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• How to setup Hadoop cluster so that it accepts mapreduce jobs from remote computers?

  - by drasto

  There is a computer I use for Hadoop map/reduce testing. This computer runs 4 Linux virtual machines (using Oracle virtual box). Each of them has Cloudera with Hadoop (distribution c3u4) installed and serves as a node of Hadoop cluster. One of those 4 nodes is master node running namenode and jobtracker, others are slave nodes. Normally I use this cluster from local network for testing. However when I try to access it from another network I cannot send any jobs to it. The computer running Hadoop cluster has public IP and can be reached over internet for another services. For example I am able to get HDFS (namenode) administration site and map/reduce (jobtracker) administration site (on ports 50070 and 50030 respectively) from remote network. Also it is possible to use Hue. Ports 8020 and 8021 are both allowed. What is blocking my map/reduce job submits from reaching the cluster? Is there some setting that I must change first in order to be able to submit map/reduce jobs remotely? Here is my mapred-site.xml file: <configuration> <property> <name>mapred.job.tracker</name> <value>master:8021</value> </property> <!-- Enable Hue plugins --> <property> <name>mapred.jobtracker.plugins</name> <value>org.apache.hadoop.thriftfs.ThriftJobTrackerPlugin</value> <description>Comma-separated list of jobtracker plug-ins to be activated. </description> </property> <property> <name>jobtracker.thrift.address</name> <value>0.0.0.0:9290</value> </property> </configuration> And this is in /etc/hosts file: 192.168.1.15 master 192.168.1.14 slave1 192.168.1.13 slave2 192.168.1.9 slave3

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• How do you handle authentication across domains?

  - by William Ratcliff

  I'm trying to save users of our services from having to have multiple accounts/passwords. I'm in a large organization and there's one group that handles part of user authentication for users who are from outside the facility (primarily for administrative functions). They store a secure cookie to establish a session and communicate only via HTTPS via the browser. Sessions expire either through: 1) explicit logout of the user 2) Inactivity 3) Browser closes My team is trying to write a web application to help users analyze data that they've taken (or are currently taking) while at our facility. We need to determine if a user is 1) authenticated 2) Some identifier for that user so we can store state for them (what analysis they are working on, etc.) So, the problem is how do you authenticate across domains (the authentication server for the other application lives in a border region between public and private--we will live in the public region). We have come up with some scenarios and I'd like advice about what is best practice, or if there is one we haven't considered. Let's start with the case where the user is authenticated with the authentication server. 1) The authentication server leaves a public cookie in the browser with their primary key for a user. If this is deemed sensitive, they encrypt it on their server and we have the key to decrypt it on our server. When the user visits our site, we check for this public cookie. We extract the user_id and use a public api for the authentication server to request if the user is logged in. If they are, they send us a response with: response={ userid :we can then map this to our own user ids. If necessary, we can request additional information such as email-address/display name once (to notify them if long running jobs are done, or to share results with other people, like with google_docs). account_is_active:Make sure that the account is still valid session_is_active: Is their session still active? If we query this for a valid user, this will have a side effect that we will reset the last_time_session_activated value and thus prolong their session with the authentication server last_time_session_activated: let us know how much time they have left ip_address_session_started_from:make sure the person at our site is coming from the same ip as they started the session at } Given this response, we either accept them as authenticated and move on with our app, or redirect them to the login page for the authentication server (question: if we give an encrypted portion of the response (signed by us) with the page to redirect them to, do we open any gaping security holes in the authentication server)? The flaw that we've found with this is that if the user visits evilsite.com and they look at the session cookie and send a query to the public api of the authentication server, they can keep the session alive and if our original user leaves the machine without logging out, then the next user will be able to access their session (this was possible before, but having the session alive eternally makes this worse). 2) The authentication server redirects all requests made to our domain to us and we send responses back through them to the user. Essentially, they act as a proxy. The advantage of this is that we can handshake with the authentication server, so it's safe to be trusted with the email address/name of the user and they don't have to reenter it So, if the user tries to go to: authentication_site/mysite_page1 they are redirected to mysite. Which would you choose, or is there a better way? The goal is to minimize the "Yet Another Password/Yet another username" problem... Thanks!!!!

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• Django + gunicorn + virtualenv + Supervisord issue

  - by Florian Le Goff

  Dear all, I have a strange issue with my virtualenv + gunicorn setup, only when gunicorn is launched via supervisord. I do realize that it may very well be an issue with my supervisord and I would appreciate any feedback on a better place to ask for help... In a nutshell : when I run gunicorn from my user shell, inside my virtualenv, everything is working flawlessly. I'm able to access all the views of my Django project. When gunicorn is launched by supervisord at the system startup, everything is OK. But, if I have to kill the gunicorn_django processes, or if I perform a supervisord restart, once that gunicorn_django has relaunched, every request is answered with a weird Traceback : (...) File "/home/hc/prod/venv/lib/python2.6/site-packages/Django-1.2.5-py2.6.egg/django/db/__init__.py", line 77, in connection = connections[DEFAULT_DB_ALIAS] File "/home/hc/prod/venv/lib/python2.6/site-packages/Django-1.2.5-py2.6.egg/django/db/utils.py", line 92, in __getitem__ backend = load_backend(db['ENGINE']) File "/home/hc/prod/venv/lib/python2.6/site-packages/Django-1.2.5-py2.6.egg/django/db/utils.py", line 50, in load_backend raise ImproperlyConfigured(error_msg) TemplateSyntaxError: Caught ImproperlyConfigured while rendering: 'django.db.backends.postgresql_psycopg2' isn't an available database backend. Try using django.db.backends.XXX, where XXX is one of: 'dummy', 'mysql', 'oracle', 'postgresql', 'postgresql_psycopg2', 'sqlite3' Error was: cannot import name utils Full stack available here : http://pastebin.com/BJ5tNQ2N I'm running... Ubuntu/maverick (up-to-date) Python = 2.6.6 virtualenv = 1.5.1 gunicorn = 0.12.0 Django = 1.2.5 psycopg2 = '2.4-beta2 (dt dec pq3 ext)' gunicorn configuration : backlog = 2048 bind = "127.0.0.1:8000" pidfile = "/tmp/gunicorn-hc.pid" daemon = True debug = True workers = 3 logfile = "/home/hc/prod/log/gunicorn.log" loglevel = "info" supervisord configuration : [program:gunicorn] directory=/home/hc/prod/hc command=/home/hc/prod/venv/bin/gunicorn_django -c /home/hc/prod/hc/gunicorn.conf.py user=hc umask=022 autostart=True autorestart=True redirect_stderr=True Any advice ? I've been stuck on this one for quite a while. It seems like some weird memory limit, as I'm not enforcing anything special : $ ulimit -a core file size (blocks, -c) 0 data seg size (kbytes, -d) unlimited scheduling priority (-e) 20 file size (blocks, -f) unlimited pending signals (-i) 16382 max locked memory (kbytes, -l) 64 max memory size (kbytes, -m) unlimited open files (-n) 1024 pipe size (512 bytes, -p) 8 POSIX message queues (bytes, -q) 819200 real-time priority (-r) 0 stack size (kbytes, -s) 8192 cpu time (seconds, -t) unlimited max user processes (-u) unlimited virtual memory (kbytes, -v) unlimited file locks (-x) unlimited Thank you.

