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  • retrieving object information with Doctrine

    - by ajsie
    i want to fetch information from the database using objects. i really like this approach cause this is more OOP: $user = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->find(1); echo $user->Email['address']; echo $user->Phonenumbers[0]->phonenumber; rather than: $q = Doctrine_Query::create() ->from('User u') ->leftJoin('u.Email e') ->leftJoin('u.Phonenumbers p') ->where('u.id = ?', 1); $user = $q->fetchOne(); echo $user->Email['address']; echo $user->Phonenumbers[0]['phonenumber']; the problem is that the first one uses 3 queries (3 different tables), while the second one uses only 1 (and is therefore recommended technique). but i feel that it destroys the object oriented design. cause ORM is meant to give us an OOP approach so that we could focus on objects and not the relational database. but now they want us to go back to use SQL like pattern. there isn't a way to get information form multiple tables not using DQL? the above examples are taken from the documentation: doctrine

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  • How do I view the full content of a text or varchar(MAX) column in SQL Server 2008 Management Studio

    - by adamjford
    In this live SQL Server 2008 (build 10.0.1600) database, there's an Events table, which contains a text column named Details. (Yes, I realize this should actually be a varchar(MAX) column, but whoever set this database up did not do it that way.) This column contains very large logs of exceptions and associated JSON data that I'm trying to access through SQL Server Management Studio, but whenever I copy the results from the grid to a text editor, it truncates it at 43679 characters. I've read on various locations on the Internet that you can set your Maximum Characters Retrieved for XML Data in Tools > Options > Query Results > SQL Server > Results To Grid to Unlimited, and then perform a query such as this: select Convert(xml, Details) from Events where EventID = 13920 (Note that the data is column is not XML at all. CONVERTing the column to XML is merely a workaround I found from Googling that someone else has used to get around the limit SSMS has from retrieving data from a text or varchar(MAX) column.) However, after setting the option above, running the query, and clicking on the link in the result, I still get the following error: Unable to show XML. The following error happened: Unexpected end of file has occurred. Line 5, position 220160. One solution is to increase the number of characters retrieved from the server for XML data. To change this setting, on the Tools menu, click Options. So, any idea on how to access this data? Would converting the column to varchar(MAX) fix my woes?

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  • Pros/cons of reading connection string from physical file vs Application object (ASP.NET)?

    - by HaterTot
    my ASP.NET application reads an xml file to determine which environment it's currently in (e.g. local, development, production). It checks this file every single time it opens a connection to the database, in order to know which connection string to grab from the Application Settings. I'm entering a phase of development where efficiency is becoming a concern. I don't think it's a good idea to have to read a file on a physical disk ever single time I wish to access the database (very often). I was considering storing the connection string in Application["ConnectionString"]. So the code would be public static string GetConnectionString { if (Application["ConnectionString"] == null) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(HttpContext.Current.Request.PhysicalApplicationPath + "bin/ServerEnvironment.xml"); XmlElement xe = (XmlElement) xnl[0]; switch (xe.InnerText.ToString().ToLower()) { case "local": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringLocal; break; case "development": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringDevelopment; break; case "production": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringProduction; break; default: throw new Exception("no connection string defined"); } Application["ConnectionString"] = connString; } return Application["ConnectionString"].ToString(); } I didn't design the application so I figure there must have been a reason for reading the xml file every time (to change settings while the application runs?) I have very little concept of the inner workings here. What are the pros and cons? Do you think I'd see a small performance gain by implementing the function above? THANKS

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  • Ruby array, javascript and json issue

