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  • How to catch HttpRequestValidationException in production

    - by bruno
    Hello all, I have this piece of code to handle the HttpRequestValidationException in my global.asax.cs file. protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var context = HttpContext.Current; var exception = context.Server.GetLastError(); if (exception is HttpRequestValidationException) { Response.Clear(); Response.StatusCode = 200; Response.Write(@"<html><head></head><body>hello</body></html>"); Response.End(); return; } } If I debug my webapplication, it works perfect. But when i put it on our production-server, the server ignores it and generate the "a potentially dangerous request.form value was detected from the client" - error page. I don't know what happens exactly... If anybody knows what the problem is, or what i do wrong..? Also I don't want to set the validaterequest on false in the web.config. The server uses IIS7.5, And I'm using asp.net 3.5. Thanks, Bruno

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  • How can I test for an empty Breeze predicate?

    - by Megan
    I'm using Breeze to filter data requested on the client. My code looks a little like this: Client - Creating Filter Predicate var predicates = []; var criteriaPredicate = null; $.each(selectedFilterCriteria(), function (index, item) { criteriaPredicate = (index == 0) ? breeze.Predicate.create('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item) : criteriaPredicate.or('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(criteriaPredicate)) { predicates.push(criteriaPredicate); } // Repeat for X Filter Criteria var filter = breeze.Predicate.and(predicates); return context.getAll(filter, data); Client - Context Query function getAll(predicate, dataObservable) { var query = breeze.EntityQuery.from('Data'); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(predicate)) { query = query.where(predicate); } return manager.executeQuery(query).then(success).fail(failure); } Issue I'm having an issue with the request because, if there are no filters set, I apply an "empty" predicate (due to the var filter = breeze.Predicate.and([]) line) resulting in a request like http://mysite/api/app/Data?$filter=. The request is an invalid OData query since the value of the $filter argument cannot be empty. Is there a good way for me to check for an empty predicate? I know I can refactor my client code to not use a predicate unless there is at least one filterable item, but I thought I would check first to see if I overlooked some property or method on the Breeze Predicate.

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  • Wanted to know in detail about how shared libraries work vis-a-vis static library.

    - by goldenmean
    Hello, I am working on creating and linking shared library (.so). While working with them, many questions popped up which i could not find satisying answers when i searched for them, hence putting them here. The questions about shared libraries i have are: 1.) How is shared library different than static library? What are the Key differences in way they are created, they execute? 2.) In case of a shared library at what point are the addresses where a particular function in shared library will be loaded and run from, given? Who gives those functions is load/run addresses? 3.) Will an application linked against shared library be slower in execution as compared to that which is linked with a static library? 4.) Will application executable size differ in these two cases? 5.) Can one do source level debugging of by stepping into functions defined inside a shared library? Is any thing extra needed to make these functions visible to the application? 6.) What are pros and cons in using either kind of library? Thanks. -AD

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  • How to create Dictionary object in AppDelegate to access objectkey in another ViewController

    - by TechFusion
    Hello, I have created Window Based application and tab bar controller as root controller. My objective is to store Text Field data values in one tab bar VC and will be accessible and editable by other VC and also retrievable when application start. I am looking to use NSDictionary class in AppDelegate so that I can access stroed Data Values with keys. //TestAppDelegate.h @interface { ..... .... NSDictionary *Data; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSDictionary *Data; //TestAppDelegate.m #import "TestAppDelegate.h" NSString *kNamekey =@"Namekey"; NSString *kUserIDkey =@"UserIDkey"; NSString *kPasswordkey =@"Passwordkey"; @implemetation TestAppDelegate @synthesize Data; -(void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication)application { NSString *NameDefault; NSString *UserIDdefault; NSString *Passworddefault; NSString *testvalue = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] stringForKey: kNamekey]; if(testvalue == nil) { NSDictionary *appDefaults = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: NameDefault, kNamekey, UserIdefault kUserIDkey, Passwordefault kPasswordkey, nil]; self.Data = appDefaults; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] registerDefaults:appDefaults]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] synchronize]; } else { } } Here ViewController is ViewController of Navigation Controller which is attached with one tab bar.. I have attached xib file with ViewController //ViewController.h @interface IBOutlet UITextField *Name; IBOutlet UITextField *UserId; IBOutlet UITextField *Password; } @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *Name @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *UserId; @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *Password; -(IBAction)Save:(id)sender; @end Here in ViewController.m I want to store Text Field input data with key which are defined in AppDelegate. I have linked Save Barbutton with action. Here I am not getting how to access NSDictionary class with object and keys in ViewController. //ViewController.m -(IBAction)Save:(id)sender{ TestAppDelegate *appDelegate = (TestAppDelegate*)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; //Here how to access knamekey here to set object(Name.test) value with key } Please guide me about this. Thanks,

