see if it should break;. Most of the advice I found was along the lines of this: http://devcry.blogspot.com/2009/05/pthreads-and-unix-signals.html (creating a special signal handling thread to catch all the signals and do processing on those). However, it's the processing portion that I can't really wrap my head around: how can I possibly tell the main thread to return from the accept() call and check on an external variable to see if it should break;?

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