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• What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

  - by Pichan

  I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

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• Multiple Solution Layout for ASP.NET Web Portal?

  - by Jared S

  At work, we've developed a custom ASP.NET Web Portal (That's very similar to iGoogle). We have "Apps" (self-contained, large web forms) and "Modules" (similar to Google Gadgets). Currently, we use a single-solution model. Right now, we have: 3 core projects 60 application projects 80 module projects To reduce copy and pasting between projects, we're going to factor out common functionality (Data Access, Business Logic) into separate projects. I'd also like to introduce Unit Tests, which is going to increase the number of projects even more. We've already reached the point where Visual Studio is choking on the number of projects. We generally only load the 3 core projects and then whatever app's/module's project we're working on. Would a different solution structure help us out? Our number of projects is only going to increase. In general, an app or module only references the 3 core projects. Soon, apps/modules may start referencing the Data Access/Business Logic projects. But in general, apps and modules do not make references between themselves. So to recap, what is the best practice for solution structure when there are MANY projects that use a small number of core projects?

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• Chrome renders button links completely screwed up when placed inside a paragraph

  - by Ferdy

  I am fairly proficient in CSS but now I am running into a very strange rendering issue in Google Chrome 9. I am trying to create some fancy looking link buttons (basically heavily styled anchors). Here is some example markup: <a href="" class="button"> <figure class="sprite icon icon_back"></figure> Link button with icon</a> This markup may look a litte strange to you, there's a few things you should know: I am using HTML5's figure class to include an icon as part of the button. I have the proper reset CSS applied and Chrome can render this tag for sure. Instead of actually pointing to an image I am applying CSS classes to the figure element. Within the CSS I am using the spriting technique to show the correct portion of a single large sprite image. All of this is working fine in Firefox, and actually also in Chrome. The correct rendering can be seen in the following image: It renders like that in both Firefox and Chrome. Here comes the problem, if I place such a button within paragraph tags <p></p> this is what happens in Chrome only: Notice how the button is ripped apart? Only in Chrome and only when placed inside a paragraph. It gets even stranger: this only happens for the first button inside the paragraph, if I would place three buttons inside a paragraph, only the 1st one is screwed up. Your first question would probably be about the CSS. It is rather verbose so hereby a temporary link to the page in question: Edit: link to live page removed, was only temporary for problem inspection.

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• how to write this query using joins?

  - by aquero

  Hi, i have a table campaign which has details of campaign mails sent. campaign_table: campaign_id campaign_name flag 1 test1 1 2 test2 1 3 test3 0 another table campaign activity which has details of campaign activities. campaign_activity: campaign_id is_clicked is_opened 1 0 1 1 1 0 2 0 1 2 1 0 I want to get all campaigns with flag value 3 and the number of is_clicked columns with value 1 and number of columns with is_opened value 1 in a single query. ie. campaign_id campaign_name numberofclicks numberofopens 1 test1 1 1 2 test2 1 1 I did this using sub-query with the query: select c.campaign_id,c.campaign_name, (SELECT count(campaign_id) from campaign_activity WHERE campaign_id=c.id AND is_clicked=1) as numberofclicks, (SELECT count(campaign_id) from campaign_activity WHERE campaign_id=c.id AND is_clicked=1) as numberofopens FROM campaign c WHERE c.flag=1 But people say that using sub-queries are not a good coding convention and you have to use join instead of sub-queries. But i don't know how to get the same result using join. I consulted with some of my colleagues and they are saying that its not possible to use join in this situation. Is it possible to get the same result using joins? if yes, please tell me how.