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• Improving TCP performance over a gigabit network with lots of connections and high traffic of small packets

  - by MinimeDJ

  I’m trying to improve my TCP throughput over a “gigabit network with lots of connections and high traffic of small packets”. My server OS is Ubuntu 11.10 Server 64bit. There are about 50.000 (and growing) clients connected to my server through TCP Sockets (all on the same port). 95% of of my packets have size of 1-150 bytes (TCP header and payload). The rest 5% vary from 150 up to 4096+ bytes. With the config below my server can handle traffic up to 30 Mbps (full duplex). Can you please advice best practice to tune OS for my needs? My /etc/sysctl.cong looks like this: kernel.pid_max = 1000000 net.ipv4.ip_local_port_range = 2500 65000 fs.file-max = 1000000 # net.core.netdev_max_backlog=3000 net.ipv4.tcp_sack=0 # net.core.rmem_max = 16777216 net.core.wmem_max = 16777216 net.core.somaxconn = 2048 # net.ipv4.tcp_rmem = 4096 87380 16777216 net.ipv4.tcp_wmem = 4096 65536 16777216 # net.ipv4.tcp_synack_retries = 2 net.ipv4.tcp_syncookies = 1 net.ipv4.tcp_mem = 50576 64768 98152 # net.core.wmem_default = 65536 net.core.rmem_default = 65536 net.ipv4.tcp_window_scaling=1 # net.ipv4.tcp_mem= 98304 131072 196608 # net.ipv4.tcp_timestamps = 0 net.ipv4.tcp_rfc1337 = 1 net.ipv4.ip_forward = 0 net.ipv4.tcp_congestion_control=cubic net.ipv4.tcp_tw_recycle = 0 net.ipv4.tcp_tw_reuse = 0 # net.ipv4.tcp_orphan_retries = 1 net.ipv4.tcp_fin_timeout = 25 net.ipv4.tcp_max_orphans = 8192 Here are my limits: $ ulimit -a core file size (blocks, -c) 0 data seg size (kbytes, -d) unlimited scheduling priority (-e) 0 file size (blocks, -f) unlimited pending signals (-i) 193045 max locked memory (kbytes, -l) 64 max memory size (kbytes, -m) unlimited open files (-n) 1000000 pipe size (512 bytes, -p) 8 POSIX message queues (bytes, -q) 819200 real-time priority (-r) 0 stack size (kbytes, -s) 8192 cpu time (seconds, -t) unlimited max user processes (-u) 1000000 [ADDED] My NICs are the following: $ dmesg | grep Broad [ 2.473081] Broadcom NetXtreme II 5771x 10Gigabit Ethernet Driver bnx2x 1.62.12-0 (2011/03/20) [ 2.477808] bnx2x 0000:02:00.0: eth0: Broadcom NetXtreme II BCM57711E XGb (A0) PCI-E x4 5GHz (Gen2) found at mem fb000000, IRQ 28, node addr d8:d3:85:bd:23:08 [ 2.482556] bnx2x 0000:02:00.1: eth1: Broadcom NetXtreme II BCM57711E XGb (A0) PCI-E x4 5GHz (Gen2) found at mem fa000000, IRQ 40, node addr d8:d3:85:bd:23:0c [ADDED 2] ethtool -k eth0 Offload parameters for eth0: rx-checksumming: on tx-checksumming: on scatter-gather: on tcp-segmentation-offload: on udp-fragmentation-offload: off generic-segmentation-offload: on generic-receive-offload: on large-receive-offload: on rx-vlan-offload: on tx-vlan-offload: on ntuple-filters: off receive-hashing: off [ADDED 3] sudo ethtool -S eth0|grep -vw 0 NIC statistics: [1]: rx_bytes: 17521104292 [1]: rx_ucast_packets: 118326392 [1]: tx_bytes: 35351475694 [1]: tx_ucast_packets: 191723897 [2]: rx_bytes: 16569945203 [2]: rx_ucast_packets: 114055437 [2]: tx_bytes: 36748975961 [2]: tx_ucast_packets: 194800859 [3]: rx_bytes: 16222309010 [3]: rx_ucast_packets: 109397802 [3]: tx_bytes: 36034786682 [3]: tx_ucast_packets: 198238209 [4]: rx_bytes: 14884911384 [4]: rx_ucast_packets: 104081414 [4]: rx_discards: 5828 [4]: rx_csum_offload_errors: 1 [4]: tx_bytes: 35663361789 [4]: tx_ucast_packets: 194024824 [5]: rx_bytes: 16465075461 [5]: rx_ucast_packets: 110637200 [5]: tx_bytes: 43720432434 [5]: tx_ucast_packets: 202041894 [6]: rx_bytes: 16788706505 [6]: rx_ucast_packets: 113123182 [6]: tx_bytes: 38443961940 [6]: tx_ucast_packets: 202415075 [7]: rx_bytes: 16287423304 [7]: rx_ucast_packets: 110369475 [7]: rx_csum_offload_errors: 1 [7]: tx_bytes: 35104168638 [7]: tx_ucast_packets: 184905201 [8]: rx_bytes: 12689721791 [8]: rx_ucast_packets: 87616037 [8]: rx_discards: 2638 [8]: tx_bytes: 36133395431 [8]: tx_ucast_packets: 196547264 [9]: rx_bytes: 15007548011 [9]: rx_ucast_packets: 98183525 [9]: rx_csum_offload_errors: 1 [9]: tx_bytes: 34871314517 [9]: tx_ucast_packets: 188532637 [9]: tx_mcast_packets: 12 [10]: rx_bytes: 12112044826 [10]: rx_ucast_packets: 84335465 [10]: rx_discards: 2494 [10]: tx_bytes: 36562151913 [10]: tx_ucast_packets: 195658548 [11]: rx_bytes: 12873153712 [11]: rx_ucast_packets: 89305791 [11]: rx_discards: 2990 [11]: tx_bytes: 36348541675 [11]: tx_ucast_packets: 194155226 [12]: rx_bytes: 12768100958 [12]: rx_ucast_packets: 89350917 [12]: rx_discards: 2667 [12]: tx_bytes: 35730240389 [12]: tx_ucast_packets: 192254480 [13]: rx_bytes: 14533227468 [13]: rx_ucast_packets: 98139795 [13]: tx_bytes: 35954232494 [13]: tx_ucast_packets: 194573612 [13]: tx_bcast_packets: 2 [14]: rx_bytes: 13258647069 [14]: rx_ucast_packets: 92856762 [14]: rx_discards: 3509 [14]: rx_csum_offload_errors: 1 [14]: tx_bytes: 35663586641 [14]: tx_ucast_packets: 189661305 rx_bytes: 226125043936 rx_ucast_packets: 1536428109 rx_bcast_packets: 351 rx_discards: 20126 rx_filtered_packets: 8694 rx_csum_offload_errors: 11 tx_bytes: 548442367057 tx_ucast_packets: 2915571846 tx_mcast_packets: 12 tx_bcast_packets: 2 tx_64_byte_packets: 35417154 tx_65_to_127_byte_packets: 2006984660 tx_128_to_255_byte_packets: 373733514 tx_256_to_511_byte_packets: 378121090 tx_512_to_1023_byte_packets: 77643490 tx_1024_to_1522_byte_packets: 43669214 tx_pause_frames: 228 Some info about SACK: When to turn TCP SACK off?

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• Active Directory Time Synchronisation - Time-Service Event ID 50

  - by George

  I have an Active Directory domain with two DCs. The first DC in the forest/domain is Server 2012, the second is 2008 R2. The first DC holds the PDC Emulator role. I sporadically receive a warning from the Time-Service source, event ID 50: The time service detected a time difference of greater than %1 milliseconds for %2 seconds. The time difference might be caused by synchronization with low-accuracy time sources or by suboptimal network conditions. The time service is no longer synchronized and cannot provide the time to other clients or update the system clock. When a valid time stamp is received from a time service provider, the time service will correct itself. Time sync in the domain is configured with the second DC to synchronise using the /syncfromflags:DOMHIER flag. The first DC is configured to sync time using a /syncfromflags:MANUAL /reliable:YES, from a peerlist consisting of a number of UK based stratum 2 servers, such as ntp2d.mcc.ac.uk. I'm confused why I receive this event warning. It implies that my PDC emulator cannot synchronise time with a supposedly reliable external time source, and it quotes a time difference of 5 seconds for 900 seconds. It's worth also mentioning that I used to use a UK pool from ntp.org but I would receive the warning much more often. Since updating to a number of UK based academic time servers, it seems to be more reliable. Can someone with more experience shed some light on this - perhaps it is purely transient? Should I disregard the warning? Is my configuration sound? EDIT: I should add that the DCs are virtual, and installed on two separate VMware ESXi/vSphere physical hosts. I can also confirm that as per MDMarra's comment and best practice, VMware timesync is disabled, since: c:\Program Files\VMware\VMware Tools\VMwareToolboxCmd.exe timesync status returns Disabled. EDIT 2 Some strange new issue has cropped up. I've noticed a pattern. Originally, the event ID 50 warnings would occur at about 1230pm each day. This is interesting since our veeam backup happens at 12 midday. Since I made the changes discussed here, I now receive an event ID 51 instead of 50. The new warning says that: The time sample received from peer server.ac.uk differs from the local time by -40 seconds (Or approximately 40 seconds). This has happened two days in a row. Now I'm even more confused. Obviously the time never updates until I manually intervene. The issue seems to be related to virtualisation and veeam. Something may be occuring when veeam is backing up the PDCe. Any suggestions? UPDATE & SUMMARY msemack's excellent list of resources below (the accepted answer) provided enough information to correctly configure the time service in the domain. This should be the first port of call for any future people looking to verify their configuration. The final "40 second jump" issue I have resolved (there are no more warnings) through adjusting the VMware time sync settings as noted in the veeam knowledge base article here: http://www.veeam.com/kb1202 In any case, should any future reader use ESXi, veeam or not, the resources here are an excellent source of information on the time sync topic and msemack's answer is particularly invaluable.

