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  • Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

    - by Andrew White
    In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

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  • Autologin for web application

    - by Maulin
    We want to AutoLogin feature to allow user directly login using link into our Web Application. What is the best way achieve this? We have following approches in our mind. 1) Store user credentials(username/password) in cookie. Send cookie for authentication. e.g. http: //www.mysite.com/AutoLogin (here username/password will be passed in cookie) OR Pass user credentials in link URL. http: //www.mysite.com/AutoLogin?userid=<&password=< 2) Generate randon token and store user random token and user IP on server side database. When user login using link, validate token and user IP on server. e.g. http: //www.mysite.com/AutoLogin?token=< The problem with 1st approach is if hacker copies link/cookie from user machine to another machine he can login. The problem with 2nd approach is the user ip will be same for all users of same organization behind proxy. Which one is better from above from security perspective? If there is better solution which is other than mentioned above, please let us know.

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  • Sort on DataView does not work if DataTable has zero rows

    - by BigBlondeViking
    We have a WPF app that has a DataGrid insode a ListView. private DataTable table_; We do a bunch or dynamic column generation ( depending on the report we are showing ) We then do the a query and fill the DataTable row by row, this query may or may not have data.( not the problem, an empty grid is expected ) We set the ListView's ItemsSource to the DefaultView of the DataTable. lv.ItemsSource = table_.DefaultView; We then (looking at the user's pass usage of the app, set the sort on the column) Sort Method below: private void Sort(string sortBy, ListSortDirection direction) { var dataView = CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(lv.ItemsSource); dataView.SortDescriptions.Clear(); var sd = new SortDescription(sortBy, direction); dataView.SortDescriptions.Add(sd); dataView.Refresh(); } In the Zero DataTable rows scenario, the sort does not "hold"? and if we dynamically add rows they will not be in sorted order. If the DataTable has at-least 1 row when the sort is applied, and we dynamically add rows to the DataTable, the rows com in sorted correctly. I have built a standalone app that replicate this... It is an annoyance and I can add a check to see if the DataTable was empty, and re-sort... Anyone know whats going on here, and am I doing something wrong? FYI: What we based this off if comes from the MSDN as well: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms745786.aspx

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  • How to create database records for a financial year

    - by David A Gibson
    Hello, I need to create entities (specifically contracts) in a database table that are associated with a financial year. These contracts will be applied to projects. Any contract variation will be recorded by creating a new contract record for the same financial year but the original will remain associated with the project as a history. The projects can last several years and so at any one time a project will have a live contract record for each year as well as any number of historic contracts for that year. All of which is incidental but I'm trying to provide some context. If the contracts where for the year - it would be easy and I'd just store the Year either as a date field with the 1st of January or just an Integer. However the contracts run for financial years and I don't know how to approach this. I don't want a separate table containing the financial years as I don't want the users to have to maintain this. I don't want to store the financial year as a string "2009/2010" as this is not ideal for sorting/extracting the data. Any ideas will be helpful, my best so far is to have starting and ending year in 2 columns and just "KNOW" that starting is April of the year etc Thanks

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  • AJAX - querying a search engine and returning the number of results

    - by Moddy
    Right, so basically I need to query a selection of search engines in an AJAX app. As there is a number of different search engines - there's no search engine specific API I can use either. My main problem is getting the number of results returned by the search. So far, I have decided it is probably best to use a regexp from the returned search query HTML, and then convert the string of characters to an integer. However, this method just doesn't feel.. clean to me. It seems a bit rough around the edges and I think it could do with improving! I guess not being 100% confident with regular expressions doesn't help; but it just feels like it could be improved. Any ideas on how to implement this would be great cheers! It doesn't seem like that an exotic thing to do, so I was wondering if perhaps any of you guys have done this before and would have a few tips? Note: This is an AJAX app at the moment, but I may be re-writing this functionality in a different app soon - which won't be AJAX. I'm confident I can transfer any AJAX implementation to the other language though.