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• CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

  - by Philip Rich

  I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

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• VB.net avoiding cross thread exception with extension method

  - by user574632

  Hello I am trying to implement a solution for updating form controls without using a delegate. I am attempting to use the 1st solution on this page: http://www.dreamincode.net/forums/blog/143/entry-2337-handling-the-dreaded-cross-thread-exception/ Imports System.ComponentModel Imports System.Runtime.CompilerServices Public Module MyInvoke <Extension()> _ Public Sub CustomInvoke(Of T As ISynchronizeInvoke)(ByVal control As T, ByVal toPerform As Action(Of T)) If control.InvokeRequired Then control.Invoke(toPerform, New Object() {control}) toPerform(control) End If End Sub End Module The site gives this as example of how to use: Label1.CustomInvoke(l => l.Text = "Hello World!") But i get 'l' is not declared error. As you can see im very new to VB or any OOP. I can get the second solution on that page to work (using delegates) but i have quite a few things to do in this thread and it seems like i would need to write a new delegate sub for each thing, which seems wasteful. What i need to do is select the 1st item from a combobox, update a textbox.text with the selected item, and pass the selected item to a function. Then wait for x seconds and start again, selecting the second item. I can get it to work in a single threaded application, but i need the interface to remain responsive. Any help greatly appreciated. EDIT: OK so changing the syntax worked for the example. However if i change it from Label1.CustomInvoke(Sub(l) l.text = "hello world!") (which worked just fine) to: Dim indexnumber As Integer = 0 ComboBox1.CustomInvoke(Sub(l) l.SelectedIndex = indexnumber) I get a cross threading error as though i didnt even use this method: Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'ComboBox1' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. So now im back to where i started? Any further help very much appreciated.

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• How long is the time frame between context switches on Windows?

  - by mattcodes

  Reading CLR via C# 2.0 (I dont have 3.0 with me at the moment) Is this still the case: If there is only one CPU in a computer, only one thread can run at any one time. Windows has to keep track of the thread objects, and every so often, Windows has to decide which thread to schedule next to go to the CPU. This is additional code that has to execute once every 20 milliseconds or so. When Windows makes a CPU stop executing one thread's code and start executing another thread's code, we call this a context switch. A context switch is fairly expensive because the operating system has to: So circa CLR via C# 2.0 lets say we are on Pentium 4 2.4ghz 1 core non-HT, XP. Every 20 milliseconds? Where a CLR thread or Java thread is mapped to an OS thread only a maximum of 50 threads per second may get a chance to to run? I've read that context switching is very fast in mircoseconds here on SO, but how often roughly (magnitude style guesses) will say a modest 5 year old server Windows 2003 Pentium Xeon single core give the OS the opportunity to context switch? 20ms in the right area? I dont need exact figures I just want to be sure that's in the right area, seems rather long to me.

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• KSH: Variables containing double quotes

  - by nitrobass24

  I have a string called STRING1 that could contain double quotes. I am echoing the string through sed to pull out puntuation then sending to array to count certain words. The problem is I cannot echo variables through double quotes to sed. I am crawling our filesystems looking for files that use FTP commands. I grep each file for "FTP" STRING1=`grep -i ftp $filename` If you echo $STRING1 this is the output (just one example) myserver> echo "Your file `basename $1` is too large to e-mail. You must ftp the file to BMC tech support. \c" echo "Then, ftp it to ftp.bmc.com with the user name 'anonymous.' \c" echo "When the ftp is successful, notify technical support by phone (800-537-1813) or by e-mail ([email protected].)" Then I have this code STRING2=`echo $STRING1|sed 's/[^a-zA-Z0-9]/ /g'` I have tried double quoting $STRING1 like STRING2=`echo "$STRING1"|sed 's/[^a-zA-Z0-9]/ /g'` But that does not work. Single Qoutes, just sends $STRING1 as the string to sed...so that did not work. What else can I do here?