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  • Android 2.1 fling gesture captured on textview but still a contextmenu opens

    - by hermo
    The following problem seems unique to 2.1, happens both on an emulator and on a nexus. The same example works fine on other platforms I've tested (1.5, 1.6 and 2.0 emulators). I've added created gestureListener as described in this post. The difference is that I've added the listener on a TextView which also has a contextMenu registered, i.e. sth like the following: onCreate(...) { ... // Layout contains a large TextView on which I want to add a context menu tv = findViewById(R.id.text_view); tv.registerForContextMenu(this); // create the gestureListener according above mentioned post. gestureListener = ... // set the listener on the text-view tv.setOnTouchListener(gestureListener); ... } When testing it, the correct gesture is recognized alright, but every other time it also causes the context menu to be opened. As the same example is working on non 2.1 platforms, I've got a feeling it is not my code that is the problem... Thankful for any suggestions.

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  • How to terminate all [grand]child processes using C# on WXP (and newer MSWindows)

    - by NVRAM
    Question: How can I determine all processes in the child's Process Tree to kill them? I have an application, written in C# that will: Get a set of data from the server, Spawn a 3rd party utility to process the data, then Return the results to the server. This is working fine. But since a run consumes a lot of CPU and may take as long as an hour, I want to add the ability to have my app terminate its child processes. Some issues that make the simple solutions I've found elsewhere are: My app's child process "A" (InstallAnywhere EXE I think) spawns the real processing app "B" (a java.exe), which in turns spawns more children "C1".."Cn" (most of which are also written in Java). There will likely be multiple copies of my application (and hence, multiple sets of its children) running on the same machine. The child process is not in my control so there might be some "D" processes in the future. My application must run on 32-bit and 64-bit versions of MSWindows. On the plus side there is no issue of data loss, a "clean" shutdown doesn't matter as long as the processes end fairly quickly.

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  • Removing a view from it's superview causes memory error - why?

    - by mystify
    Xcode is throwing an error at me: malloc: * error for object 0x103f000: pointer being freed was not allocated * set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug I tracked down the code until a line where I do this: - (void)inputValueCommitted:(NSString *)animationID finished:(BOOL)finished context:(void *)context { // retainCount of myView is 2! (one for the retain-property, one for beeing a subview) [self.myView removeFromSuperview]; // ERROR-LINE !! self.myView = nil; } When I remove that errorful line, the error is gone. So in conclusion: I can't get rid of my view! It's an UIImageView with nothing else inside, just showing an image. What I do is this: I create an UIView Animation Block, create that UIImageView, assign it to an retain-property with self.myView = ..., and after the animation is done, I just want to get rid of that view. So I remove it from it's superview and then set my property to nil, which lets it go away - in theory. Did anyone else encounter such issues? iPhone SDK 3.0.

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  • UIView animation only animating some of the things I ask it to

    - by Ben
    I have a series of (say) boxes on the screen in a row, all subviews of my main view. Each is a UIView. I want to shift them all left and have a new view also enter the screen from the right in lockstep. Here's what I'm doing: // First add a dummy view offscreen UIView * stagingView = /* make this view, which sets up its width/height */ CGRect frame = [stagingView frame]; frame.origin.x = /* just off the right side of the screen */; [stagingView setFrame:frame]; [self stagingView]; And then I set up animations in one block for all of my subviews (which includes the one I just added): [UIView beginAnimations:@"shiftLeft" context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(_animationDidStop:context:)]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; for (UIView * view in [self subviews]) { CGRect frame = [view frame]; frame.origin.x -= (frame.size.width + viewPadding); [view setFrame:frame]; } [UIView commitAnimations]; Here's what I expect: The (three) views already on screen get shifted left and the newly staged view marches in from the right at the same time. Here's what happens: The newly staged view animates in exactly as expected, and the views already on the screen do not appear to move at all! (Or possibly they jump without animation to their end locations). And! If I comment out the whole business of creating the new subview offscreen... the ones onscreen do animate correctly! Huh? (Thanks!)