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• Why would a PCI scan fail because of components that are not even installed?

  - by Brandon

  Recently a PCI scan was run against a web server and the result was a failure. Some of the issues could be fixed, however others simply make no sense to me. The machine was a clean install, there are only two things running, the .NET 3.5 website and the dotDefender web application firewall. However there are several errors similar to: Web server vulnerability Impact: /servlet/SessionServlet: JRun or Netware WebSphere default servlet found. All default code should be removed from servers. Risk Factor: Medium/ CVSS2 Base Score: 6.4 CVE: CVE-2000-0539 I'm not sure what this is, but I can't find anything on the server that looks anything like this. Web server vulnerability Impact: /some.php?=PHPE9568F35- D428-11d2-A769-00AA001ACF42: PHP reveals potentially sensitive information via certain HTTP requests that contain specific QUERY strings. Risk Factor: Medium/ CVSS2 Base Score: 5.0 PHP is not installed. Trying to add that query string to any page does nothing because the application ignores it. And doing that phpVersion check results in a 404. Similar to this, there are dozens of errors related to JSP and Oracle that are also not installed. Web server vulnerability Impact: /admin/database/wwForum.mdb: Web Wiz Forums pre 7.5 is vulnerable to Cross-Site Scripting attacks. Default login/pass is Administrator/letmein Risk Factor: Medium/ CVSS2 Base Score: 4.0 There are several errors like this, telling me that Web Wiz Forums, Alan Ward A-Cart 2.0, IlohaMail, etc. are all vulnerable. These are not installed or referenced anywhere I can find. There are even references to pages that simply don't exist, like OpenAutoClassifieds. Can anyone point me in the right direction as to why these errors are showing up or where I might look to find these components if they are in fact installed? Note: This website and server are for a subdomain of the main website. The main website runs on a server that is running Apache/PHP, but I don't have access to that server. The report says the subdomain was the site being scanned, but is it possible for it to have scanned the main site as well?

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• Coldfusion 8 Application Crashes Under Heavy Load

  - by KM01

  Hello, We have a CF8 app that runs for 20-25 minutes before crashing under heavy load ~ 1200 users. This load is generated by our load testing tool: 1200 users ramped up in 5 mins (approx behavior of our users), running for an hour. We have this app on Solaris 10, Apache 2, JRun 4 and Oracle 10g. Java version is 1.6. During the initial load tests, the thread dumps pointed to monitor deadlocks that pointed to sessions. "jrpp-173": waiting to lock monitor 0x019fdc60 (object 0x6b893530, a java.util.Hashtable), which is held by "scheduler-1" "scheduler-1": waiting to lock monitor 0x026c3ce0 (object 0x6abe2f20, a coldfusion.monitor.memory.SessionMemoryMonitor$TopMemoryUsedSessions), which is held by "jrpp-167" "jrpp-167": waiting to lock monitor 0x019fdc60 (object 0x6b893530, a java.util.Hashtable), which is held by "scheduler-1" We increased the number of sessions relative to the number of CPUs (48 simultaneous threads against 32 CPUs), and the deadlock went away. While varying the simultaneous threads helped a little bit in terms of response time, the CF server still tanked in 20-25 minutes during all of these tests. We ran more thread dumps, and saw a thread locking a monitor, for e.g.: "jrpp-475" prio=3 tid=0x02230800 nid=0x2c5 runnable [0x4397d000] java.lang.Thread.State: RUNNABLE at java.util.HashMap.getEntry(HashMap.java:347) at java.util.HashMap.containsKey(HashMap.java:335) at java.util.HashSet.contains(HashSet.java:184) at coldfusion.monitor.memory.MemoryTracker.onAddObject(MemoryTracker.java:124) at coldfusion.monitor.memory.MemoryTrackerProxy.onReplaceValue(MemoryTrackerProxy.java:598) at coldfusion.monitor.memory.MemoryTrackerProxy.onPut(MemoryTrackerProxy.java:510) at coldfusion.util.CaseInsensitiveMap.put(CaseInsensitiveMap.java:250) at coldfusion.util.FastHashtable.put(FastHashtable.java:43) - locked <0x6f7e1a78> (a coldfusion.runtime.Struct) at coldfusion.runtime.CfJspPage._arrayset(CfJspPage.java:1027) at coldfusion.runtime.CfJspPage._arraySetAt(CfJspPage.java:2117) at cfvalidation2ecfc1052964961$funcSETUSERAUDITDATA.runFunction(/app/docs/apply/cfcs/validation.cfc:377) As you see in the last line above there were several references CFMs and CFCs, and the lines have "cflock" tags, which were scoped to the "application." We (the dev team) then changed them to be scoped to a "name". After more load tests, there is no locking going on and there no deadlocks, but now the application tanks in 7-10 minutes. We've gotten system, network and DB reports from the respective admins, and they are not being taxed; even watched the server stats with server monitor, top, prstat, ran sar reports, etc. So we believe it is an issue with the CF server or maybe the JVM. I am running out of ideas as to what else we can try. Disclaimer: I am not a CF developer or Admin. I am just running the load test, analyzing the reports, threads etc, and sharing the results with the dev and admin teams, and trying the next change, and so on. So far no dice. Has anyone run into something similar? How did you go about diagnosing and troubleshooting? All thoughts and pointers welcome. Thank you for your time! KM

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• Symantec Protection Suite and System Recovery 2011 Desktop Edition

  - by rihatum

  I am re-posting this as my previous question was being treated as if I am "Shopping or seeking Product Recommendations" even though I was NOT - BTW they have deleted my comments too which were not offensive in nature. anyway - I have re-phrased some parts of my question and I hope SF Admins "Do Not Modify / Edit" this one - will be most grateful for that. I have a lot of respect for the People who visit this SITE and help others ! Just To clarify : Just to go by SF rules - I am not seeking someone to Design this solution, I am simply seeking real world examples, experiences, technical expert opinions / suggestions, any tips or tricks they may have or any problems they may have faced while doing something similar above with these products. I am also not asking for Capacity Planning for Storage, We have done some research and I am seeking Expert Assurance / Suggestions. We (our company) are planning to deploy Symantec Endpoint Protection and Symantec Desktop Recovery 2011 Desktop Edition to our 3000 - 4000 workstations (Windows7 32 and 64) with a few 100s with Windows XP 32/64 Bit. I have read the implementation guide for SEP and have read tech-notes for Desktop Recovery 2011. Our team have planned to deploy this as follows : 1 x dedicated SQL 2008R2 for Symantec Endpoint Protection (Instead of using the Embedded Database) 1 x Dedicated SQL 2008R2 for Symantec Desktop Recovery 2011 (Instead of using the Embedded Database) 1 x Dedicated W2K8 R2 Box for the SEPM (Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager - Mgmt. APP) 1 x Dedicated W2K8 R2 Box for the Symantec Desktop Recovery 2011 Management Application Agent Deployment : As per Symantec Documentation for both of the above, an agent can be pushed via the Mgmt. Application (provided no firewalls are blocking ports required etc. - we have Windows firewall disabled already). Server Hardware : Per SQL Server : 16GB RAM + SAS DISKS + Dual XEON, RAID-10 for the SQL DB or I can always mount a LUN from our existing Hitachi or EMC SAN. SEPM Server : 16GB RAM + SAS DISKS + DUAL XEON System Recovery MGMT SERVER : 16GB RAM + SAS DISKS + DUAL XEON Above is the initial plan we have for 3000 - 4000 client workstation (Windows) Now my Questions :-) a) If we had these users distributed amongst two sites with AD DC / GC in each site, How would I restrict SEPM and Desktop Mgmt. solution to only check for users in their respective site ? b) At present all users are under one building but we are going to move some dept. to a new location (with dedicated connectivity), How would we control which SEPM / MGMT Server is responsible for which site ? c) We have netbackup in our environment backing up other servers, I am planning to protect these 4 (2 x SQL, 1 x SEPM, 1 x System Recovery Mgmt. Server) via netbackup or I can use System recovery 2011 server edition on all 4 of these boxes as well. (License is not an issue as we have the complete symantec portfolio included in our license). d) Now - Saving Desktop backups - What strategies have you implemented ? Any best practice recommendation for a large user base ? I was thinking to either mount a LUN from our Hitachi SAN on the Symantec Recovery Server itself or backup to the users hard drive locally and then copy it over to a network location ? Suggestions welcome :-) If you have anything to add / correct - that will be really helpful before diving into the actual implementation phase. Will be most grateful with your suggestions, recommendations and corrections with above - Many Thanks !

