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• Get all folder / directories list in VB.net

  - by Henry

  Hi, this is my first Stackoverflow question, im learning VB and having a few problems with getting a list of all folders/directories on the system, im using the code included here and it seems to work until it hits the recycle bin folder, and some other system folders Sub main() Dim DirList As New ArrayList GetDirectories("c:\", DirList) For Each item In DirList 'add item to listbox or text etc here Next End sub End Sub Sub GetDirectories(ByVal StartPath As String, ByRef DirectoryList As ArrayList) Dim Dirs() As String = Directory.GetDirectories(StartPath) DirectoryList.AddRange(Dirs) For Each Dir As String In Dirs GetDirectories(Dir, DirectoryList) Next End Sub Can anyone help me with this, id like to know what is causing this first, and a good fix, or alternative way to do this. Thanks in advance.

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• Avoiding nesting two for loops

  - by chavanak

  Hi, Please have a look at the code below: import string from collections import defaultdict first_complex=open( "residue_a_chain_a_b_backup.txt", "r" ) first_complex_lines=first_complex.readlines() first_complex_lines=map( string.strip, first_complex_lines ) first_complex.close() second_complex=open( "residue_a_chain_a_c_backup.txt", "r" ) second_complex_lines=second_complex.readlines() second_complex_lines=map( string.strip, second_complex_lines ) second_complex.close() list_1=[] list_2=[] for x in first_complex_lines: if x[0]!="d": list_1.append( x ) for y in second_complex_lines: if y[0]!="d": list_2.append( y ) j=0 list_3=[] list_4=[] for a in list_1: pass for b in list_2: pass if a==b: list_3.append( a ) kvmap=defaultdict( int ) for k in list_3: kvmap[k]+=1 print kvmap Normally I use izip or izip_longest to club two for loops, but this time the length of the files are different. I don't want a None entry. If I use the above method, the run time becomes incremental and useless. How am I supposed to get the two for loops going? Cheers, Chavanak

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• JQuery and WCF - GET Method passes null

  - by user70192

  Hello, I have a WCF service that accepts requests from JQuery. Currently, I can access this service. However, the parameter value is always null. Here is my WCF Service definition: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public string ExecuteQuery(string query) { // NOTE: I get here, but the query parameter is always null string results = Engine.ExecuteQuery(query); return results; } Here is my JQuery call: var searchUrl = "/services/myService.svc/ExecuteQuery"; var json = { "query": eval("\"test query\"") }; alert(json2string(json)); // Everything is correct here if (json != null) { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: searchUrl, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: json2string(json), dataType: "json" }); } What am I doing wrong? It seems odd that I can call the service but the parameter is always null. Thank you

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• How can I match at the beginning of any line, including the first, with a Perl regex?

  - by JoelFan

  According the the Perl documentation on regexes: By default, the "^" character is guaranteed to match only the beginning of the string ... Embedded newlines will not be matched by "^" ... You may, however, wish to treat a string as a multi-line buffer, such that the "^" will match after any newline within the string ... you can do this by using the /m modifier on the pattern match operator. The "after any newline" part means that it will only match at the beginning of the 2nd and subsequent lines. What if I want to match at the beginning of any line (1st, 2nd, etc.)? EDIT: OK, it seems that the file has BOM information (3 chars) at the beginning and that's what's messing me up. Any way to get ^ to match anyway? EDIT: So in the end it works (as long as there's no BOM), but now it seems that the Perl documentation is wrong, since it says "after any newline"

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• php mysql flex unicode

  - by JonoB

  I have a problem with saving the £ symbol to a mysql database. I am running a flex front end, with a php + mysql backend When I save a record from flex, the string gets sent to the server as "This amount is £10" php views the string as above, and when it gets saved into the DB, it gets saved as "This amount is £10". My understanding is that this is correct based on MySQL or PHP is appending a  whenever the £ is used I now retrieve the above record, and it gets sent to flex as "This amount is £10". Flex correctly displays this in a textarea as "This amount is £10" I change another field in the same record in flex, and re-save the transaction. The string now gets sent to the server as "This amount is £10" The record is now saved into the DB as "The amount is £10". Each time the record is re-saved, this effect snowballs. Thanks for any advice you can give.