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  • How do I supply extra info to IApplicationSettingsProvider class?

    - by joebeazelman
    Perhaps this question has been asked before in a different way, but I haven’t been able to find it. I have one or more plugin adapter assemblies in my application all having the type IPlugin, for instance. Each adapter has its own settings structures stored in a common directory. Whether they are stored in one contiguous file or in separate ones doesn’t matter. Each adapter can have one or more settings associated with it. The settings will have both a name and the Plugin it will be used for. How would I create such a configuration system using the following requirements: I want to use .NETs built in settings system and avoid writing one from scratch The host application will be responsible for locating the plugin settings and passing it to the plugin Each plugin will be responsible for reading and writing its own settings to separate concerns. The host application should call Plugin.Save(thePath) and it does its thing. All settings are user scoped So far, I realize that I would need to write my own SettingsProvider, but the provider seems to work in isolation in that there’s no way to pass it parameters such as the path of the plugin directory and the name of the settings. All of the example code I've seen has the provider getting the data from the runtime environment.

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  • FLEX: the custom component is still a Null Object when I invoke its method

    - by Patrick
    Hi, I've created a custom component in Flex, and I've created it from the main application with actionscript. Successively I invoke its "setName" method to pass a String. I get the following run-time error (occurring only if I use the setName method): TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. I guess I get it because I'm calling to newUser.setName method from main application before the component is completely created. How can I ask actionscript to "wait" until when the component is created to call the method ? Should I create an event listener in the main application waiting for it ? I would prefer to avoid it if possible. Here is the code: Main app ... newUser = new userComp(); //newUser.setName("name"); Component: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:VBox xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" width="100" height="200" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function setName(name:String):void { username.text = name; } public function setTags(Tags:String):void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HBox id="tagsPopup" visible="false"> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag1" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag2" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag3" /> </mx:HBox> <mx:Image source="@Embed(source='../icons/userIcon.png')"/> <mx:Label id="username" text="Nickname" visible="false"/> </mx:VBox> thanks

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  • Dependency injection with web services?

    - by John K.
    I've recently discovered a possible candidate for dependency injection in a .Net application I've designed. Due to a recent organizational policy, it is no longer possible to call smtp mail services from client machines on our network. So I'm going to have to refactor all the code in my application where it was previously calling the smtp object to send out mail. I created a new WCF web service on an authorized web server that does allow for smtp mail messaging. This seems to be a great candidate for dependency injection. I will create a new INotification interface that will have a method like 'void SendNotification(MailMessage msg)' and create a new property in my application where you can set this property to any class that implements this interface. My question tho, is whether it's possible, through dependency injection, to encapsulate the instantiation of a .NET WCF web service? I am fairly new at IoC and Dependency injection frameworks, so I am not quite sure if it can handle web service dependencies? I'm hoping someone else out there has come across this situation or has knowledge regarding this subject? cheers, John

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  • How to open AsyncTask from a Thread

    - by Abhishek
    In my application I have created a SplashScreen that will b shown for 5 Seconds and after that it executes an if else case depending upon the values stored in the Preference file. If Preference file contains values then the AsyncTask code will run else the Login form will load. When i try to run my application. The thread is going to the Login form with the help of intent but when it comes to AsyncTask my application shows a force close error message. This is my SplashScreen code: public class SplashScreen extends Activity { @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.splashscreen); Thread timer = new Thread() { public void run() { try { sleep(5000); } catch(InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } finally { if(GoGolfPref.getEmail(SplashScreen.this)!=null && GoGolfPref.getPass(SplashScreen.this)!=null) { new LoadingScreen(SplashScreen.this, SplashScreen.this).execute("login_page", Login.url+GoGolfPref.getEmail(SplashScreen.this)+"/"+GoGolfPref.getPass(SplashScreen.this)); } else { Intent in = new Intent(SplashScreen.this, Login.class); startActivity(in); finish(); } } } }; timer.start(); } } This is the error I am getting: 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): FATAL EXCEPTION: Thread-10 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): java.lang.RuntimeException: Can't create handler inside thread that has not called Looper.prepare() 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at android.os.Handler.<init>(Handler.java:121) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at android.app.Dialog.<init>(Dialog.java:101) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at android.app.AlertDialog.<init>(AlertDialog.java:63) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at android.app.ProgressDialog.<init>(ProgressDialog.java:80) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at android.app.ProgressDialog.<init>(ProgressDialog.java:76) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at com.pnf.gogolf.LoadingScreen.<init>(LoadingScreen.java:130) 08-29 07:25:58.040: E/AndroidRuntime(2365): at com.pnf.gogolf.SplashScreen$1.run(SplashScreen.java:32) How to get this working? Thanks in advance...