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• How to tune system settings for mongoDB on Linux?

  - by jsh

  Trying to squeeze a lot out of one question here -- please bear with me. Although the MongoDB man pages make several useful recommendations about system settings like ulimit (http://docs.mongodb.org/manual/reference/ulimit/), and other production factors (http://docs.mongodb.org/manual/administration/production-notes/) they seem mysteriously silent on things like virtual memory and swap settings. The closest we get to a hint is that "...the operating system’s virtual memory subsystem manages MongoDB’s memory..." (http://docs.mongodb.org/manual/faq/fundamentals/#does-mongodb-require-a-lot-of-ram). Running the same job - high writes and high reads on about 10,000,000 records in a single collection -- on my 4-processor, 4GB RAM macbook and an 8-core ubuntu box with 64GB RAM I saw dramatically WORSE read performance on the linux box with factory settings, and could hear the disk constantly spinning, indicating high I/O and presumably swapping. Yes, other things were happening on the box, but there was plenty of free RAM, disk space, etc.; furthermore, I did not see evidence that Mongo was expanding to take advantage of all that free RAM as it is touted to do. Linux box default settings were as follows: vm.swappiness =60 vm.dirty_background_ratio = 10 vm.dirty_ratio = 20 vm.dirty_expire_centisecs =3000 vm.dirty_writeback_centisecs=500 I hazarded some guesses looking at docs and blogs for other types of databases (Oracle, MYSQL, etc.), experimented, and adjusted as below. vm.swappiness=10 vm.dirty_background_ratio=5 vm.dirty_ratio=5 vm.dirty_writeback_centisecs=250 vm.dirty_expire_centisecs=500 I saw some immediate apparent improvements in read time. However, when I ran my test jobs again, read performance continued to be painfully sluggish during heavy writes. Then, I REBUILT the collection from an available data source - and suddenly I can read at 1ms or less per record WHILE doing the write job! So the question is really two-fold: 1) What are appropriate VM settings for MongoDB on Linux? 2) (bonus) Does Mongo do some checking or optimization with the OS while data is being built? In other words, if I have built a large data set with suboptimal VM or I/O settings, does Mongo make assumptions during the memory-mapping process that will fail to take advantage of optimizations down the road? Obviously I don't fully grok memory mapping under the hood (I was hoping I wouldn't have to). Any help appreciated...thanks! -j

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• What happens to missed writes after a zpool clear?

  - by Kevin

  I am trying to understand ZFS' behaviour under a specific condition, but the documentation is not very explicit about this so I'm left guessing. Suppose we have a zpool with redundancy. Take the following sequence of events: A problem arises in the connection between device D and the server. This causes a large number of failures and ZFS therefore faults the device, putting the pool in degraded state. While the pool is in degraded state, the pool is mutated (data is written and/or changed.) The connectivity issue is physically repaired such that device D is reliable again. Knowing that most data on D is valid, and not wanting to stress the pool with a resilver needlessly, the admin instead runs zpool clear pool D. This is indicated by Oracle's documentation as the appropriate action where the fault was due to a transient problem that has been corrected. I've read that zpool clear only clears the error counter, and restores the device to online status. However, this is a bit troubling, because if that's all it does, it will leave the pool in an inconsistent state! This is because mutations in step 2 will not have been successfully written to D. Instead, D will reflect the state of the pool prior to the connectivity failure. This is of course not the normative state for a zpool and could lead to hard data loss upon failure of another device - however, the pool status will not reflect this issue! I would at least assume based on ZFS' robust integrity mechanisms that an attempt to read the mutated data from D would catch the mistakes and repair them. However, this raises two problems: Reads are not guaranteed to hit all mutations unless a scrub is done; and Once ZFS does hit the mutated data, it (I'm guessing) might fault the drive again because it would appear to ZFS to be corrupting data, since it doesn't remember the previous write failures. Theoretically, ZFS could circumvent this problem by keeping track of mutations that occur during a degraded state, and writing them back to D when it's cleared. For some reason I suspect that's not what happens, though. I'm hoping someone with intimate knowledge of ZFS can shed some light on this aspect.

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• Weight doesn't work in a custom android component

  - by RCB

  I wanted to create a custom bottom button bar layout, I've created a xml file : <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" style="@android:style/ButtonBar" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="horizontal" android:padding="0dp" > <Button android:id="@+id/media_menu_button" style="?android:attr/buttonStyleSmall" android:layout_width="0dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_margin="0dp" android:layout_weight="1" android:text="@string/media_menu_button" /> <Button android:id="@+id/scenario_menu_button" style="?android:attr/buttonStyleSmall" android:layout_width="0dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_margin="0dp" android:layout_weight="1" android:text="@string/scenario_menu_button" /> <Button android:id="@+id/rooms_menu_button" style="?android:attr/buttonStyleSmall" android:layout_width="0dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_margin="0dp" android:layout_weight="1" android:text="@string/rooms_menu_button" /> <Button android:id="@+id/shortcut_menu_button" style="?android:attr/buttonStyleSmall" android:layout_width="0dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_margin="0dp" android:layout_weight="1" android:text="@string/shortcut_menu_button" /> as you can see I've given all the buttons width 0dp and weight of 1. then, I've created a class that extends the linear layout class : public class BeLightBottomBar extends LinearLayout implements OnClickListener { private LayoutInflater mInflater; private Context contexnt; private Button mShortcutMenuButton; private Button mRoomsMenuButton; private Button mScenarioMenuButton; private Button mMediaMenuButton; public BeLightBottomBar(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); //inflate the view this.contexnt = context; mInflater = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); LinearLayout barView = (LinearLayout) mInflater.inflate(R.layout.belight_bottombar, null); addView(barView); //get all the instances of the components of the bar mShortcutMenuButton = (Button) barView.findViewById(R.id.shortcut_menu_button); mRoomsMenuButton = (Button) barView.findViewById(R.id.rooms_menu_button); mScenarioMenuButton = (Button) barView.findViewById(R.id.scenario_menu_button); mMediaMenuButton = (Button) barView.findViewById(R.id.media_menu_button); //set this as a click listener mShortcutMenuButton.setOnClickListener(this); mRoomsMenuButton.setOnClickListener(this); mScenarioMenuButton.setOnClickListener(this); mMediaMenuButton.setOnClickListener(this); ... ... ... } the problem is when i add this class to the main activity xml <belight.homecontrol.components.BeLightBottomBar android:id="@+id/button_bar" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:layout_margin="0dp" android:padding="0dp" /> the weight stops working, all the buttons are different. and I don't know why !? if I just copy paste the bottom's bar xml code to the main xml file it works fine, the problem only occurs when using it as a whole. P.S. Is it a good practice to create a component this way? Or maybe I'm doing something wrong? Thanks, Dan

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• after return PartialView() Url.Actionlink("Action", "Controller"), the Controller is lost