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, I am unable to get a highcharts plugin to render a chart in a rails application: http://github.com/loudpixel/highcharts-rails I believe it has something to do with the sql queries to the database placed in a ruby array, which the javascript is unable to intepret. This is what I have: def panels pass = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 1') fail = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 2') student_data = [ {:name => 'Pass', :y => pass}, {:name => 'Fail', :y => fail} ] pie_label_formatter = ' function() { if (this.y > 15) return this.point.name; }' pie_tooltip_formatter = ' function() { return "<strong>" + this.point.name + "</strong>: " + this.y + " %"; }' @pie_chart = Highchart.pie({ :chart => { :renderTo => "pie-chart-container", :margin => [50, 30, 0, 30] }, :plotOptions => { :pie => { :dataLabels => { :formatter => pie_label_formatter, :style => { :textShadow => '#000000 1px 1px 2px' } } } }, :series => [ { :type => 'pie', :data => student_data } ], :subtitle => { :text => 'April 2010' }, :title => { :text => 'Student Status Chart' }, :tooltip => { :formatter => pie_tooltip_formatter }, }) Note if I put this: :data = student_data.to_json It actually returns a json string of my query as text in the browser. Also, if I hard code values (e.g. :y = 1), it will render the chart properly. However, any database query will not render the chart properly. So I'm not sure exactly what the issue is. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • Why does Hibernate ignore the JPA2 standardized properties in my persistence.xml?

    - by Ophidian
    I have an extremely simple web application running in Tomcat using Spring 3.0.1, Hibernate 3.5.1, JPA 2, and Derby. I am defining all of my database connectivity in persistence.xml and merely using Spring for dependency injection. I am using embedded Derby as my database. Everything works correctly when I define the driver and url properties in persistence.xml in the classic Hibernate manner as thus: <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> The problems occur when I switch my configuration to the JPA2 standardized properties as thus: <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> When using the JPA2 property keys, the application bails hard with the following exception: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: The user must supply a JDBC connection Does anyone know why this is failing? NOTE: I have copied the javax... property strings straight from the Hibernate reference documentation, so a typo is extremely unlikely.

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  • Core Data, Bindings, value transformers : crash when saving

    - by Gael
    Hi, I am trying to store a PNG image in a core data store backed by an sqlite database. Since I intend to use this database on an iPhone I can't store NSImage objects directly. I wanted to use bindings and an NSValueTransformer subclass to handle the transcoding from the NSImage (obtained by an Image well on my GUI) to an NSData containing the PNG binary representation of the image. I wrote the following code for the ValueTransformer : + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSImage class]; } + (BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return YES; } - (id)transformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; return [[[NSImage alloc] initWithData:value] autorelease]; } - (id)reverseTransformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; if(![value isKindOfClass:[NSImage class]]) { NSLog(@"Type mismatch. Expecting NSImage"); } NSBitmapImageRep *bits = [[value representations] objectAtIndex: 0]; NSData *data = [bits representationUsingType:NSPNGFileType properties:nil]; return data; } The model has a transformable property configured with this NSValueTransformer. In Interface Builder a table column and an image well are both bound to this property and both have the proper value transformer name (an image dropped in the image well shows up in the table column). The transformer is registered and called every time an image is added or a row is reloaded (checked with NSLog() calls). The problem arises when I am trying to save the managed objects. The console output shows the error message : [NSImage length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1004933a0 It seems like core data is using the value transformer to obtain the NSImage back from the NSData and then tries to save the NSImage instead of the NSData. There are probably workarounds such as the one presented in this post but I would really like to understand why my approach is flawn. Thanks in advance for your ideas and explanations.

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  • SQL Query to return maximums over decades

    - by Abraham Lincoln
    My question is the following. I have a baseball database, and in that baseball database there is a master table which lists every player that has ever played. There is also a batting table, which tracks every players' batting statistics. I created a view to join those two together; hence the masterplusbatting table. CREATE TABLE `Master` ( `lahmanID` int(9) NOT NULL auto_increment, `playerID` varchar(10) NOT NULL default '', `nameFirst` varchar(50) default NULL, `nameLast` varchar(50) NOT NULL default '', PRIMARY KEY (`lahmanID`), KEY `playerID` (`playerID`), ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=18968 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; CREATE TABLE `Batting` ( `playerID` varchar(9) NOT NULL default '', `yearID` smallint(4) unsigned NOT NULL default '0', `teamID` char(3) NOT NULL default '', `lgID` char(2) NOT NULL default '', `HR` smallint(3) unsigned default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`playerID`,`yearID`,`stint`), KEY `playerID` (`playerID`), KEY `team` (`teamID`,`yearID`,`lgID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; Anyway, my first query involved finding the most home runs hit every year since baseball began, including ties. The query to do that is the following.... select f.yearID, f.nameFirst, f.nameLast, f.HR from ( select yearID, max(HR) as HOMERS from masterplusbatting group by yearID )as x inner join masterplusbatting as f on f.yearID = x.yearId and f.HR = x.HOMERS This worked great. However, I now want to find the highest HR hitter in each decade since baseball began. Here is what I tried. select f.yearID, truncate(f.yearid/10,0) as decade,f.nameFirst, f.nameLast, f.HR from ( select yearID, max(HR) as HOMERS from masterplusbatting group by yearID )as x inner join masterplusbatting as f on f.yearID = x.yearId and f.HR = x.HOMERS group by decade You can see that I truncated the yearID in order to get 187, 188, 189 etc instead of 1897, 1885,. I then grouped by the decade, thinking that it would give me the highest per decade, but it is not returning the correct values. For example, it's giving me Adrian Beltre with 48 HR's in 2004 but everyone knows that Barry Bonds hit 73 HR in 2001. Can anyone give me some pointers?