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  • Tinyurl API Example - Am i doing it right :D

    - by Paul Weber
    Hi ... we use super-long Hashes for the Registration of new Users in our Application. The Problem is that these Hashes break in some Email Clients - making the Links unusable. I tried implementing the Tinyurl - API, with a simple Call, but i think it times out sometimes ... sometimes the mail does not reach the user. I updated the Code, but now the URL is never converted. Is Tinyurl really so slow or am i doing something wrong? (I mean hey, 5 Seconds is much in this Times) Can anybody recommend me a more reliable service? All my Fault, forgot a false in the fopen. But i will leave this sample of code here, because i often see this sample, wich i think does not work very reliable: return file_get_contents('http://tinyurl.com/api-create.php?url='.$u); This is the - i think fully working sample. I would like to hear about Improvements. static function gettinyurl( $url ) { $context = stream_context_create( array( 'http' => array( 'timeout' => 5 // 5 Seconds should be enough ) ) ); // get tiny url via api-create.php $fp = fopen( 'http://tinyurl.com/api-create.php?url='.$url, 'r', $context); // open (read) api-create.php with long url as get parameter if( $fp ) { // check if open was ok $tinyurl = fgets( $fp ); // read response if( $tinyurl && !empty($tinyurl) ) // check if response is ok $url = $tinyurl; // set response as url fclose( $fp ); // close connection } // return return $url; // return (tiny) url }

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  • event.clientX is readonly?

    - by Duracell
    Working in IE 8, mostly, but trying to write a portable solution for modern browsers. Using telerik controls. I'm catching the 'Showing' client-side event of the RadContextMenu and trying to adjust it's coordinates. The clientX, clientY and x,y members of the DOM event cannot be assigned a new value. Visual Studio breaks with a "htmlfile: Member not found" error. My goal is to get a RadContextMenu to show inside a RadEditor when the user clicks in it (under certain conditions, this is a requirement from management). So I capture the onclick event for the RadEditor's content area (radEditor.get_document().body;). I then call show(evt) on the context menu, where 'evt' is the event object corresponding to the click event. Because the RadEditor's content is in an IFRAME, you have to adjust the position of the click event before the context menu displays. This is done in the "Showing" event. However, I cannot assign a value to the members .clientX and friends. It's as if javascript has temporarily forgotten about integer + and += operators. Is it possible that these members have become readonly/const at some point? var evt = args.get_domEvent(); while (node) { evt.clientX += node.offsetLeft; //'Member not found' here. evt.clientY += node.offsetTop; node = node.offsetParent; } evt.clientY += sender.get_element().clientHeight;

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  • How to push this view controller ?

    - by hib
    Hello all, I am caught in a strange requirement .See the following view hierarchy and scenario . I have a tab bar application in which I have three tabs . In first tab I am showing some content with a small image title and date (uitableview in navigation controller). In the detail view of that controller there are more buttons that shows different sorts of detail like gallery button and , more details button and some , more button . On tapping each button I will push each individual view controller in the main navigation controller . Now on the horizontal orientation I am showing same list of content but in the cover flow ( in modal view controller ) fashion like the ipod application . On tapping any image we will show the same buttons like gallery and more details and tapping on it will show the new controller with the following code : UINavigationController *modalNavController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:myPhotoController]; UIBarButtonItem *backButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Back" style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(backButtonPressed)]; myPhotoController.navigationItem.leftBarButtonItem = backButton; [backButton release]; if([self.modalViewController isViewLoaded]){ [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } modalNavController.navigationBar.barStyle = UIBarStyleBlackOpaque; [self presentModalViewController:modalNavController animated:YES]; [modalNavController release]; All this is working nicely . but when I get back the device in vertical orientation . the main modal controller will be dismissed and all the containing modal controller also will be dismissed if they are open or not . Instead of this what I want is If chooses an item in the coverflow and then if chooses gallery and if I put the device in vertical orientaion the gallery should be in the navigation hierarchy that drove me to the main list and gallery should be in horizonatal fashion . So what I want to do is that just to push the gallery controller in the main navigation hierarchy instead of showing from a madal controller . If someone wants reference then see the application "net a porter" I want to do like that . Just tell me how the controller hierarchy is working in that app . I need the help . Thanks