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• HTML5: HTML VS XHTML spec question regarding comments

  - by NoozNooz42

  In the W3C working draft for HTML5 here's a line I find confusing: http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/introduction.html#html-vs-xhtml Comments that contain the string "--" can be represented in the DOM but not in the HTML syntax or in XML. I can interpret this in two different ways: Comments that contain the string "--" can be represented in XML and in the DOM but not in the HTML syntax Comments that contain the string"--" can be represented in the DOM but neither in the HTML syntax nor in XML. I really find the original formulation highly confusing. Which one does it mean and is it even correct english? Who should I contact if I want to point out that I find such a wording highly confusing and that hence there's a high probability that other non-native english speaker would find this kind of formulation highly confusing too?

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• Does WordPress clear $GLOBALS ?

  - by Brayn

  Hey What I want to do is to include one of my PHP scripts in a Word Press theme. The problem is that after I include the script file I can't access, inside functions in the theme file, variables declared in the script file . I have created a new file in the theme folder and added the same code as in header.php and if I open that file it works just fine. So as far as I can tell it's something Word Press related. /other/path/wordpress/wp-content/themes/theme-name/header.php // this is broken /other/path/wordpress/wp-content/themes/theme-name/test.php // this works /var/www/vhosts/domain/wordpress/ ->(symlink)-> /other/path/wordpress/ /other/path/wordpress/wp-content/themes/theme-name/header.php /var/www/vhosts/domain/include_file.php Content of: /var/www/vhosts/domain/include_file.php $global_var = 'global'; print_r($GLOBALS); // if I open this file directly this prints globals WITH $global_var; // if this file is included in header this prints all the WP stuff WITHOUT $global_var; Content of: /other/path/wordpress/wp-content/themes/theme-name/header.php require '/path/to/include_file.php'; print $global_var; // this prints 'global' as expected function test() { global $global_var; print $global_var; // this is NULL } test(); print_r($GLOBALS); // this prints all the WP stuff WITHOUT $global_var in it

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• iPhone SDK Nested For Loop performance

  - by Skeep

  Hi All, I have a NSArray of string id and a NSDictionary of NSDictionary objects. I am currently looping through the string id array to match the id value in the NSDictionary. There are around 200 NSDictionary objects and only 5 or so string ID. My current code is such: for (NSString *Str in aArr) { for (NSDictionary *a in apArr) { if ([a objectForKey:@"id"] == Str) { NSLog(@"Found!"); } } } The performance of the above code is really slow and I was wondering if there is a better way to do this?

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• How to instantiate a FormFile Object ?

  - by Mercer

  Hello, i have a String with a path of my file and i want to instancie a new FormFile with this String. It's possible ..? My code: public ArrayList<FormFile> getFilesFromFolder(String path) { File file = new File(path); ArrayList<FormFile> vFiles = new ArrayList<FormFile>(); if (file.exists()) { File[] files = file.listFiles(); int i; for (i = 0; i < files.length; i++) { if (files[i].isFile()) { vFiles.add((FormFile) files[i]); } } } else { vFiles = null; } return vFiles; } but i have an error in this line vFiles.add((FormFile) files[i]);

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• How do I update an xml file with msbuild with two namespaces?

  - by c3rin

  This msbuild below task can take into account one namespace, but in the case where I'm updating an mxml (flex) that has a mix of namespaces, can I use this task or another msbuild task to do the update? <XmlUpdate Prefix="fx" Namespace="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" XmlFileName="myFlexApp.mxml" Xpath="//mx:Application/fx:Declarations/fx:String[@id='stringId']" Value="xxxxx"> Here is the flex xml I'm trying to update: <mx:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark"> <fx:Declarations> <fx:String id="stringId">UPDATE_ME</fx:String> </fx:Declarations></mx:Application>

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• ASP.NET MVC: Posting JSON to Controller

  - by JamesBrownIsDead

  I've got this in my controller: [HttpPost] public void UpdateLanguagePreference(string languageTag) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(languageTag)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("languageTag"); } ... } And have this jQuery code POSTing to the controller: jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/Config/UpdateLanguagePreference', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', data: '{ "languageTag": "' + selectedLanguage + '" }' }); When I try to the code, however, I get the error: Server Error in '/' Application. Value cannot be null. Parameter name: languageTag What's the problem? Isn't this how to POST JSON to an MVC Controller? I can examine the POST using Fiddler and see that the request is correct. For some reason, UpdateLanguagePreference() is getting a null or empty string.