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  • [ZF & jQuery] How can I access an URL using AJAX, receive no response, but just manipulate HTML?

    - by rasouza
    I don't know if it's better used with AJAX (tell me, otherwise) but here is my problem: Assuming i'm using Zend Framework, I have a table with several registries from a database with a delete button on each row. That's like this [...] <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a href="#" id="<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>" class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> [...] I would like to .fadeOut() and delete (through the link history/delete/id/ROW_ID ) a table row when clicked in the respective delete button. My deleteAction() has no render. It really shouldn't have one, it just deletes a row in the database. Still, how can I make it happen? I tried: // TR Fading when deleted $('.delete') .click(function() { $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: 'history/delete/id/'+$(this).attr('id'), success: function() { $(this).parent().parent().fadeOut(); } }); return false; }); without success

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  • Bidirectional replication update record problem

    - by Mirek
    Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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  • proper use of volatile keyword

    - by luke
    I think i have a pretty good idea about the volatile keyword in java, but i'm thinking about re-factoring some code and i thought it would be a good idea to use it. i have a class that is basically working as a DB Cache. it holds a bunch of objects that it has read from a database, serves requests for those objects, and then occasionally refreshes the database (based on a timeout). Heres the skeleton public class Cache { private HashMap mappings =....; private long last_update_time; private void loadMappingsFromDB() { //.... } private void checkLoad() { if(System.currentTimeMillis() - last_update_time > TIMEOUT) loadMappingsFromDB(); } public Data get(ID id) { checkLoad(); //.. look it up } } So the concern is that loadMappingsFromDB could be a high latency operation and thats not acceptable, So initially i thought that i could spin up a thread on cache startup and then just have it sleep and then update the cache in the background. But then i would need to synchronize my class (or the map). and then i would just be trading an occasional big pause for making every cache access slower. Then i thought why not use volatile i could define the map reference as volatile private volatile HashMap mappings =....; and then in get (or anywhere else that uses the mappings variable) i would just make a local copy of the reference: public Data get(ID id) { HashMap local = mappings; //.. look it up using local } and then the background thread would just load into a temp table and then swap the references in the class HashMap tmp; //load tmp from DB mappings = tmp;//swap variables forcing write barrier Does this approach make sense? and is it actually thread-safe?

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  • pass object from JS to PHP and back

    - by Radu
    This is something that I don't think can't be done, or can't be done easy. Think of this, You have an button inside a div in HTML, when you click it, you call a php function via AJAX, I would like to send the element that start the click event(or any element as a parameter) to PHP and BACK to JS again, in a way like serialize() in PHP, to be able to restore the element in JS. Let me give you a simple example: PHP: function ajaxCall(element){ return element; } JS: callbackFunction(el){ el.color='red'; } HTML: <div id="id_div"> <input type="button" value="click Me" onClick="ajaxCall(this, callbackFunction);" /> </div> So I thing at 3 methods method 1. I can give each element in the page an ID. so the call to Ajax would look like this: ajaxCall(this.id, callbackFunction); and the callback function would be: document.getElementById(el).color='red'; This method I think is hard, beacause in a big page is hard to keep track of all ID's. method 2. I think that using xPath could be done, If i can get the exact path of an element, and in the callback function evaluate that path to reach the element. This method needs some googling, it is just an ideea. method 3. Modify my AJAX functions, so it retain the element that started the event, and pass it to the callback function as argument when something returns from PHP, so in my AJAX would look like this: eval(callbackFunction(argumentsFromPhp, element)); and the callback function would be: callbackFunction(someArgsFromPhp, el){ el.color='red'; // parse someArgsFromPhp } I think that the third option is my choise to start this experiment. Any of you has a better idea how I can accomplish this ? Thank you.