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• Publish Git repository to SVN

  - by Ken Williams

  I and my small team work in Git, and the larger group uses Subversion. I'd like to schedule a cron job to publish our repositories current HEADs every hour into a certain directory in the SVN repo. I thought I had this figured out, but the recipe I wrote down previously doesn't seem to be working now: git clone ssh://me@gitserver/git-repo/Projects/ProjX px2 cd px2 svn mkdir --parents http://me@svnserver/svn/repo/play/me/fromgit/ProjX git svn init -s http://me@svnserver/svn/repo/play/me/fromgit/ProjX git svn fetch git rebase trunk master git svn dcommit Here's what happens when I attempt: % git clone ssh://me@gitserver/git-repo/Projects/ProjX px2 Cloning into 'ProjX'... ... % cd px2 % svn mkdir --parents http://me@svnserver/svn/repo/play/me/fromgit/ProjX Committed revision 123. % git svn init -s http://me@svnserver/svn/repo/play/me/fromgit/ProjX Using higher level of URL: http://me@svnserver/svn/repo/play/me/fromgit/ProjX => http://me@svnserver/svn/repo % git svn fetch W: Ignoring error from SVN, path probably does not exist: (160013): Filesystem has no item: File not found: revision 100, path '/play/me/fromgit/ProjX' W: Do not be alarmed at the above message git-svn is just searching aggressively for old history. This may take a while on large repositories % git rebase trunk master fatal: Needed a single revision invalid upstream trunk I could have sworn this worked previously, anyone have any suggestions? Thanks.

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• What is Wordpress doing for content encoding in it's mysql database?

  - by qbxk

  For some convoluted reasons best left behind us, I require direct access the contents of a wordpress database. I'm using mysql 5.0.70-r1 on gentoo with wordpress 2.6, and perl 5.8.8 ftr. So, sometimes we get high-order characters in the blog, we have quite a few authors contributing too, for the most part these characters end up in wp's database in wp_posts.post_content or wp_postmeta.meta_value, Wordpress is displaying these correctly on it's site, but the database stores it using single byte encoding that I can't figure out how to convert to the correct string. Today's example: the blog shows this, and doesn't even seem to escape any chars in the html, Hãhãhães but the database, when viewed via the mysql prompt, has, Hãhãhães So clearly this is some kind of double-byte encoding issue, but I don't know how I can correct it. I need to be able to pull that second string from the database (b/c that's what it gives me) and convert it to the first one, and i need to do so using perl. also, just to help unmuddy any waters, I took these strings and printed out the ascii codes for each character using perl's ord() function. Here is the output of the "wrong" string H = 72 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 e = 101 s = 115 This is the correct string, that I need to produce in my script H = 72 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 e = 101 s = 115

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• Use SQL to clone a tree structure represented in a database

  - by AmoebaMan17

  Given a table that represents a hierarchical tree structure and has three columns ID (Primary Key, not-autoincrementing) ParentGroupID SomeValue I know the lowest most node of that branch, and I want to copy that to a new branch with the same number of parents that also need to be cloned. I am trying to write a single SQL INSERT INTO statement that will make a copy of every row that is of the same main has is part one GroupID into a new GroupID. Example beginning table: ID | ParentGroupID | SomeValue ------------------------ 1 | -1 | a 2 | 1 | b 3 | 2 | c Goal after I run a simple INSERT INTO statement: ID | ParentGroupID | SomeValue ------------------------ 1 | -1 | a 2 | 1 | b 3 | 2 | c 4 | -1 | a-cloned 5 | 4 | b-cloned 6 | 5 | c-cloned Final tree structure +--a (1) | +--b (2) | +--c (3) | +--a-cloned (4) | +--b-cloned (5) | +--c-cloned (6) The IDs aren't always nicely spaced out as this demo data is showing, so I can't always assume that the Parent's ID is 1 less than the current ID for rows that have parents. Also, I am trying to do this in T-SQL (for Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and greater). This feels like a classic exercise that should have a pure-SQL answer, but I'm too used to programming that my mind doesn't think in relational SQL.

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• eclipse error with android: id cannot be resolved or is not a field

  - by Jaynathan Leung

  Hi, I just started playing around with android development, and already with just an attempt at making a button, I have encountered a problem. The error I'm given in the following code is right on "R.id.button1". It says id cannot be resolved or is not a field. Do I need to manually reference every single object I make in the layout xml file? I found that this did work, but it does seem to be a bit much for every button I want to make... package com.example.helloandroid; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.widget.Button; public class HelloAndroid extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ private Button button1; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); button1 = (Button)findViewById(R.id.button1); button1.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { finish(); } }); } }

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• Where do you put your dependencies?