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  • Using Active Directory to authenticate users in a WWW facing website

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, I'm looking at starting a new web app which needs to be secure (if for no other reason than that we'll need PCI accreditation at some point). From previous experience working with PCI (on a domain), the preferred method is to use integrated windows authentication which is then passed all the way through the app to the database. This allows for better auditing as well as object-level permissions (ie an end user can't read the credit card table). There are advantages in that even if someone compromises the webserver, they won't be able to glean any additional information from the database. Also, the webserver isn't storing any database credentials (beyond perhaps a simple anonymous user with very few permissions) So, now I'm looking at the new web app which will be on the public internet. One suggestion is to have a Active Directory server and create windows accounts on the AD for each user of the site. These users will then be placed into the appropriate NT groups to decide which DB permissions they should have (and which pages they can access). ASP already provides the AD membership provider and role provider so this should be fairly simple to implement. There are a number of questions around this - Scalability, reliability, etc... and I was wondering if there is anyone out there with experience of this approach or, even better, some good reasons why to do it / not to do it. Any input appreciated Regards Basiclife

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  • QueryReadStore loads JSON into DataGrid, but JsonRestStore does not (from the same source)

    - by labratmatt
    I'm building a Dojo DataGrid from JSON data provided by my REST interface. The DataGrid loads the data fine using a QueryReadStore, but doesn't seem to work with the same same data piped into a JsonRestStore. I'm using the following Dojo libs with Dojo 1.4.1: dojo.require("dojox.data.JsonRestStore"); dojo.require("dojox.grid.DataGrid"); dojo.require("dojox.data.QueryReadStore"); dojo.require("dojo.parser"); I declare my stores in the following manner: var storeJRS = new dojox.data.JsonRestStore({target:"api/collaborations.php/1", idAttribute: 'items[].id'}); var storeQRS = new dojox.data.QueryReadStore({url:"api/collaborations.php/1", requestMethod:"get"}); I create my grid layout like this: var gridLayout = [ new dojox.grid.cells.RowIndex({ name: "Row #", width: 5, styles: "text-align: left;" }), { name: "Name", field: "name", styles: "text-align:right;", width:20 }, { name: "Description", field: "description", width:30 } ]; I create my DataGrid as follows: The above works, but if I use QueryReadStore as my store, the grid is created with the headers (Name, Description), but it isn't populated with any rows: <div dojoType="dojox.grid.DataGrid" jsid="grid3" store="storeQRS" structure="gridLayout" style="height:500px; width:1000px;"></div> Using FireBug, I can see that QueryReadStore is getting my JSON data from my REST interface. It looks like the following: {"numRows":6,"items":[{"name":"My Super Cool Collab","description":"This is for all the super cool people in the super cool group","id":1},{"name":"My Other Super Cool","description":"This is for all the other super cool people","id":3},{"name":"This is another coll","description":"This is just some other collab","id":4},{"name":"some new collab","description":"this is a new collab","id":5},{"name":"yet another new coll","description":"uh huh","id":6},{"name":"asdf","description":"asdf","id":7}]} Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • How to create Dictionary object in AppDelegate to access objectkey in another ViewController

    - by TechFusion
    Hello, I have created Window Based application and tab bar controller as root controller. My objective is to store Text Field data values in one tab bar VC and will be accessible and editable by other VC and also retrievable when application start. I am looking to use NSDictionary class in AppDelegate so that I can access stroed Data Values with keys. //TestAppDelegate.h @interface { ..... .... NSDictionary *Data; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSDictionary *Data; //TestAppDelegate.m #import "TestAppDelegate.h" NSString *kNamekey =@"Namekey"; NSString *kUserIDkey =@"UserIDkey"; NSString *kPasswordkey =@"Passwordkey"; @implemetation TestAppDelegate @synthesize Data; -(void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication)application { NSString *NameDefault; NSString *UserIDdefault; NSString *Passworddefault; NSString *testvalue = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] stringForKey: kNamekey]; if(testvalue == nil) { NSDictionary *appDefaults = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: NameDefault, kNamekey, UserIdefault kUserIDkey, Passwordefault kPasswordkey, nil]; self.Data = appDefaults; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] registerDefaults:appDefaults]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] synchronize]; } else { } } Here ViewController is ViewController of Navigation Controller which is attached with one tab bar.. I have attached xib file with ViewController //ViewController.h @interface IBOutlet UITextField *Name; IBOutlet UITextField *UserId; IBOutlet UITextField *Password; } @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *Name @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *UserId; @property(retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *Password; -(IBAction)Save:(id)sender; @end Here in ViewController.m I want to store Text Field input data with key which are defined in AppDelegate. I have linked Save Barbutton with action. Here I am not getting how to access NSDictionary class with object and keys in ViewController. //ViewController.m -(IBAction)Save:(id)sender{ TestAppDelegate *appDelegate = (TestAppDelegate*)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; //Here how to access knamekey here to set object(Name.test) value with key } Please guide me about this. Thanks,