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  • Images from SQL Server JPG/PNG Image Column not being Type Converted to Bitmap in HttpHandlers (cons

    - by kanchirk
    Our Silverlight 3.0 Client consumes Images stored/retrieved on the File System thorough ASP.NET HttpHandlers successfully. We are trying to store and read back Images using a SQL Server 2008 Database. Please find the stripped down code pasted below with the Exception. "Bitmap is not Valid" //Store document to the database private void SaveImageToDatabaseKK(HttpContext context, string pImageFileName) { try { //ADO.NET Entity Framework ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); int intLength = Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length); //Move the file contents into the Byte array Byte[] arrContent = new Byte[intLength]; context.Request.InputStream.Read(arrContent, 0, intLength); //Insert record into the Document table documentDB.InsertDocument(pImageFileName, arrContent, intLength); } catch { } } =The method to Read Back the Row from the Table and Send it back is below.= private void RetrieveImageFromDatabaseTableKK(HttpContext context, string pImageName) { try { ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); var docRow = documentDB.GetDocument(pImageName); //based on Imagename which is unique //DocData column in table is **Image** if (docRow!=null && docRow.DocData != null && docRow.DocData.Length > 0) { Byte[] bytImage = docRow.DocData; if (bytImage != null && bytImage.Length > 0) { Bitmap newBmp = ConvertToBitmap(context, bytImage ); if (newBmp != null) { newBmp.Save(context.Response.OutputStream, ImageFormat.Jpeg); newBmp.Dispose(); } } } } catch (Exception exRI) { } } // Convert byte array to Bitmap (byte[] to Bitmap) protected Bitmap ConvertToBitmap(byte[] bmp) { if (bmp != null) { try { TypeConverter tc = TypeDescriptor.GetConverter(typeof(Bitmap)); Bitmap b = (Bitmap)tc.ConvertFrom(bmp); **//This is where the Exception Occurs.** return b; } catch (Exception) { } } return null; }

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  • Can I use a specific model from within a behavior in CakePHP?

    - by Paul Willy
    I'm trying to write a behavior that will give my models access to a simple workflow engine I've devised. The workflow engine itself works as a CakePHP model, with workflow data stored in the database just as any other model data is stored. Basically what I want to do is have the behavior use the workflow model whenever an action is called on the base model. For example, if the edit() action is executed for Posts, then the Post (with the behavior attached) will trigger the workflow behavior with its own model name, action, and id as arguments (e.g. [Post, edit, 1]). Then the behavior will invoke the functionality of the Workflow model, which has a record for what to do when edit is run on Posts (e.g. send e-mail to users who are subscribed to that post) and will carry that out. My question is, what is the proper way to invoke model/controller methods from within the behavior? The model to be used from within the behavior will always be Workflow, but the behavior should be usable from basically any model (aside from Workflow itself). I know I could run SQL queries directly from the behavior, but of course this is not the Cake way :-) Or, am I going about this in the wrong way? I want to store a certain amount of logic in the database so that it is easily configurable by different users, and not have endless configuration checks within the model/controller logic itself so that workflow steps can be easily added/changed/removed in the future.

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  • Why is it not good to use $_SESSION in Restful Implementations?

    - by keisimone
    Original Question: i read that for RESTful websites. it is not good to use $_SESSION. Why is it not good? how then do i properly authenticate users without looking up database all the time to check for the user's roles? I read that it is not good to use $_SESSION. http://www.recessframework.org/page/towards-restful-php-5-basic-tips I am creating a WEBSITE, not web service in PHP. and i am trying to make it more RESTful. at least in spirit. right now i am rewriting all the action to use Form tags POST and add in a hidden value called _method which would be "delete" for deleting action and "put" for updating action. however, i am not sure why it is recommended NOT to use $_SESSION. i would like to know why and what can i do to improve. To allow easy authorization checking, what i did was to after logging in the user, the username is stored in the $_SESSION. Everytime the user navigates to a page, the page would check if the username is stored inside $_SESSION and then based on the $_SESSION retrieves all the info including privileges from the database and then evaluates the authorization to access the page based on the info retrieved. Is the way I am implementing bad? not RESTful? how do i improve performance and security? Thank you.