  - by The All Foo

  If I use the dependency injection pattern to remove dependencies they end up some where else. For example, Snippet 1, or what I call Object Maker. I mean you have to instantiate your objects somewhere...so when you move dependency out of one object, you end up putting it another one. I see that this consolidates all my dependencies into one object. Is that the point, to reduce your dependencies so that they all reside in a single ( as close to as possible ) location? Snippet 1 - Object Maker <?php class ObjectMaker { public function makeSignUp() { $DatabaseObject = new Database(); $TextObject = new Text(); $MessageObject = new Message(); $SignUpObject = new ControlSignUp(); $SignUpObject->setObjects($DatabaseObject, $TextObject, $MessageObject); return $SignUpObject; } public function makeSignIn() { $DatabaseObject = new Database(); $TextObject = new Text(); $MessageObject = new Message(); $SignInObject = new ControlSignIn(); $SignInObject->setObjects($DatabaseObject, $TextObject, $MessageObject); return $SignInObject; } public function makeTweet( $DatabaseObject = NULL, $TextObject = NULL, $MessageObject = NULL ) { if( $DatabaseObject == 'small' ) { $DatabaseObject = new Database(); } else if( $DatabaseObject == NULL ) { $DatabaseObject = new Database(); $TextObject = new Text(); $MessageObject = new Message(); } $TweetObject = new ControlTweet(); $TweetObject->setObjects($DatabaseObject, $TextObject, $MessageObject); return $TweetObject; } public function makeBookmark( $DatabaseObject = NULL, $TextObject = NULL, $MessageObject = NULL ) { if( $DatabaseObject == 'small' ) { $DatabaseObject = new Database(); } else if( $DatabaseObject == NULL ) { $DatabaseObject = new Database(); $TextObject = new Text(); $MessageObject = new Message(); } $BookmarkObject = new ControlBookmark(); $BookmarkObject->setObjects($DatabaseObject,$TextObject,$MessageObject); return $BookmarkObject; } }

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• Why doesn't the spring @Autowire work with java generics

  - by testing123

  Inspired by spring data awesomeness I wanted to create a abstract RESTController that I could extend for a lot of my controllers. I created the following class: @Controller public abstract class RESTController<E, PK extends Serializable, R extends PagingAndSortingRepository<E, PK>> { @Autowired private R repository; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, params={"id"}) @ResponseBody public E getEntity(@RequestParam PK id) { return repository.findOne(id); } ... } I was hoping that the generics would allow me to @Autowire in the repository but I get the following error: SEVERE: Allocate exception for servlet appServlet org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No unique bean of type [org.springframework.data.repository.PagingAndSortingRepository] is defined: expected single matching bean but found 3: [groupRepository, externalCourseRepository, managedCourseRepository] at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.doResolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:800) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.resolveDependency(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:707) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor$AutowiredFieldElement.inject(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:478) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.InjectionMetadata.inject(InjectionMetadata.java:87) at org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.postProcessPropertyValues(AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor.java:284) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.populateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1106) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.doCreateBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:517) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.createBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:456) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory$1.getObject(AbstractBeanFactory.java:294) I understand what the error is telling me, there is more than one match for the @Autowire. I am confused because I thought by creating the following controller it would work: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/managedCourse") public class ManagedCourseController extends RESTController<ManagedCourse, Long, ManagedCourseRepository> { ... } This is easy enough to work around by doing having a method like this in the RESTController: protected abstract R getRepository(); and then doing this in your implementing class: @Autowired private ManagedCourseRepository repository; @Override protected ManagedCourseRepository getRepository() { return repository; } I was just wondering if someone had any thoughts of how I could get this to work.