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• SQL SERVER 2008 Dynamic query problem

  - by priyanka.sarkar

  I have a dynamic query which reads like this Alter PROCEDURE dbo.mySP -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here ( @DBName varchar(50), @tblName varchar(50) ) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; -- Insert statements for procedure here declare @string as varchar(50) declare @string1 as varchar(50) set @string1 = '[' + @DBName + ']' + '.[dbo].' + '[' + @tblName + ']' set @string = 'select * from ' + @string1 exec @string END I am calling like this dbo.mySP 'dbtest1','tblTest' And I am experiencing an error "Msg 203, Level 16, State 2, Procedure mySP, Line 27 The name 'select * from [dbtest1].[dbo].[tblTest]' is not a valid identifier." What is wrong? and How to overcome? Thanks in advance

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• Automatic testing of GUI related private methods

  - by Stein G. Strindhaug

  When it comes to GUI programming (at least for web) I feel that often the only thing that would be useful to unit test is some of the private methods*. While unit testing makes perfect sense for back-end code, I feel it doesn't quite fit the GUI classes. What is the best way to add automatic testing of these? * Why I think the only methods useful to test is private: Often when I write GUI classes they don't even have any public methods except for the constructor. The public methods if any is trivial, and the constructor does most of the job calling private methods. They receive some data from server does a lot of trivial output and feeds data to the constructor of other classes contained inside it, adding listeners that calls a (more or less directly) calls the server... Most of it pretty trivial (the hardest part is the layout: css, IE, etc.) but sometimes I create some private method that does some advanced tricks, which I definitely do not want to be publicly visible (because it's closely coupled to the implementation of the layout, and likely to change), but is sufficiently complicated to break. These are often only called by the constructor or repeatedly by events in the code, not by any public methods at all. I'd like to have a way to test this type of methods, without making it public or resorting to reflection trickery. (BTW: I'm currently using GWT, but I feel this applies to most languages/frameworks I've used when coding for GUI)

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• (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

  - by Ben Packard

  Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

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• Properties in Remoting

  - by Evl-ntnt

  Server: Host h = new Host(); h.Name = "JARR!!"; TcpChannel channel = new TcpChannel(8080); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterWellKnownServiceType(typeof(Host), "Server", WellKnownObjectMode.Singleton); Client: TcpChannel chan = new TcpChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(chan); remoteHost = (Host)Activator.GetObject(typeof(Host), "tcp://127.0.0.1:8080/Server"); Class: [Serializable] public class Host: MarshalByRefObject { public string Name{get; set;} public Host(){} public Host(string n) { Name = n; } public override string ToString() { return Name; } } Connection OK, 8080 port opened, on client side remoteHost is not null, but remoteHost.Name == "" Why?

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• problems with Console.SetOut in Release Mode?

  - by Matt Jacobsen

  i have a bunch of Console.WriteLines in my code that I can observe at runtime. I communicate with a native library that I also wrote. I'd like to stick some printf's in the native library and observe them too. I don't see them at runtime however. I've created a convoluted hello world app to demonstrate my problem. When the app runs, I can debug into the native library and see that the hello world is called. The output never lands in the textwriter though. Note that if the same code is run as a console app then everything works fine. C#: [DllImport("native.dll")] static extern void Test(); StreamWriter writer; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); writer = new StreamWriter(@"c:\output.txt"); writer.AutoFlush = true; System.Console.SetOut(writer); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Test(); } and the native part: __declspec(dllexport) void Test() { printf("Hello World"); } Update: hamishmcn below started talking about debug/release builds. I removed the native call in the above button1_click method and just replaced it with a standard Console.WriteLine .net call. When I compiled and ran this in debug mode the messages were redirected to the output file. When I switched to release mode however the calls weren't redirected. Console redirection only seems to work in debug mode. How do I get around this?

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• i want to convert my aspx.cs to dll

  - by jay rathod

  i have a default.aspx page: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="btn" runat="server" Text="clicke here" OnClick="btn_Click"/> <asp:TextBox ID="txt" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lbl"></asp:Label> </div> </div> </form> </body> </html> and default.aspx.cs : public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { string test; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { test = txt.Text; lbl.Text = test; } } now i want to make the dll of my default.aspx.cs file and remove it from the website and give the reference of it. so how can i do this??