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  • puzzled with java if else performance

    - by user1906966
    I am doing an investigation on a method's performance and finally identified the overhead was caused by the "else" portion of the if else statement. I have written a small program to illustrate the performance difference even when the else portion of the code never gets executed: public class TestIfPerf { public static void main( String[] args ) { boolean condition = true; long time = 0L; int value = 0; // warm up test for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } // benchmark if condition only time = System.nanoTime(); for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "1) performance " + time ); time = System.nanoTime(); // benchmark if else condition for( int count=0; count<10000000; count++ ) { if ( condition ) { value = 1 + 2; } else { value = 1 + 3; } } time = System.nanoTime() - time; System.out.println( "2) performance " + time ); } } and run the test program with java -classpath . -Dmx=800m -Dms=800m TestIfPerf. I performed this on both Mac and Linux Java with 1.6 latest build. Consistently the first benchmark, without the else is much faster than the second benchmark with the else section even though the code is structured such that the else portion is never executed because of the condition. I understand that to some, the difference might not be significant but the relative performance difference is large. I wonder if anyone has any insight to this (or maybe there is something I did incorrectly). Linux benchmark (in nano) performance 1215488 performance 2629531 Mac benchmark (in nano) performance 1667000 performance 4208000

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  • storing/retrieving data for graph with long continuous stretches

    - by james
    i have a large 2-dimensional data set which i would like to graph. the graph is displayed in a browser and the data is retrieved via ajax. long stretches of this graph will be continuous - e.g., for x=0 through x=1000, y=9, then for x=1001 through x=1100, y=80, etc. the approach i'm considering is to send (from the server) and store (in the browser) only the points where the data changes. so for the example above, i would say data[0] = 9, then data[1001] = 80. then given x=999 for example, retrieving data[999] would actually look up data[0]. the problem that arises is finding a dictionary-like data structure which behaves like this. the approach i'm considering is to store the data in a traditional dictionary object, then also maintain a sorted array of key for that object. when given x=999, it would look at the mid-point of this array, determine whether the nearest lower key is left or right of that midpoint, then repeat with the correct subsection, etc.. does anyone have thoughts on this problem/approach?

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  • How to configure outgoing connections from an SQL stored procedure?

    - by Peter Vestberg
    I am working on a .NET project which uses Microsoft SQL server. In this project, I need a CLR stored procedure (written in C#) that uses a remote web service. So, when the stored procedure is executed on the SQL server, it makes web service calls and thus sends packets to a remote location. The problem is that when executing the SP I get: "System.Net.WebException: The request failed with HTTP status 403: Forbidden." The database user has full permission, the deployed CLR assembly and SP are even marked "unsafe", I tried signing it etc., so any of that is not causing the problem. When I am executing the very same C# code, but from a simple console application instead of as a SP, it all works fine. So I started to suspect a network related problem and had a packet sniffer running when executing both the SP and the console app version. What I realized was that the packets sent out had different destination IP addresses: the console app sent the packets directly to the web service IP while the SP sent the packets to a proxy server we use in our company. Due to network policies the latter is not allowed and that explains the "403 Forbidden" exception. So my question boils down to this: How can I configure the SP/MS SQL server to NOT use that proxy? I want it to send the packets directly to the web service IP, just like the test console app. (again, the C# code is the same , so it's not a programming matter). I've disabled all proxy settings in Internet Explorer in case the SQL server inherits these settings or something. However, no luck. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Best regards, Peter