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• In C/C++ mode in Emacs, change face of code in #if 0...#endif block to comment face

  - by pogopop77

  I'm trying to add functionality found in some other code editors to my Emacs configuration, whereby C/C++ code within #if 0...#endif blocks is automatically set to the comment face/font. Based on my testing, cpp-highlight-mode does something like what I want, but requires user action. It seems like tying into the font-lock functionality is the correct option to make the behavior automatic. I have successfully followed examples in the GNU documentation to change the face of single-line regular expressions. For example: (add-hook 'c-mode-common-hook (lambda () (font-lock-add-keywords nil '(("\\<\\(FIXME\\|TODO\\|HACK\\|fixme\\|todo\\|hack\\)" 1 font-lock-warning-face t))))) works fine to highlight debug related keywords anywhere in a file. However, I am having problems matching #if 0...#endif as a multiline regular expression. I found some useful information in this post (How to compose region like ""), that suggested that Emacs must be told specifically to allow for multiline matches. But this code: (add-hook 'c-mode-common-hook (lambda () '(progn (setq font-lock-multiline t) (font-lock-add-keywords nil '(("#if 0\\(.\\|\n\\)*?#endif" 1 font-lock-comment-face t)))))) still does not work for me. Perhaps my regular expression is wrong (though it appears to work using M-x re-builder), I've messed up my syntax, or I'm following the wrong approach entirely. I'm using Aquamacs 2.1 (which is based on GNU Emacs 23.2.50.1) on OS X 10.6.5, if that makes a difference. Any assistance would be appreciated!

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• Binding between Usercontrol with listbox and parent control (MVVM)

  - by walkor

  I have a UserControl which contains a listbox and few buttons. <UserControl x:Class="ItemControls.ListBoxControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006"> <Grid> <ListBox:ExtendedListBox SelectionMode="Single" ItemsSource="{Binding LBItems}" Height="184"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CheckBox Content="{Binding}"/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> <Button Command="RemoveCommand"/> </Grid> </UserControl> And the code behind: public static readonly DependencyProperty RemoveCommandProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("RemoveCommand", typeof(ICommand), typeof(ListBoxControl), null); public ICommand RemoveCommand { get { return (ICommand)GetValue(RemoveCommandProperty); } set { SetValue(RemoveCommandProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty LBItemsProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("LBItems", typeof(IEnumerable), typeof(ListBoxControl), null); public IEnumerable LBItems { get { return (IEnumerable)GetValue(LBItemsProperty); } set { SetValue(LBItemsProperty, value); } } I'm using this control in the view like this: <ItemControls:ListBoxControl Height="240" Width="350" LBItems="{Binding Items, Converter={StaticResource ItemsConverter}, Mode=TwoWay}" RemoveCommand="{Binding RemoveCommand}"/> The command works fine, though the listbox binding doesn't. My question is - WHY?

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• What's the correct terminology for something that isn't quite classification nor regression?

  - by TC

  Let's say that I have a problem that is basicly classification. That is, given some input and a number of possible output classes, find the correct class for the given input. Neural networks and decision trees are some of the algorithms that may be used to solve such problems. These algorithms typically only emit a single result however: the resulting classification. Now what if I weren't only interested in one classification, but in the posterior probabilities that the input belongs to each of the classes. I.E., instead of the answer "This input belongs in class A", I want the answer "This input belongs to class A with 80%, class B with 15% and class C with 5%". My question is not on how to obtain these posterior probabilities, but rather on the correct terminology to describe the process of finding them. You could call it regression, since we are now trying to estimate a number of real valued numbers, but I am not quite sure if that's right. I feel it's not exactly classification either, it's something in between the two. Is there a word that describes the process of finding the class conditional posterior probabilities that some input belongs in each of the possible output classes? P.S. I'm not exactly sure if this question is enough of a programming question, but since it's about machine learning and machine learning generally involves a decent amount of programming, let's give it a shot.

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• Why do I have to specify pure virtual functions in the declaration of a derived class in Visual C++?