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  • file upload working in one and not the other help

    - by rod
    Hi All, I have a web application which has 2 different versions deployed. 1 is a ASP.Net web forms version and the other is an ASP.Net MVC version I have a File Upload page which dynamically creates a directory folder for the target location of the file to be uploaded to. The application is using Forms Authentication for outside users and Integrated Windows Authentication for inside the network users. I have an issue where a user can upload a file in the ASP.Net Web Forms version fine. But when the same user tries to upload the file in the MVC version the user gets a File.IO permission error. Here's a kicker: I can upload the same file in both versions. The user is in a remote location but I believe they're still inside the network because they can work on the other parts of the application just fine. Possible clues: In the event log there's an info that says Event code:4005 Forms authentication failed for the request. Reason: Ticket supplied was invalid. What would be your initial thoughts on why this is happening? Thanks, Rod.

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  • GoDaddy Subdomain Hosting Issue/Question with Disk Access (C#/ASP.NET 3.5)

    - by Vogel
    This isn't a very complicated scenario really, but as I start to type out the problem I'm realizing how convoluted it can become textually. Let me try and be very clear: First, the set up... I have a C#/ASP.NET web application that is publicly facing on my main domain (www), let's call it www.mysite.com. Nothing fancy, just a front-end that connects to SQL to display records. Then, I have a second C#/ASP.NET web application that is secured using forms authentication running on a subdomain, let's call it admin.mysite.com. This is a very light-weight CMS system to administer the public site. Now, the problem... Both of these sites run fine for basic tasks, however, my problem arises when I try to gain access to the file system for uploading. GoDaddy requires subdomains to run as a virtual directories under the main application in IIS (so the subdomains actually resolve/re-direct to www.mysite.com/admin when you type in admin.mysite.com), but because of this I am unable to write to my website root from the subfolder. Let me explain a little more... The CMS system (running as a virtual directory) gives the admin the ability to upload photos for display on the main site, the target folder of which is www.mysite.com/images - when attempting disk access from the root app, I am able to write to the virtual directory, but cannot do the opposite -- that is, write to the root from the virtual directory, getting security violations. If I can only upload to the /admin/ virtual directory, the entire point is moot because it's a secured folder that the public can't see! The only solution I can think of is to upload the files to the /admin/ virtual directory, then call a URL in the root that moves files from /admin/ back to the root, but that is entirely ghetto. I hope this post makes sense. Anyone else experience anything like this? The bottom line is that it seems virtual directories ONLY have access to themselves, and not their parent directories, no matter what credentials are used. Thanks!

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  • Web Hosting URL Length Limit?

    - by Isaac Waller
    Hello, I am designing a web application which is a tie in to my iPhone application. It sends massively large URLs to the web server (15000 about.) I was using NearlyFreeSpeech.net, but they only support URLS up to 2000 characters. I was wondering if anybody knows of web hosting that will support really large URLs? Thanks, Isaac Edit: My program needs to open a picture in Safari. I could do this 2 ways: send it base64 encoded in the URL and just echo the query parameters. first POST it to the server in my application, then the server would send back a unique ID after storing the photo in a database, which I would append to a URL which I would open in Safari which retrieved the photo from the database and delete it from the database. You see, I am lazy, and I know Mobile Safari can support URI's up to 80 000 characters, so I think this is a OK way to do it. If there is something really wrong with this, please tell me. Edit: I ended up doing it the proper POST way. Thanks.