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  • Databinding combobox selected item to settings

    - by Tuukka
    I store user specified settings using application settings properties and databinding. It has been working fine, until i want user selected to font for combobox. Databinding between user settings and combobox not working. I want to store font family name. App.XML <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <properties:Settings x:Key="Settings" /> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> Window.XML <ComboBox Name="Families" ItemsSource="{x:Static Fonts.SystemFontFamilies}" <!-- This line --> SelectedItem="{Binding Source={StaticResource Settings}, Path=Default.Font, Mode=TwoWay,UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Margin="57,122,199,118"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding}" FontFamily="{Binding}"/> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> Settings: font String User Arial

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  • SQL 2008: Using separate tables for each datatype to return single row

    - by Thomas C
    Hi all I thought I'd be flexible this time around and let the users decide what contact information the wish to store in their database. In theory it would look as a single row containing, for instance; name, adress, zipcode, Category X, Listitems A. Example FieldType table defining the datatypes available to a user: FieldTypeID, FieldTypeName, TableName 1,"Integer","tblContactInt" 2,"String50","tblContactStr50" ... A user the define his fields in the FieldDefinition table: FieldDefinitionID, FieldTypeID, FieldDefinitionName 11,2,"Name" 12,2,"Adress" 13,1,"Age" Finally we store the actual contact data in separate tables depending on its datatype. Master table, only contains the ContactID tblContact: ContactID 21 22 tblContactStr50: ContactStr50ID,ContactID,FieldDefinitionID,ContactStr50Value 31,21,11,"Person A" 32,21,12,"Adress of person A" 33,22,11,"Person B" tblContactInt: ContactIntID,ContactID,FieldDefinitionID,ContactIntValue 41,22,13,27 Question: Is it possible to return the content of these tables in two rows like this: ContactID,Name,Adress,Age 21,"Person A","Adress of person A",NULL 22,"Person B",NULL,27 I have looked into using the COALESCE and Temp tables, wondering if this is at all possible. Even if it is: maybe I'm only adding complexity whilst sacrificing performance for benefit in datastorage and user definition option. What do you think? Best Regards /Thomas C

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  • Converting non-delimited text into name/value pairs in Delphi

    - by robsoft
    I've got a text file that arrives at my application as many lines of the following form: <row amount="192.00" store="10" transaction_date="2009-10-22T12:08:49.640" comp_name="blah " comp_ref="C65551253E7A4589A54D7CCD468D8AFA" name="Accrington "/> and I'd like to turn this 'row' into a series of name/value pairs in a given TStringList (there could be dozens of these <row>s in the file, so eventually I will want to iterate through the file breaking each row into name/value pairs in turn). The problem I've got is that the data isn't obviously delimited (technically, I suppose it's space delimited). Now if it wasn't for the fact that some of the values contain leading or trailing spaces, I could probably make a few reasonable assumptions and code something to break a row up based on spaces. But as the values themselves may or may not contain spaces, I don't see an obvious way to do this. Delphi' TStringList.CommaText doesn't help, and I've tried playing around with Delimiter but I get caught-out by the spaces inside the values each time. Does anyone have a clever Delphi technique for turning the sample above into something resembling this? ; amount="192.00" store="10" transaction_date="2009-10-22T12:08:49.640" comp_name="blah " comp_ref="C65551253E7A4589A54D7CCD468D8AFA" name="Accrington " Unfortunately, as is usually the case with this kind of thing, I don't have any control over the format of the data to begin with - I can't go back and 'make' it comma delimited at source, for instance. Although I guess I could probably write some code to turn it into comma delimited - would rather find a nice way to work with what I have though. This would be in Delphi 2007, if it makes any difference.