  - by Johannes

  Well the Question is related to a problem I posted before (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2403899/asp-net-mvc-partial-view-does-not-call-my-action). In practice I've a partial view which contains a Form, after submitting the Form the Controller returns the Partial View. Well the Problem is if I reload the page which contains the partial view the function <%= Url.Action("ChangePassword", "Account") %> returns "Account/ChangePassword", if I submit the form and the partial is returned by the controller. Using return PartialView() the function <%= Url.Action("ChangePassword", "Account") %> returns only "ChangePassword". Any Idea because? The View looks like: <form action="<%= Url.Action("ChangePassword", "Account") %>" method="post" id="jform"> <div> <fieldset> <legend>Account Information</legend> <p> <label for="currentPassword">Current password:</label> <%= Html.Password("currentPassword") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("currentPassword") %> </p> <p> <label for="newPassword">New password:</label> <%= Html.Password("newPassword") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("newPassword") %> </p> <p> <label for="confirmPassword">Confirm new password:</label> <%= Html.Password("confirmPassword") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirmPassword") %> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Change Password" /> </p> </fieldset> </div> </form> </div> <script> $(function() { $('#jform').submit(function() { $('#jform').ajaxSubmit({ target: '#FmChangePassword' }); return false; }); }); </script> Part of the Controller: if (!ValidateChangePassword(currentPassword, newPassword, confirmPassword)) { return PartialView(ViewData); }

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• Very slow compile times on Visual Studio

  - by johnc

  We are getting very slow compile times, which can take upwards of 20+ minutes on dual core 2GHz, 2G Ram machines. A lot of this is due to the size of our solution which has grown to 70+ projects, as well as VSS which is a bottle neck in itself when you have a lot of files. (swapping out VSS is not an option unfortunately, so I don't want this to descend into a VSS bash) We are looking at combing projects (not nice, as we like the separation of concerns, but is a good opportunity to refactor away some dead wood). We are also looking at having multiple solutions to achieve greater separation of concerns and quicker compile times for each element of the application. This I can see will become a dll hell as we try to keep things in synch. I am interested to know how other teams have dealt with this scaling issue, what do you do when your code base reaches a critical mass that you are wasting half the day watching the status bar deliver compile messages UPDATE Apologies, I neglected to mention this is a C# solution. Thanks for all the cpp suggestions, but it's been a few years since I've had to worry about headers. At a distance I say I miss C++, but I'm not sure I want to go back EDIT: Nice suggestions that have helped so far (not saying there aren't other nice suggestions below, just what has helped) New 3GHz laptop - the power of lost utilization works wonders when whinging to management Disable Anti Virus during compile 'Disconnecting' from VSS (actually the network) during compile - I may get us to remove VS-VSS integration altogether and stick to using the VSS UI Still not rip-snorting through a compile, but every bit helps. Orion did mention in a comment that generics may have a play also. From my tests there does appear to be a minimal performance hit, but not high enough to sure - compile times can be inconsistent due to disc activity. Due to time limitations, my tests didn't include as many Generics, or as much code, as would appear in live system, so that may accumulate. I wouldn't avoid using generics where they are supposed to be used, just for compile time performance WORKAROUND We are testing the practice of building new areas of the application in new solutions, importing in the latest dlls as required, them integrating them into the larger solution when we are happy with them. We may also do them same to existing code by creating temporary solutions that just encapsulate the areas we need to work on, and throwing them away after reintegrating the code. We need to weigh up the time it will take to reintegrate this code against the time we gain by not having Rip Van Winkle like experiences with rapid recompiling during development.

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• TFS and shared projects in multiple solutions

  - by David Stratton

  Our .NET team works on projects for our company that fall into distinct categories. Some are internal web apps, some are external (publicly facing) web apps, we also have internal Windows applications for our corporate office users, and Windows Forms apps for our retail locations (stores). Of course, because we hate code reuse, we have a ton of code that is shared among the different applications. Currently we're using SVN as our source control, and we've got our repository laid out like this: - = folder, | = Visual Studio Solution -SVN - Internet | Ourcompany.com | Oursecondcompany.com - Intranet | UniformOrdering website | MessageCenter website - Shared | ErrorLoggingModule | RegularExpressionGenerator | Anti-Xss | OrgChartModule etc... So.. The OurCompany.com solution in the Internet folder would have a website project, and it would also include the ErrorLoggingModule, RegularExpressionGenerator, and Anti-Xss projects from the shared directory. Similarly, our UniformOrdering website solution would have each of these projects included in the solution as well. We prefer to have a project reference to a .dll reference because, first of all, if we need to add or fix a function in the ErrorLoggingModule while working on the OurCompany.com website, it's right there. Also, this allows us to build each solution and see if changes to shared code break any other applications. This should work well on a build server as well if I'm correct. In SVN, there is no problem with this. SVN and Visual Studio aren't tied together in the way TFS's source control is. We never figured out how to work this type of structure in TFS when we were using it, because in TFS, the TFS project was always tied to a Visual Studio Solution. The Source Code repository was a child of the TFS Project, so if we wanted to do this, we had to duplicate the Shared code in each TFS project's source code repository. As my co-worker put it, this "breaks every known best practice about code reuse and simplicity". It was enough of a deal breaker for us that we switched to SVN. Now, however, we're faced with truly fixing our development processes, and the Application Lifecycle Management of TFS is pretty close to exactly what we want, and how we want to work. Our one sticking point is the shared code issue. We're evaluating other commercial and open source solutions, but since we're already paying for TFS with our MSDN Subscriptions, and TFS is pretty much exactly what we want, we'd REALLY like to find a way around this issue. Has anybody else faced this and come up with a solution? If you've seen an article or posting on this that you can share with me, that would help as well. As always, I'm open to answers like "You're looking at it all wrong, bonehead, HERE'S the way it SHOULD be done.

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• How to support both HTTP and HTTPS channels in Flex/BlazeDS?

  - by digitalsanctum

  I've been trying to find the right configuration for supporting both http/s requests in a Flex app. I've read all the docs and they allude to doing something like the following: <default-channels> <channel ref="my-secure-amf"> <serialization> <log-property-errors>true</log-property-errors> </serialization> </channel> <channel ref="my-amf"> <serialization> <log-property-errors>true</log-property-errors> </serialization> </channel> This works great when hitting the app via https but get intermittent communication failures when hitting the same app via http. Here's an abbreviated services-config.xml: <channel-definition id="my-amf" class="mx.messaging.channels.AMFChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/messagebroker/amf" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.AMFEndpoint"/> <properties> <!-- HTTPS requests don't work on IE when pragma "no-cache" headers are set so you need to set the add-no-cache-headers property to false --> <add-no-cache-headers>false</add-no-cache-headers> <!-- Use to limit the client channel's connect attempt to the specified time interval. --> <connect-timeout-seconds>10</connect-timeout-seconds> </properties> </channel-definition> <channel-definition id="my-secure-amf" class="mx.messaging.channels.SecureAMFChannel"> <!--<endpoint url="https://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/messagebroker/amfsecure" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.SecureAMFEndpoint"/>--> <endpoint url="https://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/messagebroker/amfsecure" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.AMFEndpoint"/> <properties> <add-no-cache-headers>false</add-no-cache-headers> <connect-timeout-seconds>10</connect-timeout-seconds> </properties> </channel-definition> I'm running with Tomcat 5.5.17 and Java 5. The BlazeDS docs say this is the best practice. Is there a better way? With this config, there seems to be 2-3 retries associated with each channel defined in the default-channels element so it always takes ~20s before the my-amf channel connects via a http request. Is there a way to override the 2-3 retries to say, 1 retry for each channel? Thanks in advance for answers.

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• JLabel animation in JPanel

  - by Trizicus

  After scratching around I found that it's best to implement a custom image component by extending a JLabel. So far that has worked great as I can add multiple "images" (jlabels without the layout breaking. I just have a question that I hope someone can answer for me. I noticed that in order to animate JLabels across the screen I need to setlayout(null); and setbounds of the component and then to animate eventually setlocation(x,y);. Is this a best practice or a terrible way to animate a component? I plan on eventually making an animation class but I don't want to do so and end up having to chuck it. I have included relevant code for a quick review check. import java.awt.Color; import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.Graphics2D; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.Timer; public class GraphicsPanel extends JPanel { private Timer timer; private long startTime = 0; private int numFrames = 0; private float fps = 0.0f; private int x = 0; GraphicsPanel() { final Entity ent1 = new Entity(); ent1.setBounds(x, 0, ent1.getWidth(), ent1.getHeight()); add(ent1); //ESSENTIAL setLayout(null); //GAMELOOP timer = new Timer(30, new ActionListener() { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { getFPS(); incX(); ent1.setLocation(x, 0); repaint(); } }); timer.start(); } public void incX() { x++; } @Override public void paintComponent(Graphics g) { super.paintComponent(g); Graphics2D g2 = (Graphics2D) g.create(); g2.setClip(0, 0, getWidth(), getHeight()); g2.setColor(Color.BLACK); g2.drawString("FPS: " + fps, 1, 15); } public void getFPS() { ++numFrames; if (startTime == 0) { startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); } else { long currentTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); long delta = (currentTime - startTime); if (delta > 1000) { fps = (numFrames * 1000) / delta; numFrames = 0; startTime = currentTime; } } } } Thank you!