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  • Configuring zend to use gmail smtp: Windows Apache dev-environment: "Could not open socket" error - repeatedly - going mad

    - by confused
    My dev environment is Win XP SP2 / Apache 2.something PHP 5.something_or_other My prod env is Linux Ubuntu / Apache 2.something_else PHP 5.something_or_other_else The code is all Zend Framework Version: 1.11.1 I can telnet to: smtp.gmail.com 465 from the PC. I have Mercury configured on my PC to use gmail as it's smtp host and it works just fine. (MercuryC SMTP Client). Mercury is set to use port 465 and SSL on smtp.gmail.com -- No problem. Zend mail works just fine on my production environment using the production mail server to send out mail. It's the same basic application.ini but with different values in the mail variables. On my local PC dev setup, my application.ini contains: (same values as I use in Mercury) mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "myAccount" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.gmail.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "myPassWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I have been doing trial and error for hours trying to get a single email out with no success. In every case, regardless of server or port settings it throws an error and reports: Could not open socket. Both Apache and Mercury Core are exceptions in my Windows Firewall config. Mercury seems to be having no problem. I have searched stackoverflow before posting this and have been googling for hours -- with no success. I am slowly losing my mind I would be very much obliged for any tip as to what might be wrong. Thanks for reading. =================== BTW When I use the SAME application.ini values on my local PC as on the production host, I get the same "Could not open socket" error. Those values are: mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "otherUser" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.otherServer.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "otherPAssWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I know these work in the production (Ubuntu) environment. I'm utterly baffled.

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  • Need events to execute on timer events, metronome precision.

    - by user295734
    I setup a timer to call an event in my application. The problme is the event execution is being skewed by other windows operations. Ex. openning and window, loading a webpage. I need the event to excute exactly on time, every time. When i first set up the app, used a sound file, like a metronome to listen to the even firing, in a steady state, its firing right on, but as soon do something in the windows environment, the sound fires slower, then sort of sppeds up a bit to catch up. So i added a logging method to the event to ctahc the timer ticks. From that data, it appears that the timer is not being affected by the windows app, but my application event calls are being affected. I figured this out by checking the datetime.now in the event, and if i set it to 250 milliseconds, which is 4 clicks per second. You get data something like below. (sec):(ms) 1:000 1:250 1:500 1:750 2:000 2:250 2:500 2:750 3:000 3:250 3:500 3:750 (lets say i execute some windows event)(time will skew) 4:122 4:388 4:600 4:876 (stop doing what i was doing in windows) (going to shorten the data for simplicit, my list was 30sec long) 5:124 5:268 5:500 5:750 (you would se the time go back the same milliseconds it was at the begining) 6:000 6:250 6:500 6:750 7:000 7:250 7:500 7:750 So i'm thinking the timer continues to fire on the same millisecond every time, but its the event that is being skewed to fire off time by other windows operations. Its not a huge skew, but for what i need to accomplish, its unacceptable. Is there anyhting i can do in .NET, hoping to use XAML/WPF application, thats will correct the skewing of events? thx.

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  • How can I use "Dependency Injection" in simple php functions, and should I bother?

    - by Tchalvak
    I hear people talking about dependency injection and the benefit of it all the time, but I don't really understand it. I'm wondering if it's a solution to the "I pass database connections as arguments all the time" problem. I tried reading wikipedia's entry on it, but the example is written in Java so I don't solidly understand the difference it is trying to make clear. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependency_injection ). I read this dependency-injection-in-php article ( http://www.potstuck.com/2009/01/08/php-dependency-injection/ ), and it seems like the objective is to not pass dependencies to an object directly, but to cordon off the creation of an object along with the creation of it's dependencies. I'm not sure how to apply that in a using php functions context, though. Additionally, is the following Dependency Injection, and should I bother trying to do dependency injection in a functional context? Version 1: (the kind of code that I create, but don't like, every day) function get_data_from_database($database_connection){ $data = $database_connection->query('blah'); return $data; } Version 2: (don't have to pass a database connection, but perhaps not dependency injection?) function get_database_connection(){ static $db_connection; if($db_connection){ return $db_connection; } else { // create db_connection ... } } function get_data_from_database(){ $conn = get_database_connection(); $data = $conn->query('blah'); return $data; } $data = get_data_from_database(); Version 3: (the creation of the "object"/data is separate, and the database code is still, so perhaps this would count as dependency injection?) function factory_of_data_set(){ static $db_connection; $data_set = null; $db_connection = get_database_connection(); $data_set = $db_connection->query('blah'); return $data_set; } $data = factory_of_data_set(); Anyone have a good resource or just insight that makes the method and benefit -crystal- clear?