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  • CakePHP passing parameters to action

    - by iancocco
    Hi im kinda new in cakephp and having a lot of trouble adjusting.. Here's my biggest problem .. Im trying to pass a parameter to an action, it does load, but when my script goes from the controller to the view, and goes back to the controller again, its gone. CONTROLLER CODE function add($mac = 0) { if(isset($this->params['form']['medico'])) { $temp= $this->Person->find('first', array('conditions' => array('smartphones_MAC' => $mac))); $id= $temp['Person']['id']; $this->Union->set('events_id', $id+1); $this->Union->set('people_id', $id); $this->Union->save(); } VIEW CODE (This is a menu, i only have one button right now) <fieldset> <legend>SELECCIONE SU ALERTA</legend> <?php echo $form->create('Event'); echo $form->submit('EMERGENCIA MEDICA',array('name'=>'medico')); echo $form->end(); ?> </fieldset>

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  • Iphone: TabView + TableView

    - by OneTrickPonySoft
    I think I'm missing something simple, but I can't figure out exactly what it is. I'm trying to set up an App with a UITabViewController, and one of the Tabs will have a UITableView and UISearchBar (but no Navigation Controller). I set up the UITabViewController with all the tabs in interface builder, and the views are in their own xib files. The xib file for the tab with the UITableView is set up and connected as follows. Stuff in the browser: File's owner (Class is my custom class that is a child of UITableViewController) view - View View (class UIView, reference view - File's owner) contains: UITableView (if i try and set references to the data source / delegate, the app breaks) UISearchBar (unconfigured at the moment) This setup displays all the items and doesn't lock up, but I can't assign a DataSource without it crashing when i try and load the tab with the UITableView. What should I do to get data into this table, either in IB or code? My ideas are as follows: Implement custom UITableView class, hook up to table view in IB or to custom tableviewcontroller in Xcode. Pound head or laptop against the wall until it works. Update: Here's the error the simulator pushes to the console when I connect the Tableview's data source and delegate to File Owner (who's class is my custom tableviewcontroller). 2/14/09 6:59:12 PM TabBarWillbeRight[33172] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '* -[UIViewController tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x523760'

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  • OutOfMemoryException

    - by Andrew
    I have an application that is pretty memory hungry. It holds a large amount of data in some big arrays. I have recently been noticing the occasional OutOfMemoryException. These OutOfMemoryExceptions are occurring long before my application (ASP.Net) has used up the 800mb available to it. I have track the issue down to the area of code where the array is resized. The array contains a structure that is 74bytes in size. (I know that you shouldn't create struct's that are bigger than 16bytes), but this application is a port from a Vb6 application). I have tried changing the struct to a class and this appears to have fixed the problem for now. I think the reason that changing to a class solves the problem has to do with the fact that when using a struct and the array is resized, a segment of memory that is large enough to store the new array needs to be reserved (e.g. (currentArraySize + increaseBySize)*74) cannot be found. This leads to the OutOfMemoryException. This isn't the case with a class as each element of the array only needs 8bytes to store a pointer to the new object. Is my thinking correct here?

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  • Running multiple applications in STM32 flash

    - by Richard
    Hey! I would like to have two applications in my STM32 flash, one is basically a boot and the other the 'main' application. I have figured out how to load each of them into different areas of flash, and after taking a memory dump everything looks like it is in the right place. So when I do a reset it loads the boot, all the boot does at the moment is jump to the application. Debugging the boot, this all appears to work correctly. However the problems arrives after i've made the jump to the application, it just executes one instruction (assembly) and then jumps back to the boot. It should stay in the application indefinitely. My question is then, where should I 'jump' to in the app? It seems that there are a few potential spots, such as the interrupt vectors, the reset handler, the main function of the app. Actually I've tried all of those with no success. Hopefully that makes sense, i'll update the question if not. thanks for your help! Richard Updates: I had a play around in the debugger and manually changed the program counter to the main of the application, and well that worked a charm, so it makes me think there is something wrong with my jump, why doesn't the program counter keep going after the jump? Actually it seems to be the PSR, the 'T' gets reset on the jump, if I set that again after the jump it continues on with the app as I desire Ok found a solution, seems that you need to have the PC LSB set to 1 when you do a branch or it falls into the 'ARM' mode (32 bit instruction instead of 16 bit instructions like in the 'thumb' mode. Quite an obscure little problem, thanks for letting me share it with you!