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• Seam conversation ending suddenly when using Redirect

  - by Markos Fragkakis

  Hi all, Because I get some errors on conversations ending abruptly, I created in my project some test pages that reproduce the issue. The navigation takes place between pageA.xhtml and pageB.xhtml. Please tell me if I am using something in the wrong way. My configuration: Seam 2.2.0.GA WebLogic 10.3.2 (11g) Richfaces 3.3.2 JSF 1.2 Note: the same happens when using annotations to begin / end conversations ======= PAGE A @Name("pageaAction") public class PageaAction { @Out(required = false, scope = ScopeType.CONVERSATION) Person person; public String rule3() { person = new Person(); person.setEmail("[email protected]"); person.setName("markos"); return "rule3"; } } <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <page> <navigation> <rule if-outcome="rule3"> <begin-conversation /> <redirect view-id="/pages/seam_sandbox/pageb.xhtml" /> </rule> </navigation> </page> ... <h:commandButton action="#{pageaAction.rule3()}" value="h:commandButton" /><br/> ... ======= PAGE B @Name("pagebAction") public class PagebAction { @In(required = false, scope = ScopeType.CONVERSATION) Person person; public String redirectA() { return "redirectA"; } } <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <page> <navigation> <rule if-outcome="redirectA"> <end-conversation before-redirect="true" /> <redirect view-id="/pages/seam_sandbox/pagea.xhtml" /> </rule> </navigation> </page> ... <h:commandButton action="#{pagebAction.redirectA()}" value="h:commandButton" /> ... ========== EXCEPTION: This happens after a random number of redirects. javax.faces.FacesException: {pagebAction.redirectA()}: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No conversation context active at com.sun.faces.application.ActionListenerImpl.processAction(ActionListenerImpl.java:118) at javax.faces.component.UICommand.broadcast(UICommand.java:387) at org.ajax4jsf.component.AjaxViewRoot.processEvents(AjaxViewRoot.java:324) at org.ajax4jsf.component.AjaxViewRoot.broadcastEvents(AjaxViewRoot.java:299) at org.ajax4jsf.component.AjaxViewRoot.processPhase(AjaxViewRoot.java:256) at org.ajax4jsf.component.AjaxViewRoot.processApplication(AjaxViewRoot.java:469) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.InvokeApplicationPhase.execute(InvokeApplicationPhase.java:82) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.Phase.doPhase(Phase.java:100) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.execute(LifecycleImpl.java:118) at javax.faces.webapp.FacesServlet.service(FacesServlet.java:265) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper$ServletServiceAction.run(StubSecurityHelper.java:227) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper.invokeServlet(StubSecurityHelper.java:125) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:292) at weblogic.servlet.internal.TailFilter.doFilter(TailFilter.java:26) at weblogic.servlet.internal.FilterChainImpl.doFilter(FilterChainImpl.java:56) at org.ajax4jsf.webapp.BaseFilter.doFilter(BaseFilter.java:530) at weblogic.servlet.internal.FilterChainImpl.doFilter(FilterChainImpl.java:56) at org.jboss.seam.servlet.SeamFilter$FilterChainImpl.doFilter(SeamFilter.java:83) at org.jboss.seam.web.IdentityFilter.doFilter(IdentityFilter.java:40) at org.jboss.seam.servlet.SeamFilter$FilterChainImpl.doFilter(SeamFilter.java:69) at org.jboss.seam.web.MultipartFilter.doFilter(MultipartFilter.java:90) at org.jboss.seam.servlet.SeamFilter$FilterChainImpl.doFilter(SeamFilter.java:69) at org.jboss.seam.web.ExceptionFilter.doFilter(ExceptionFilter.java:64) at org.jboss.seam.servlet.SeamFilter$FilterChainImpl.doFilter(SeamFilter.java:69) at org.jboss.seam.web.RedirectFilter.doFilter(RedirectFilter.java:45) at org.jboss.seam.servlet.SeamFilter$FilterChainImpl.doFilter(SeamFilter.java:69) at org.ajax4jsf.webapp.BaseXMLFilter.doXmlFilter(BaseXMLFilter.java:178) at org.ajax4jsf.webapp.BaseFilter.handleRequest(BaseFilter.java:290) at org.ajax4jsf.webapp.BaseFilter.processUploadsAndHandleRequest(BaseFilter.java:388) at org.ajax4jsf.webapp.BaseFilter.doFilter(BaseFilter.java:515) at org.jboss.seam.web.Ajax4jsfFilter.doFilter(Ajax4jsfFilter.java:56) at org.jboss.seam.servlet.SeamFilter$FilterChainImpl.doFilter(SeamFilter.java:69) at org.jboss.seam.web.LoggingFilter.doFilter(LoggingFilter.java:60) at org.jboss.seam.servlet.SeamFilter$FilterChainImpl.doFilter(SeamFilter.java:69) at org.jboss.seam.servlet.SeamFilter.doFilter(SeamFilter.java:158) at weblogic.servlet.internal.FilterChainImpl.doFilter(FilterChainImpl.java:56) at weblogic.servlet.internal.RequestEventsFilter.doFilter(RequestEventsFilter.java:27) at weblogic.servlet.internal.FilterChainImpl.doFilter(FilterChainImpl.java:56) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext$ServletInvocationAction.run(WebAppServletContext.java:3592) at weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:321) at weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(SecurityManager.java:121) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.securedExecute(WebAppServletContext.java:2202) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.execute(WebAppServletContext.java:2108) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl.run(ServletRequestImpl.java:1432) at weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) at weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Caused by: javax.faces.el.EvaluationException: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No conversation context active at javax.faces.component.MethodBindingMethodExpressionAdapter.invoke(MethodBindingMethodExpressionAdapter.java:102) at com.sun.faces.application.ActionListenerImpl.processAction(ActionListenerImpl.java:102) ... 45 more Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No conversation context active at org.jboss.seam.ScopeType.getContext(ScopeType.java:133) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getValueToInject(Component.java:2325) at org.jboss.seam.Component.injectAttributes(Component.java:1736) at org.jboss.seam.Component.inject(Component.java:1554) at org.jboss.seam.core.BijectionInterceptor.aroundInvoke(BijectionInterceptor.java:61) at org.jboss.seam.intercept.SeamInvocationContext.proceed(SeamInvocationContext.java:68) at org.jboss.seam.core.ConversationInterceptor.aroundInvoke(ConversationInterceptor.java:65) at org.jboss.seam.intercept.SeamInvocationContext.proceed(SeamInvocationContext.java:68) at org.jboss.seam.core.MethodContextInterceptor.aroundInvoke(MethodContextInterceptor.java:44) at org.jboss.seam.intercept.SeamInvocationContext.proceed(SeamInvocationContext.java:68) at org.jboss.seam.intercept.RootInterceptor.invoke(RootInterceptor.java:107) at org.jboss.seam.intercept.JavaBeanInterceptor.interceptInvocation(JavaBeanInterceptor.java:185) at org.jboss.seam.intercept.JavaBeanInterceptor.invoke(JavaBeanInterceptor.java:103) at eu.emea.pim.prs.web.seamsandbox.PagebAction_$$_javassist_seam_8.redirectA(PagebAction_$$_javassist_seam_8.java) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.jboss.el.util.ReflectionUtil.invokeMethod(ReflectionUtil.java:335) at org.jboss.el.util.ReflectionUtil.invokeMethod(ReflectionUtil.java:280) at org.jboss.el.parser.AstMethodSuffix.getValue(AstMethodSuffix.java:59) at org.jboss.el.parser.AstMethodSuffix.invoke(AstMethodSuffix.java:65) at org.jboss.el.parser.AstValue.invoke(AstValue.java:96) at org.jboss.el.MethodExpressionImpl.invoke(MethodExpressionImpl.java:276) at com.sun.facelets.el.TagMethodExpression.invoke(TagMethodExpression.java:68) at javax.faces.component.MethodBindingMethodExpressionAdapter.invoke(MethodBindingMethodExpressionAdapter.java:88) ... 46 more

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• Pass or Get a value from Parent ViewModel down to Sub-ViewModel?