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• Creating Emulated iSCSI Target in a Lab/Testing Environment using Windows Server 2008 R2

  - by Brian McCleary

  We have a single server running Windows Server 2008 with Hyper-V installed running 5 virtual machines. I have purchased a second DELL R805 Server so that we can create a fail-over cluster to our current R805 that is currently in production. Right now, our R805 connects via iSCSI to a MD3000i iSCSI SAN. Before we try to roll out the second server and clustering to our production environment, I want to be able to test and "play with" the clustering features in our lab before rolling it out. The problem is that I don't want to spend a couple thousand dollars on another iSCSI SAN server just for testing. I already have two servers in my lab that are installed with Windows Server 2008 R2 64bit (one is the R805 and another spare desktop that was laying around) and with the Hyper-V roll enabled that should be ready to test with, but I don't have an iSCSI target to use as the Cluster Shared Volume. Is there anyway to install, either on a Hyper-V image or on a external spare computer that we have some sort of emulated iSCSI target? In our lab, we obviously don't need a real SAN, just something that we can test out how to setup the clustering properly outside of our production environment. Any advise is appreciated. FYI - I have read Jose Barret's blog on WUDSS at http://blogs.technet.com/josebda/archive/2008/01/07/installing-the-evaluation-version-of-wudss-2003-refresh-and-the-microsoft-iscsi-software-target-version-3-1-on-a-vm.aspx, but it seems awfully complex. I'm hoping for an easier solution.

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• how to make Regular expression into non-greedy ?

  - by Rueta

  Hi everyone! I have made a Work with JQ. My Work is a string width a special character block begin and end of string. I want take the text in that special characters, i used regular expression for find in string, but how to make JQ find multi result when have two special character or more. My html here; <div id="container"> <div id="textcontainer"> Cu?c chi?n pháp lý gi?a [|co th?|nghi?m|] th? tru?ng [|test2|dây là test l?n 2|] ch?ng khoán [|M?|day la nuoc my|] và ngân hàng d?u tu quy?n l?c nh?t Ph? Wall m?i ch? b?t d?u. </div> </div> and my JQ $(document).ready(function() { var takedata = $("#textcontainer").text(); var test = 'abcd adddb'; var filterdata = takedata.match(/(\[.+\])/); alert(filterdata); //end write js }); my result is: [|co th?|nghi?m|] th? tru?ng [|test2|dây là test l?n 2|] ch?ng khoán [|M?|day la nuoc my|] . but this is'nt the result i want :(. How to get [text] for times 1 and [demo] for times 2 ?. pls help me !. thankyou :)

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• concatenating strings from two different rows in a table

  - by Azeem

  Hello, We are attempting to rework the SQL in a product. The product stores XML in a table as follows: XML_STORAGE - UID IDENTITY - PARENT_ID INTEGER - SEQ INTEGER - XML VARCHAR(3800) The current way of doing this is as follows: Retrieve all ROWS for PARENT_ID = n. Then go over the fetched rows in the code and concatenate the XML strings into one large XML before parsing. The SEQ column is used to ORDER the result so the XML strings can be concatenated properly. Hopefully that is clear. What we are attempting to do is rework this so we can use a SQL variant to retrieve the whole string and just fetch one row back from DB2. Is there a DB2 function that will allow us to concatenate the string in all of these rows into one large string in the resultset. How would such a SQL look. Please let me know. Any help is much appreciated. Thanks! - Azeem

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• Is there a way to use Linq projections with extension methods