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  • How to scan an array for certain information

    - by Andrew Martin
    I've been doing an MSc Software Development conversion course, the main language of which is Java, since the end of September. We have our first assessed practical coming and I was hoping for some guidance. We have to create an array that will store 100 integers (all of which are between 1 and 10), which are generated by a random number generator, and then print out ten numbers of this array per line. For the second part, we need to scan these integers, count up how often each number appears and store the results in a second array. I've done the first bit okay, but I'm confused about how to do the second. I have been looking through the scanner class to see if it has any methods which I could use, but I don't see any. Could anyone point me in the right direction - not the answer, but perhaps which library it comes from? Code so far: import java.util.Random; public class Practical4_Assessed { public static void main(String[] args) { Random numberGenerator = new Random (); int[] arrayOfGenerator = new int[100]; for (int countOfGenerator = 0; countOfGenerator < 100; countOfGenerator++) arrayOfGenerator[countOfGenerator] = numberGenerator.nextInt(10); int countOfNumbersOnLine = 0; for (int countOfOutput = 0; countOfOutput < 100; countOfOutput++) { if (countOfNumbersOnLine == 10) { System.out.println(""); countOfNumbersOnLine = 0; countOfOutput--; } else { System.out.print(arrayOfGenerator[countOfOutput] + " "); countOfNumbersOnLine++; } } } } Thanks, Andrew

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  • Multiple forms on a single page

    - by normalocity
    I've got an app that's in invite-only beta right now. Problem is, I can't get the invite system to work. :( On my root page there's a login form (which works just fine), and I'm trying to add a "request invite" form on the same page. I started doing it by putting the form for InviteRequest (ActiveRecord) inside a partial, in the "views" folder for "InviteRequest". The app is definitely calling this partial, but I'm getting the following error: NoMethodError in User_sessions#new Showing app/views/invite_request/_new.html.erb where line #2 raised: undefined method `invite_requests_path' for #<ActionView::Base:0x25b3248> Extracted source (around line #2): 1: <% @invite_request = InviteRequest.new() %> 2: <% form_for @invite_request do |ir| %> 3: <%= ir.label :email %> 4: <%= ir.text_field :email %> 5: <% end %> I also read through the "Multiple Models in a Form" section of my trusty copy of "Agile Web Development with Rails", about maybe doing this with a "fieldset" tag, but not sure if this is the right approach. Thx.

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  • passing java mail message object from between applications

    - by jezhilvalan
    I'm using java mail api 1.4.1 to obtain new emails. Two classes are being used to obtain emails and then parsing it. "GetMail" class communicates with mail server(Gmail,yahoo etc) and obtains the message object. Then the message object is passed to yet another class "MailFormatter" class, which then parses the message object, obtains the email headers (From,To,Subject etc) and then it parses the Multipart content to obtain the main body and attachments.Since both "Mail getting" and "Mail formatting" process are very resource intensive, these classes are going to be implemented as separate web applications.This application is going to monitor new emails for numerous email ids.If these ("GetMail" and "MailFormatter") are implemented as separate web applications, how can I pass the message object from "GetMail" app to "MailFormatter" app ? Is there a way through which I can persist the obtained message object in a certain location (a location which is common to both "GetMail" and "MailFormatter" applications), so that "GetMail" can persist the message object in that location, and then "MailFormatter" app can read "Message" objects from that location and carry out the parsing process. Message objects cannot be serialized. If they cannot be serialized how can I persist the state of java mail message object? please do help me to resolve this issue.

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  • How to html encode the output of an MVC view?

    - by jessegavin
    I am building a web app which will generate lots of different code templates (HTML tables, XML documents, SQL scripts) that I want to render on screen as encoded HTML so that people can copy and paste those templates. I would like to be able to use asp.net mvc views to generate the code for these templates (rather than, say, using a StringBuilder). Is there a way using asp.net mvc to store the results of a rendered view into a string? Something like the following perhaps? public ContentResult HtmlTable(string format) { var m = new MyViewModel(); m.MyDataElements = _myDataRepo.GetData(); // Somehow render the view and store it as a string? // Not sure how to achieve this part. var viewHtml = View(m); var htmlEncodedView = Server.HtmlEncode(viewHtml); return Content(htmlEncodedView); } NOTE: My original question mentioned NHaml views specifically, but I realized that this wasn't view engine specific. So if you see answers related to NHaml, that's why.