  - by mkmurray

  I am using the MVVM Light framework as well as Unity for DI. I have some nested Views, each bound to a corresponding ViewModel. The ViewModels are bound to each View's root control DataContext via the ViewModelLocator idea that Laurent Bugnion has put into MVVM Light. This allows for finding ViewModels via a static resource and for controlling the lifetime of ViewModels via a Dependency Injection framework, in this case Unity. It also allows for Expression Blend to see everything in regard to ViewModels and how to bind them. As I stated the Views have a healthy dose of nesting, but the ViewModels don't really know anything about each other. A parent view binds to its corresponding ViewModel via the static resource ViewModelLocator (which uses Unity to control the construction and lifetime of the ViewModel object). That parent view contains a user control in it that is another sub-view, which then goes and gets its corresponding ViewModel via the ViewModelLocator as well. The ViewModels don't have references to each other or know any hierarchy in regard to each other. So here's an example of how the ViewModels do interact via messaging. I've got a parent View that has a ComboBox databound to an ObservableCollection in its ViewModel. The ComboBox's SelectedItem is also bound (two-way) to a property on the ViewModel. When the selection of the ComboBox changes, this is to trigger updates in other Views and sub-Views. Currently I am accomplishing this via the Messaging system that is found in MVVM Light. So I'm wondering what the best practice would be to get information from one ViewModel to another? In this case, what I need to pass down to sub-ViewModels is basically a user Guid representing the currently logged in user. The top-most parent View (well, ViewModel) will know this information, but I'm not sure how to get it down into the sub-ViewModels. Some possible approaches I can think of: Should the sub-ViewModel ask the static resource ViewModelLocator for a reference to the same object the parent View is using and access the property that way? It seems like ViewModels going through each other's properties is not very clean and couples them together unnecessarily. I'm already using messaging to notify the sub-Views that the user selected a new item in the ComboBox and to update accordingly. But the object type that is being selected in the ComboBox is not really directly related to this data value that the sub-Views need.

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• ASP.NET web forms as ASP.NET MVC

  - by lopkiju

  I am sorry for possible misleading about the title, but I have no idea for a proper title. Feel free to edit. Anyway, I am using ASP.NET Web Forms, and maybe this isn't how web forms is intended to be used, but I like to construct and populate HTML elements manually. It gives me more control. I don't use DataBinding and that kind of stuff. I use SqlConnection, SqlCommand and SqlDataReader, set SQL string etc. and read the data from the DataReader. Old school if you like. :) I do create WebControls so that I don't have to copy-paste every time I need some control, but mostly, I need WebControls to render as HTML so I can append that HTML into some other function that renders the final output with the control inside. I know I can render a control with control.RenderControl(writer), but this can only be done in (pre)Render or RenderContents overrides. For example. I have a dal.cs file where is stored all static functions and voids that communicate with the database. Functions mostly return string so that it can be appended into some other function to render the final result. The reason I am doing like this is that I want to separate the coding from the HTML as much as I can so that I don't do <% while (dataReader.Read()) % in HTML and display the data. I moved this into a CodeBehind. I also use this functions to render in the HttpHandler for AJAX response. That works perfectly, but when I want to add a control (ASP.NET Server control (.cs extension, not .ascx)) I don't know how to do that, so I see my self writing the same control as function that returns string or another function inside that control that returns string and replaces a job that would RenderContents do, so that I can call that function when I need control to be appended into a another string. I know this may not be a very good practice. As I see all the tutorials/videos about the ASP.NET MVC, I think it suite my needs as with the MVC you have to construct everything (or most of it) by your self, which I am already doing right now with web forms. After this long intro, I want to ask how can I build my controls so I can use them as I mentioned (return string) or I have to forget about server controls and build the controls as functions and used them that way? Is that even possible with ASP.NET Server Controls (.cs extension) or am I right when I said that I am not using it right. To be clear, I am talking about how to properly use a web forms, but to avoid data binders because I want to construct everything by my self (render HTML in Code Behind). Someone might think that I am appending strings like "some " + "string", which I am not. I am using StringBuilder for that so there's no slowness. Every opinion is welcome.

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• Is MVVM pointless?

  - by joebeazelman

  Is orthodox MVVM implementation pointless? I am creating a new application and I considered Windows Forms and WPF. I chose WPF because it's future-proof and offer lots of flexibility. There is less code and easier to make significant changes to your UI using XAML. Since the choice for WPF is obvious, I figured that I may as well go all the way by using MVVM as my application architecture since it offers blendability, separation concerns and unit testability. Theoretically, it seems beautiful like the holy grail of UI programming. This brief adventure; however, has turned into a real headache. As expected in practice, I’m finding that I’ve traded one problem for another. I tend to be an obsessive programmer in that I want to do things the right way so that I can get the right results and possibly become a better programmer. The MVVM pattern just flunked my test on productivity and has just turned into a big yucky hack! The clear case in point is adding support for a Modal dialog box. The correct way is to put up a dialog box and tie it to a view model. Getting this to work is difficult. In order to benefit from the MVVM pattern, you have to distribute code in several places throughout the layers of your application. You also have to use esoteric programming constructs like templates and lamba expressions. Stuff that makes you stare at the screen scratching your head. This makes maintenance and debugging a nightmare waiting to happen as I recently discovered. I had an about box working fine until I got an exception the second time I invoked it, saying that it couldn’t show the dialog box again once it is closed. I had to add an event handler for the close functionality to the dialog window, another one in the IDialogView implementation of it and finally another in the IDialogViewModel. I thought MVVM would save us from such extravagant hackery! There are several folks out there with competing solutions to this problem and they are all hacks and don’t provide a clean, easily reusable, elegant solution. Most of the MVVM toolkits gloss over dialogs and when they do address them, they are just alert boxes that don’t require custom interfaces or view models. I’m planning on giving up on the MVVM view pattern, at least its orthodox implementation of it. What do you think? Has it been worth the trouble for you if you had any? Am I just a incompetent programmer or does MVVM not what it's hyped up to be?

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• WCF Timeout issue - should there even be a socket connection?

  - by stiank81

  I have a .Net application which is split into a client and server side. The communication between them is handled using WCF. I'm not using the automagic service references, but instead I've built the connection manually like described in the Screencast by Miguel Castro. Summarized this means that I create a console application on the server side that holds ServiceHost objects for the different services: var myServiceHost = new System.ServiceModel.ServiceHost(typeof(MyService), new Uri("net.tcp://localhost:8002")); myServiceHost.Open(); And on the client side I have service proxies creating channels using the ChannelFactory: IMyService proxy = new ChannelFactory<IMyService>("MyServiceEndpoint").CreateChannel(); The client and server side share the service contract defined in the interface IMyService. And another advantage is that I get minimal App.config files - without all the autogenerated stuff created through the Service References. Example from client side: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:8002/MyEndpoint" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="IMyService" name="MyServiceEndpoint"/> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> So - to my problem. I create the proxy once, and it holds a channel all the way through the application. However, if I leave the application without use for a few minutes the channel has timed out, and I get the following exception: The socket connection was aborted. This could be caused by an error processing your message or a receive timeout being exceeded by the remote host, or an underlying network resource issue. Local socket timeout was '00:00:59.9979998'. How do I prevent this? I'm assuming I need to specify a higher timeout in my configuration? But I don't want it to ever time out. But on the other hand - I don't want a socket connection! Do I need one? Thought I could go connection less with WCF... What's the permanent solution and best practice on solving this? Set timeout to "never".. Create a new channel for each request? I'm assuming there is some overhead creating the channel?.. Increase the timeout to e.g. 5minutes and create new channel if the connection did timeout? Make it connection less somehow? (Without the overhead of creating channels..) Something else...