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  • Is there a way to programmatically tell if particular block of memory was not freed by FastMM?

    - by Wodzu
    I am trying to detect if a block of memory was not freed. Of course, the manager tells me that by dialog box or log file, but what if I would like to store results in a database? For example I would like to have in a database table a names of routines which allocated given blocks. After reading a documentation of FastMM I know that since version 4.98 we have a possibility to be notified by manager about memory allocations, frees and reallocations as they occur. For example OnDebugFreeMemFinish event is passing to us a PFullDebugBlockHeader which contains useful informations. There is one thing that PFullDebugBlockHeader is missing - the information if the given block was freed by the application. Unless OnDebugFreeMemFinish is called only for not freed blocks? This is which I do not know and would like to find out. The problem is that even hooking into OnDebugFreeMemFinish event I was unable to find out if the block was freed or not. Here is an example: program MemLeakTest; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses FastMM4, ExceptionLog, SysUtils; procedure MemFreeEvent(APHeaderFreedBlock: PFullDebugBlockHeader; AResult: Integer); begin //This is executed at the end, but how should I know that this block should be freed //by application? Unless this is executed ONLY for not freed blocks. end; procedure Leak; var MyObject: TObject; begin MyObject := TObject.Create; end; begin OnDebugFreeMemFinish := MemFreeEvent; Leak; end. What I am missing is the callback like: procedure OnMemoryLeak(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader); After browsing the source of FastMM I saw that there is a procedure: procedure LogMemoryLeakOrAllocatedBlock(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader; IsALeak: Boolean); which could be overriden, but maybe there is an easier way?

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  • Exec problem in SQL Server 2005

    - by IordanTanev
    Hi, I have the situation where i have two databases with same structure. The first have some data in its data tables. I need to create a script that will transfer the data from the first database to the second. I have created this script. DECLARE @table_name nvarchar(MAX), @query nvarchar(MAX) DECLARE @table_cursor CURSOR SET @table_cursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES OPEN @table_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SET @query = 'INSERT INTO ' + @table_name + ' SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.' + @table_name print @query exec @query FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name END CLOSE @table_cursor DEALLOCATE @table_cursor The problem is that when I run the script the "print @query" statement prints statement like this INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.table When I copy this and run it from Management studio it works fine. But when the script tries to run it with exec I get this error Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 21 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MPDEV090314'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. Hope someone can tell me whot is wront with this. Best Regards, Iordan Tanev

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  • How to cache pages using background jobs ?

    - by Alexandre
    Definitions: resource = collection of database records, regeneration = processing these records and outputting the corresponding html Current flow: Receive client request Check for resource in cache If not in cache or cache expired, regenerate Return result The problem is that the regeneration step can tie up a single server process for 10-15 seconds. If a couple of users request the same resource, that could result in a couple of processes regenerating the exact same resource simultaneously, each taking up 10-15 seconds. Wouldn't it be preferrable to have the frontend signal some background process saying "Hey, regenerate this resource for me". But then what would it display to the user? "Rebuilding" is not acceptable. All resources would have to be in cache ahead of time. This could be a problem as the database would almost be duplicated on the filesystem (too big to fit in memory). Is there a way to avoid this? Not ideal, but it seems like the only way out. But then there's one more problem. How to keep the same two processes from requesting the regeneration of a resource at the same time? The background process could be regenerating the resource when a frontend asks for the regeneration of the same resource. I'm using PHP and the Zend Framework just in case someone wants to offer a platform-specific solution. Not that it matters though - I think this problem applies to any language/framework. Thanks!