  - by neuviemeporte

  Given the base class A and the derived class B: class A { public: virtual void f() = 0; }; class B : public A { public: void g(); }; void B::g() { cout << "Yay!"; } void B::f() { cout << "Argh!"; } I get errors saying that f() is not declared in B while trying do define void B::f(). Do I have to declare f() explicitly in B? I think that if the interface changes I shouldn't have to correct the declarations in every single class deriving from it. Is there no way for B to get all the virtual functions' declarations from A automatically? EDIT: I found an article that says the inheritance of pure virtual functions is dependent on the compiler: http://www.objectmentor.com/resources/articles/abcpvf.pdf I'm using VC++2008, wonder if there's an option for this.

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• importing symbols from python package into caller's namespace

  - by Paul C

  I have a little internal DSL written in a single Python file that has grown to a point where I would like to split the contents across a number of different directories + files. The new directory structure currently looks like this: dsl/ __init__.py types/ __init__.py type1.py type2.py and each type file contains a class (e.g. Type1). My problem is that I would like to keep the implementation of code that uses this DSL as simple as possible, something like: import dsl x = Type1() ... This means that all of the important symbols should be available directly in the user's namespace. I have tried updating the top-level __init__.py file to import the relevant symbols: from types.type1 import Type1 from types.type2 import Type2 ... print globals() the output shows that the symbols are imported correctly, but they still aren't present in the caller's code (the code that's doing the import dsl). I think that the problem is that the symbols are actually being imported to the 'dsl' namespace. How can I change this so that the classes are also directly available in the caller's namespace?

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• Building Active Record Conditions in an array - private method 'scan' called error

  - by Nick

  Hi, I'm attempting to build a set of conditions dynamically using an array as suggested in the first answer here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1658990/one-or-more-params-in-model-find-conditions-with-ruby-on-rails. However I seem to be doing something incorrectly and I'm not sure if what I'm trying is fundamentally unsound or if I'm simply botching my syntax. I'm simplifying down to a single condition here to try to illustrate the issue as I've tried to built a simple Proof of concept along these lines before layering on the 5 different condition styles I'm contending with. This works: excluded.push 12 excluded.push 30 @allsites = Site.all(:conditions => ["id not in (?)", excluded]) This results in a private method 'scan' called error: excluded.push 12 excluded.push 30 conditionsSet << ["id not in (?)", excluded] @allsites = Site.all(:conditions => conditionsSet) Thanks for any advice. I wasn't sure if the proper thing was to put this as a followup item to the related question/answers I noted at the top. Since I've got a problem not an answer. If there is a better way to post this related to the existing post please let me know.

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• Is locking on the requested object a bad idea?

  - by Quick Joe Smith

  Most advice on thread safety involves some variation of the following pattern: public class Thing { private static readonly object padlock = new object(); private string stuff, andNonsense; public string Stuff { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Threadsafe!"; } return this.stuff; } } public string AndNonsense { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.andNonsense == null) this.andNonsense = "Also threadsafe!"; } return this.andNonsense; } } // Rest of class... } In cases where the get operations are expensive and unrelated, a single locking object is unsuitable because a call to Stuff would block all calls to AndNonsense, degrading performance. And rather than create a lock object for each call, wouldn't it be better to acquire the lock on the member itself (assuming it is not something that implements SyncRoot or somesuch for that purpose? For example: public string Stuff { get { lock (this.stuff) { // Pretend that this is a very expensive operation. if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Still threadsafe and good?"; } return this.stuff; } } Strangely, I have never seen this approach recommended or warned against. Am I missing something obvious?

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• How to handle window closed in the middle of a long running operation gracefully?