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• When should I use Perl's AUTOLOAD?

  - by Robert S. Barnes

  In "Perl Best Practices" the very first line in the section on AUTOLOAD is: Don't use AUTOLOAD However all the cases he describes are dealing with OO or Modules. I have a stand alone script in which some command line switches control which versions of particular functions get defined. Now I know I could just take the conditionals and the evals and stick them naked at the top of my file before everything else, but I find it convenient and cleaner to put them in AUTOLOAD at the end of the file. Is this bad practice / style? If you think so why, and is there a another way to do it? As per brian's request I'm basically using this to do conditional compilation based on command line switches. I don't mind some constructive criticism. sub AUTOLOAD { our $AUTOLOAD; (my $method = $AUTOLOAD) =~ s/.*:://s; # remove package name if ($method eq 'tcpdump' && $tcpdump) { eval q( sub tcpdump { my $msg = shift; warn gf_time()." Thread ".threads->tid().": $msg\n"; } ); } elsif ($method eq 'loginfo' && $debug) { eval q( sub loginfo { my $msg = shift; $msg =~ s/$CRLF/\n/g; print gf_time()." Thread ".threads->tid().": $msg\n"; } ); } elsif ($method eq 'build_get') { if ($pipelining) { eval q( sub build_get { my $url = shift; my $base = shift; $url = "http://".$url unless $url =~ /^http/; return "GET $url HTTP/1.1${CRLF}Host: $base$CRLF$CRLF"; } ); } else { eval q( sub build_get { my $url = shift; my $base = shift; $url = "http://".$url unless $url =~ /^http/; return "GET $url HTTP/1.1${CRLF}Host: $base${CRLF}Connection: close$CRLF$CRLF"; } ); } } elsif ($method eq 'grow') { eval q{ require Convert::Scalar qw(grow); }; if ($@) { eval q( sub grow {} ); } goto &$method; } else { eval "sub $method {}"; return; } die $@ if $@; goto &$method; }

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• Streaming Video with Blackberry Simulator

  - by Jenny

  So, I wrote a quick little app for the iphone that takes in an http URL, and plays the .mp4 video located at that URL (it does more than that, of course, but that's the meat of it). Naturally, I wanted to have it on more than just a single mobile platform, so I decided to target Blackberry next. However, I'm running into a lot of problems with the Blackberry Environment. First of all, I learn that I can only download 256k files! I learn how to set that variable in my MDS simulator (and learn that this is NOT a production solution, because any end users will have to have their BES or MDS admin change the setting there). Then, I find a video less than 2 MB I can practice with. Going to the browser prompts me to save the video (rather than it playing in the browser like I expected). After saving the video, it refuses to play, saying it's the wrong format. So. I can't find a reference to IF Blackberry can stream with HTTP (i"ve heard it CAN use RTSP, though, and heard some rumors that it can't use HTTP, which would really suck). I also can't find a reference to what format blackberry uses (although I can find a million programs that will convert one file to the 'blackberry' format). Surely SOMEONE must have tried to stream video with the blackberry before. How did they go about doing so? Is it just a hopeless pipedream? Will I have to go with RTSP? Sorry for the lack of a concrete question...I'm just really lost, and I hate how so many tutorials or forum posts seem to assume I know the capabilities of the Blackberry... Edit: I finally found out that the .3gp (which I'd never heard of ) format is what Blackberry uses. Still have no idea how to stream videos off the web, though. I found a tutorial: http://www.blackberry.com/knowledgecenterpublic/livelink.exe/fetch/2000/348583/800332/1089414/How%5FTo%5F-%5FPlay%5Fvideo%5Fwithin%5Fa%5FBlackBerry%5Fsmartphone%5Fapplication.html?nodeid=1383173&vernum=0 That seemed to be useful, but the code doesn't work if you give it a URL (even though it claims it does).

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• How to avoid using duplicate savepoint names in nested transactions in nested stored procs?

  - by Gary McGill

  I have a pattern that I almost always follow, where if I need to wrap up an operation in a transaction, I do this: BEGIN TRANSACTION SAVE TRANSACTION TX -- Stuff IF @error <> 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX COMMIT TRANSACTION That's served me well enough in the past, but after years of using this pattern (and copy-pasting the above code), I've suddenly discovered a flaw which comes as a complete shock. Quite often, I'll have a stored procedure calling other stored procedures, all of which use this same pattern. What I've discovered (to my cost) is that because I'm using the same savepoint name everywhere, I can get into a situation where my outer transaction is partially committed - precisely the opposite of the atomicity that I'm trying to achieve. I've put together an example that exhibits the problem. This is a single batch (no nested stored procs), and so it looks a little odd in that you probably wouldn't use the same savepoint name twice in the same batch, but my real-world scenario would be too confusing to post. CREATE TABLE Test (test INTEGER NOT NULL) BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (1) COMMIT TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (2) COMMIT TRAN TX DELETE FROM Test ROLLBACK TRAN TX COMMIT TRAN TX SELECT * FROM Test DROP TABLE Test When I execute this, it lists one record, with value "1". In other words, even though I rolled back my outer transaction, a record was added to the table. What's happening is that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX at the outer level is rolling back as far as the last SAVE TRANSACTION TX at the inner level. Now that I write this all out, I can see the logic behind it: the server is looking back through the log file, treating it as a linear stream of transactions; it doesn't understand the nesting/hierarchy implied by either the nesting of the transactions (or, in my real-world scenario, by the calls to other stored procedures). So, clearly, I need to start using unique savepoint names instead of blindly using "TX" everywhere. But - and this is where I finally get to the point - is there a way to do this in a copy-pastable way so that I can still use the same code everywhere? Can I auto-generate the savepoint name on the fly somehow? Is there a convention or best-practice for doing this sort of thing? It's not exactly hard to come up with a unique name every time you start a transaction (could base it off the SP name, or somesuch), but I do worry that eventually there would be a conflict - and you wouldn't know about it because rather than causing an error it just silently destroys your data... :-(

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• .NET SerialPort DataReceived event thread interference with main thread

  - by Kiran

  I am writing a serial communication program using the SerialPort class in C# to interact with a strip machine connected via a RS232 cable. When i send the command to the machine it responds with some bytes depending on the command. Like when i send a "\D" command, i am expecting to download the machine program data of 180 bytes as a continous string. As per the machine's manual, it suggests as a best practice to send an unreognized characters like comma (,) character to make sure the machine is initialized before sending the first command in the cycle. My serial communication code is as follows: public class SerialHelper { SerialPort commPort = null; string currentReceived = string.Empty; string receivedStr = string.Empty; private bool CommInitialized() { try { commPort = new SerialPort(); commPort.PortName = "COM1"; if (!commPort.IsOpen) commPort.Open(); commPort.BaudRate = 9600; commPort.Parity = System.IO.Ports.Parity.None; commPort.StopBits = StopBits.One; commPort.DataBits = 8; commPort.RtsEnable = true; commPort.DtrEnable = true; commPort.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(commPort_DataReceived); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { return false; } } void commPort_DataReceived(object sender, SerialDataReceivedEventArgs e) { SerialPort currentPort = (SerialPort)sender; currentReceived = currentPort.ReadExisting(); receivedStr += currentReceived; } internal int CommIO(string outString, int outLen, ref string inBuffer, int inLen) { receivedStr = string.Empty; inBuffer = string.Empty; if (CommInitialized()) { commPort.Write(outString); } System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1500); int i = 0; while ((receivedStr.Length < inLen) && i < 10) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500); i += 1; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(receivedStr)) { inBuffer = receivedStr; } commPort.Close(); return inBuffer.Length; } } I am calling this code from a windows form as follows: len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO(",",1,ref inBuffer, 4) len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO(",",1,ref inBuffer, 4) If(inBuffer == "!?*O") { len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO("\D",2,ref inBuffer, 180) } A valid return value from the serial port looks like this: \D00000010000000000010 550 3250 0000256000 and so on ... I am getting some thing like this: \D00000010D,, 000 550 D,, and so on... I feel that my comm calls are getting interferred with the one when i send commands. But i am trying to make sure the result of the comma command then initiating the actual command. but the received thread is inserting the bytes from the previous communication cycle. Can any one please shed some light into this...? I lost quite some hair just trying to get this work. I am not sure where i am doing wrong

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