  - by Acoustic

  I'm trying to use AutoMapper and a repository pattern along with a fluent interface, and running into difficulty with the Linq projection. For what it's worth, this code works fine when simply using in-memory objects. When using a database provider, however, it breaks when constructing the query graph. I've tried both SubSonic and Linq to SQL with the same result. Thanks for your ideas. Here's an extension method used in all scenarios - It's the source of the problem since everything works fine without using extension methods public static IQueryable<MyUser> ByName(this IQueryable<MyUser> users, string firstName) { return from u in users where u.FirstName == firstName select u; } Here's the in-memory code that works fine var userlist = new List<User> {new User{FirstName = "Test", LastName = "User"}}; Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = (from u in userlist select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u)) .AsQueryable() .ByName("Test"); foreach (var x in result) { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } Here's the same thing using a SubSonic (or Linq to SQL or whatever) that fails. This is what I'd like to make work somehow with extension methods... Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u); var final = result.ByName("Test"); foreach(var x in final) // Fails here when the query graph built. { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } The goal here is to avoid having to manually map the generated "User" object to the "MyUser" domain object- in other words, I'm trying to find a way to use AutoMapper so I don't have this kind of mapping code everywhere a database read operation is needed: var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select new MyUser // Can this be avoided with AutoMapper AND extension methods? { FirstName = v.FirstName, LastName = v.LastName };

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• Twitter date unparseable?

  - by Andreas

  Hi, I want to convert the date string in a Twitter response to a Date object, but I always get a ParseException and I cannot see the error!?! Input string: Thu Dec 23 18:26:07 +0000 2010 SimpleDateFormat Pattern: EEE MMM dd HH:mm:ss ZZZZZ yyyy Method: public static Date getTwitterDate(String date) { SimpleDateFormat sf = new SimpleDateFormat(TWITTER); sf.setLenient(true); Date twitterDate = null; try { twitterDate = sf.parse(date); } catch (Exception e) {} return twitterDate; } I also tried this: http://friendpaste.com/2IaKdlT3Zat4ANwdAhxAmZ but that gives the same result. I use Java 1.6 on Mac OS X. Cheers, Andi

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• dynamic JSF composite component styling/rendering

  - by Checkoff

  I've a little problem with a composite component. This component's implementation looks like: <composite:implementation> <h:outputStylesheet name="foo.css" library="bar"/> <div id="#{cc.clientId}"> <composite:insertChildren/> </div> </composite:implementation> It is included dynamically into a facelet page which include this component with JSTL core tags. The facelet page is similar to the following one. <h:panelGroup id="viewport" layout="block"> <c:if test="#{controller.object != null}"> <c:forEach items="#{controller.object.elements}" var="element"> <c:if test="#{element.type == 'type1'}"> <my:componentTypeOne id="#{element.id}"/> </c:if> <c:if test="#{element.type == 'type2'}"> <my:componentTypeTwo id="#{element.id}"/> </c:if> </c:forEach> </c:if> </h:panelGroup> So when I only render the viewport of the page the components are rendered but without the stylesheet defined within the composite component my:component. Is there any way to include the stylesheet on the fly without rendering the whole page? EDIT: extension of the example code..

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• Problem with LSParseDateTime function on server

  - by Saul

  When I run this test code on my development machine it works as expected. CF9.01 I am in europe using euro date format so 10/09/1957 is 10th Sept 1957. <cfset testDate="10/09/1957"> <cfoutput> Initial string = "#testDate#"<br> LSparsedatetime output = #lsparsedatetime(session.form.patientDOB)#<br> parsedatetime output = #parsedatetime(session.form.patientDOB)# </cfoutput> Output on test machine is Initial string = "10/09/1957" LSparsedatetime output = {ts '1957-09-10 00:00:00'} parsedatetime output = {ts '1957-10-09 00:00:00'} Same code , output on live server is Initial string = "10/09/1957" LSparsedatetime output = {ts '1957-10-09 00:00:00'} parsedatetime output = {ts '1957-10-09 00:00:00'} Server OS is Windows Web Server 2008 R2. I checked Control panel date and time setting and it is correctly set to London. Web server is IIS7 but I don't think that would affect anything? IN region and Language, location is set to United Kingdom and in Administrative (change system locale ) it is also correct as English (United Kingdom)

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• django 'urlize' strings form text just like twitter

  - by dana

  heyy there i want to parse a text,let's name it 'post', and 'urlize' some strings if they contain a particular character, in a particular position. my 'pseudocode' trial would look like that: def urlize(post) for string in post if string icontains ('#') url=(r'^searchn/$', searchn, name='news_searchn'), then apply url to the string return urlize(post) i want the function to return to me the post with the urlized strings, where necessary (just like twitter does). i don't understand: how can i parse a text, and search for certain strings? is there ok to make a function especially for 'urlizing' some strings? The function should return the entire post, no matter if it has such kind of strings. is there another way Django offers? Thank you

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