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  • How to terminate all [grand]child processes using C# on WXP (and newer MSWindows)

    - by NVRAM
    Question: How can I determine all processes in the child's Process Tree to kill them? I have an application, written in C# that will: Get a set of data from the server, Spawn a 3rd party utility to process the data, then Return the results to the server. This is working fine. But since a run consumes a lot of CPU and may take as long as an hour, I want to add the ability to have my app terminate its child processes. Some issues that make the simple solutions I've found elsewhere are: My app's child process "A" (InstallAnywhere EXE I think) spawns the real processing app "B" (a java.exe), which in turns spawns more children "C1".."Cn" (most of which are also written in Java). There will likely be multiple copies of my application (and hence, multiple sets of its children) running on the same machine. The child process is not in my control so there might be some "D" processes in the future. My application must run on 32-bit and 64-bit versions of MSWindows. On the plus side there is no issue of data loss, a "clean" shutdown doesn't matter as long as the processes end fairly quickly.

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  • Fastest PNG decoder for .NET

    - by sboisse
    Our web server needs to process many compositions of large images together before sending the results to web clients. This process is performance critical because the server can receive several thousands of requests per hour. Right now our solution loads PNG files (around 1MB each) from the HD and sends them to the video card so the composition is done on the GPU. We first tried loading our images using the PNG decoder exposed by the XNA API. We saw the performance was not too good. To understand if the problem was loading from the HD or the decoding of the PNG, we modified that by loading the file in a memory stream, and then sending that memory stream to the .NET PNG decoder. The difference of performance using XNA or using System.Windows.Media.Imaging.PngBitmapDecoder class is not significant. We roughly get the same levels of performance. Our benchmarks show the following performance results: Load images from disk: 37.76ms 1% Decode PNGs: 2816.97ms 77% Load images on Video Hardware: 196.67ms 5% Composition: 87.80ms 2% Get composition result from Video Hardware: 166.21ms 5% Encode to PNG: 318.13ms 9% Store to disk: 3.96ms 0% Clean up: 53.00ms 1% Total: 3680.50ms 100% From these results we see that the slowest parts are when decoding the PNG. So we are wondering if there wouldn't be a PNG decoder we could use that would allow us to reduce the PNG decoding time. We also considered keeping the images uncompressed on the hard disk, but then each image would be 10MB in size instead of 1MB and since there are several tens of thousands of these images stored on the hard disk, it is not possible to store them all without compression.

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  • How can a program be detected as running?

    - by ryeguy
    I have written a program that is sort of an unofficial, standalone plugin for an application. It allows customers to get a service that is a lower priced alternative then the vendor-owned one. My program is not illegal, against any kind of TOS, and is certainly not a virus, adware, or anything like that. That being said, the vendor of course is not happy about me taking his competition, and is trying to block my application from running. He has already tried some tactics to stop people from running my app alongside his. He makes it so if it is detected, his app throws a fake error. First, he checked to see if my program was running by looking for an open window with the right title. I countered this by randomizing the program title at startup. Next, he looked for the running process name. I countered this by making the app copy itself when it is started as [random string].exe and then running that. Anyways, my question is this: what else can he do to detect if my program running? I know that you can read window text (ie status bar, labels). I'm prepared to counter this by replacing the labels with images (ugh, any other way?). But what else is there? Can you detect what .dlls a program has loaded? If so, could this be solved by randomizing the dll names before loading them? I know that it's possible to get a program's signature in memory and track it that way (like a virus scanner), but the chances of him doing that probably aren't good because that sounds pretty advanced. Even though this is kinda crappy of him to be doing, its kind of fun. It's like a nerdy fist fight. EDIT: When I said it's a plugin, that is just the (incorrect) term I used. It's a standalone EXE. The "API" between my program and the other is mine is simply entering data into the controls (like textboxes, etc).

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