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  • How do I create a dynamic data transfer object dynamically from ADO.net model

    - by Richard
    I have a pretty simple database with 5 tables, PK's and relationships setup, etc. I also have an ASP.net MVC3 project I'm using to create simple web services to feed JSON/XML to a mobile app using post/get. To access my data I'm using an ADO.net entity model class to handle generation of the entities, etc. Due to issues with serialization/circular references created by the auto-generated relations from ADO.net entity model, I've been forced to create "Data transfer objects" to strip out the relations and data that doesn't need to be transferred. Question 1: is there an easier way to create DTOs using the entity framework itself? IE, specify only the entity properties I want to convert to Jsonresults? I don't wish to use any 3rd party frameworks if I can help it. Question 2: A side question for Entity Framework, say I create an ADO.net entity model in one project within a solution. Because that model relies on the connection to the database specified in project A, can project B somehow use that model with a similar connection? Both projects are in the same solution. Thanks!

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  • Visual Studio opening .xml files in Notepad

    - by Portman
    So I'm happily working on a project making heavy use of custom .xml configuration files this morning. All of a sudden, whenever I double-click an .xml file in Solution Explorer, it opens in Notepad instead of within Visual Studio. Thinking that it was the Windows file associations, I right-clicked on a file in Explorer, selected Open With Choose Defaults, and selected Visual Studio 2008. But the problem remains -- now when I open a file from Explorer, Visual Studio Opens, then it opens Notepad. Needless to say, this is very frustrating, and Google is not much help. Has anyone else ever had this problem, and what did you do about it? Notes: This only happens for .xml files. Other text files (.config, .txt) open within Visual Studio just fine. This has nothing to do with Windows file associations, as Windows open up VS2008 just as it should. This is some crazy problem internal to Visual Studio. I've also tried Tools Options General Restore File Associations. No luck. Nothing present in Tools Options Text Editor File Extension This is what my "Open With" menu looks like for .xml files. As you can see, "XML Editor" is set to the default.

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  • Best way to test a Delphi application

    - by Osama ALASSIRY
    I have a Delphi application that has many dependencies, and it would be difficult to refactor it to use DUnit (it's huge), so I was thinking about using something like AutomatedQA's TestComplete to do the testing from the front-end UI. My main problem is that a bugfix or new feature sometimes breaks old code that was previously tested (manually), and used to work. I have setup the application to use command-line switches to open-up a specific form that could be tested, and I can create a set of values and clicks needed to be done. But I have a few questions before I do anything drastic... (and before purchasing anything) Is it worth it? Would this be a good way to test? The result of the test should in my database (Oracle), is there an easy way in testcomplete to check these values (multiple fields in multiple tables)? I would need to setup a test database to do all the automated testing, would there be an easy way to automate re-setting the test db? Other than drop user cascade, create user,..., impdp. Is there a way in testcomplete to specify command-line parameters for an exe? Does anybody have any similar experiences.

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  • SQLAlchemy: select over multiple tables

    - by ahojnnes
    Hi, I wanted to optimize my database query: link_list = select( columns=[link_table.c.rating, link_table.c.url, link_table.c.donations_in], whereclause=and_( not_(link_table.c.id.in_( select( columns=[request_table.c.recipient], whereclause=request_table.c.donator==donator.id ).as_scalar() )), link_table.c.id!=donator.id, ), limit=20, ).execute().fetchall() and tried to merge those two selects in one query: link_list = select( columns=[link_table.c.rating, link_table.c.url, link_table.c.donations_in], whereclause=and_( link_table.c.active==True, link_table.c.id!=donator.id, request_table.c.donator==donator.id, link_table.c.id!=request_table.c.recipient, ), limit=20, order_by=[link_table.c.rating.desc()] ).execute().fetchall() the database-schema looks like: link_table = Table('links', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True, autoincrement=True), Column('url', Unicode(250), index=True, unique=True), Column('registration_date', DateTime), Column('donations_in', Integer), Column('active', Boolean), ) request_table = Table('requests', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True, autoincrement=True), Column('recipient', Integer, ForeignKey('links.id')), Column('donator', Integer, ForeignKey('links.id')), Column('date', DateTime), ) There are several links (donator) in request_table pointing to one link in the link_table. I want to have links from link_table, which are not yet "requested". But this does not work. Is it actually possible, what I'm trying to do? If so, how would you do that? Thank you very much in advance!