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  • Test multiple domains using ASP.NET development server

    - by Pete Lunenfeld
    I am developing a single web application that will dynamically change its content depending on which domain name is used to reach the site. Multiple domains will point to the same application. I wish to use the following code (or something close) to detect the domain name and perform the customizations: string theDomainName = Request.Url.Host; switch (theDomainName) { case "www.clientone.com": // do stuff break; case "www.clienttwo.com": // do other stuff break; } I would like to test the functionality of the above using the ASP.NET development server. I created mappings in the local HOSTS file to map www.clientone.com to 127.0.0.1, and www.clienttwo.com to 127.0.0.1. I then browse to the application with the browser using www.clinetone.com (etc). When I try to test this code using the ASP.net development server the URL always says localhost. It does NOT capture the host entered in the browser, only localhost. Is there a way to test the URL detection functionality using the development server? Thanks.

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  • Problem with Zend Project

    - by Fincha
    Hello, i write a script and it works perfectly, on my local server. I have uploaded it on my server and now I getting this Problem Parse error: syntax error, unexpected '{' in /homepages/46/d319011794/htdocs/suche/public/index.php on line 18 an here is my index.php <?php error_reporting(E_ALL || E_STRICT); define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__)) . '/../application'); set_include_path( APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library' . PATH_SEPARATOR . '../application/models' . PATH_SEPARATOR . get_include_path() ); require_once 'Zend/Loader.php'; Zend_Loader::registerAutoload(); new App_Connect(); try { //Line 18 require '../application/bootstrap.php'; } catch(Exception $exception) { echo "<html><body>Fehler beim bootstraping"; if(defined('APPLICATION_ENVIROMENT') && APPLICATION_EVIROMENT != 'production') { echo "<br><br>" . $exception->getMessage() . "<br>" . "<div align='left'>Stack Trace: " . "<pre> " . $exception->getTraceAsString() . "</pre></div>"; } echo "</body></html>"; exit(1); } Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance()->dispatch(); This is a Zend Project... so may be some one know what to do...

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  • Why is OpenSubKey() returning null on my Win 7 64 bit system?

    - by BrMcMullin
    Has anyone seen OpenSubKey() and other Microsoft.Win32 registry functions return null on 64 bit systems when 32 bit registry keys are under Wow6432node in the registry? I'm working on a unit testing framework that makes a call to OpenSubKey() from the .net library. My dev system is a Win 7 64 bit environment with VS 2008 SP1 and the Win 7 SDK installed. The application we're unit testing is a 32 bit application, so the registry is virtualized under HKLM\Software\Wow6432node. When we call: Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey( @"Software\MyCompany\MyApp\" ); Null is returned, however explicitly stating to look here works: Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey( @"Software\Wow6432node\MyCompany\MyApp\" ); From what I understand this function should be agnostic to 32 bit or 64 bit environments and should know to jump to the virtual node. Even stranger is the fact that the exact same call inside a compiled and installed version of our application is running just fine on the same system and is getting the registry keys necessary to run; which are also being placed in HKLM\Software\Wow6432node. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • Problem with Deploying a ASP.NET MVC Project on a IIS 7.0. BadImageFormatException

    - by Markus
    Hello world, I am stuck with my web application. As known from the title its a ASP.NET MVC(1,0) application so i do the only 2 things that a needed do deploy a application like this. I made a build an copied it to the IIS Folder. In the IDE (VS2008) all works fine :(. This worked a long time. But know i get a error for my included dll of a other project. (I have a German version so the Error is Translated from google sry for that) BadImageFormatException: File or assembly 'DataService.WebInterface.BusinessLogic "or one of its dependencies was not found. An attempt was made to load a file with an incorrect format.] System.Reflection.Assembly._nLoad (AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark & stackMark, throwOnFileNotFound Boolean, Boolean forIntrospection) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad (AssemblyName assemblyRef, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark & stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) +416 System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad (String String assemblyName, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark & stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) +166 System.Reflection.Assembly.Load (String string assemblyName) +35 System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAssemblyHelper (String assemblyName, Boolean starDirective) +190 What does that mean? Is the File corrupted or do i have to change the web.config? Thank your for your support!

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