  - by Marek

  We have the following method called directly from the UI thread: void DoLengthyProcessing() { DoStuff(); var items = DoMoreStuff(); //do even more stuff - 200 lines of code trimmed this.someControl.PrepareForBigThing(); //someControl is a big user control //additional 100 lines of code that access this.someControl this.someControl.Finish(items); } Many of the called methods call Application.DoEvents() (and they do so many times) (do not ask me why, this is black magic written by black magic programmers and it can not be changed because everyone is scared what the impact would be) and there is also an operation running on a background thread involved in the processing. As a result, the window is not fully nonresponsive and can be closed manually during the processing. The Dispose method of the form "releases" the someControl variable by setting it to null. As a result, in case the user closes the window during the lengthy process, a null reference exception is thrown. How to handle this gracefully without just catching and logging the exception caused by disposal? Assigning the someControl instance to a temporary variable in the beginning of the method - but the control contains many subcontrols with similar disposal scheme - sets them to null and this causes null reference exceptions in other place put if (this.IsDisposed) return; calls before every access of the someControl variable. - making the already nasty long method even longer and unreadable. in Closing event, just indicate that we should close and only hide the window. Dispose it at the end of the lengthy operation. This is not very viable because there are many other methods involved (think 20K LOC for a single control) that would need to handle this mechanism as well. How to most effectively handle window disposal (by user action) in the middle of this kind of processing?

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• Java: fastest way to do random reads on huge disk file(s)

  - by cocotwo

  I've got a moderately big set of data, about 800 MB or so, that is basically some big precomputed table that I need to speed some computation by several orders of magnitude (creating that file took several mutlicores computers days to produce using an optimized and multi-threaded algo... I do really need that file). Now that it has been computed once, that 800MB of data is read only. I cannot hold it in memory. As of now it is one big huge 800MB file but splitting in into smaller files ain't a problem if it can help. I need to read about 32 bits of data here and there in that file a lot of time. I don't know before hand where I'll need to read these data: the reads are uniformly distributed. What would be the fastest way in Java to do my random reads in such a file or files? Ideally I should be doing these reads from several unrelated threads (but I could queue the reads in a single thread if needed). Is Java NIO the way to go? I'm not familiar with 'memory mapped file': I think I don't want to map the 800 MB in memory. All I want is the fastest random reads I can get to access these 800MB of disk-based data. btw in case people wonder this is not at all the same as the question I asked not long ago: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2346722/java-fast-disk-based-hash-set

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• Is there any point in using a volatile long?

  - by Adamski

  I occasionally use a volatile instance variable in cases where I have two threads reading from / writing to it and don't want the overhead (or potential deadlock risk) of taking out a lock; for example a timer thread periodically updating an int ID that is exposed as a getter on some class: public class MyClass { private volatile int id; public MyClass() { ScheduledExecutorService execService = Executors.newScheduledThreadPool(1); execService.scheduleAtFixedRate(new Runnable() { public void run() { ++id; } }, 0L, 30L, TimeUnit.SECONDS); } public int getId() { return id; } } My question: Given that the JLS only guarantees that 32-bit reads will be atomic is there any point in ever using a volatile long? (i.e. 64-bit). Caveat: Please do not reply saying that using volatile over synchronized is a case of pre-optimisation; I am well aware of how / when to use synchronized but there are cases where volatile is preferable. For example, when defining a Spring bean for use in a single-threaded application I tend to favour volatile instance variables, as there is no guarantee that the Spring context will initialise each bean's properties in the main thread.

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• How to handle build rule with unknown targets in OMake when target list generator is built

  - by Michael E

  I have a project which uses OMake for its build system, and I am trying to handle a rather tough corner case. I have some definition files and a tool which can take these definition files and create GraphViz files. There are two problems, though: Each definition file can produce multiple graphs, and the list of graphs it can produce is encoded in the file. My dump tool does have a -list option which lists all the graphs a definition file will produce. This dump tool is built in the source tree. I want this list available in the OMakefile so I can use other rules to convert the DOT files to SVG, and have a phony target depend on all the SVGs (goal: a single build command which builds SVG descriptions of all my graphs). If I only had the first problem, it would be easy - I would run the tool to build a list, and then use that list to build a target which invokes the dumper to output the GraphViz files. However, I am rather stuck on forcing the dump tool to be built before it is needed. If this were make, I would just run make recursively to build the dump tool. OMake does not allow recursive invocation, however, and the build function is only usable from osh. Any suggestions for a good solution to this problem?

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