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  • How can I loop thru all controls (including ToolStripItems) C#

    - by Murray
    I need to save and restore settings for specific controls on a form. I loop thru all controls and return the one whose name matches the one I want, like so: private static Control GetControlByName(string name, Control.ControlCollection Controls) { Control thisControl = null; foreach (Control c in Controls) { if (c.Name == name) { thisControl = c; break; } if (c.Controls.Count > 0) { thisControl = GetControlByName(name, c.Controls); if (thisControl != null) { break; } } } return thisControl; } From this I can determine the type of control and therefore the property that should be / has been stored. This works well unless the control is one of the ToolStrip family which has been added to a toolstrip. e.g. this.toolStrip.Items.AddRange(new System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripItem[] { this.lblUsername, // ToolStripLabel this.toolStripSeparator1, this.cbxCompany}); // ToolStripComboBox In this case I can see the control I'm interested in (cbxCompany) when debugging, but the name property has no value so the code does not match to it. Any suggestions on how I can get to these controls too? Cheers, Murray

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  • DataGridView: how to make scrollbar in sync with current cell selection?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I have a windows application with DataGridView as data presentation. Every 2 minutes, the grid will be refreshed with new data. In order to keep the scroll bar in sync with the new data added, I have to reset its ScrollBars: dbv.Rows.Clear(); // clear rows SCrollBars sc = dbv.ScrollBars; dbv.ScrollBars = ScrollBars.None; // continue to populate rows such as dbv.Rows.Add(obj); dbv.ScrollBars = sc; // restore the scroll bar setting back With above codes, the scroll bar reappears fine after data refresh. The problem is that the application requires to set certain cell as selected after the refresh: dbv.CurrentCell = dbv[0, selectedRowIndex]; With above code, the cell is selected; however, the scroll bar's position does not reflect the position of the selected cell's row position. When I try to move the scroll bar after the refresh, the grid will jump to the first row. It seems that the scroll bar position is set back to 0 after the reset. The code to set grid's CurrentCell does not cause the scroll bar to reposition to the correct place. There is no property or method to get or set scroll bar's value in DataGriadView, as far as I know. I also tried to set the selected row to the top: dbv.CurrentCell = dbv[0, selectedRowIndex]; dbv.FirstDisplayedScrollingRowIndex = selectedRowIndex; The row will be set to the top, but the scroll bar's position is still out of sync. Not sure if there is any way to make scroll bar's position in sync with the selected row which is set in code?

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  • PHP Serialize Function - Adding serialized data to mysql and then fetch and display

    - by Abhilash Shukla
    I want to know whether the PHP serialize function is 100% secure, also if we store serialized data into a database and want to do something after fetching it, will it be a nice way. For example:- I have a website with different user privileges, now i want to store the permissions settings for a particular privilege to my database (This data i want to store is to be done through php serialize function), now when a user logs in i want to fetch this data and set the privilege for the customer. Now i am ok to do this thing, what i want to know is, whether it is the best way to do or something more efficient can be done. Also, i was going through php manual and found this code, can anybody explain me a bit what's happening in this code:- [Specially why base64_encode is used?] <?php mySerialize( $obj ) { return base64_encode(gzcompress(serialize($obj))); } myUnserialize( $txt ) { return unserialize(gzuncompress(base64_decode($txt))); } ?> Also if somebody can provide me their own code to show me to do this thing in the most efficient manner. Thanks.

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  • django class with an array of "parent" foreignkeys issue

    - by user298032
    Let's say I have a class called Fruit with child classes of the different kinds of Fruit with their own specific attributes, and I want to collect them in a FruitBasket: class Fruit(models.Model):     type = models.CharField(max_length=120,default='banana',choices=FRUIT_TYPES)     ... class Banana(Fruit):     """banana (fruit type)"""     length = models.IntegerField(blank=True, null=True)     ... class Orange(Fruit):     """orange (fruit type)"""     diameter = models.IntegerField(blank=True, null=True)     ... class FruitBasket(models.Model):     fruits = models.ManyToManyField(Fruit)     ... The problem I seem to be having is when I retrieve and inspect the Fruits in a FruitBasket, I only retrieve the Fruit base class and can't get at the Fruit child class attributes. I think I understand what is happening--when the array is retrieved from the database, the only fields that are retrieved are the Fruit base class fields. But is there some way to get the child class attributes as well without multiple expensive database transactions? (For example, I could get the array, then retrieve the child Fruit classes by the id of each array element). thanks in advance, Chuck

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