Search Results

Search found 68147 results on 2726 pages for 'context sensitive help'.

Page 742/2726 | < Previous Page | 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749  | Next Page >

• Counting character count in Access database column ins SQL

  - by jzr

  Good Evening. My problem is possibly very easy, I just have spent some time researching now and probably have a brain lock and unable to solve this, help would be much appreciated. database structure: col1 col2 col3 col4 ==================== 1233+4566+ABCD+CDEF 1233+4566+ACD1+CDEF 1233+4566+D1AF+CDEF I need to count character count in col3, wanted result in from the previous table would be: char count =========== A 3 B 1 C 2 D 3 F 1 1 2 is this possible to achieve by using SQL only? at the moment I am thinking of passing a parameter in to SQL query and count the characters one by one and then sum, however I did not start the VBA part yet, and frankly wouldn't want to do that. this is my query at the moment: PARAMETERS X Long; SELECT First(Mid(TABLE.col3,X,1)) AS [col3 Field], Count(Mid(TABLE.col3,X,1)) AS Dcount FROM TEST GROUP BY Mid(TABLE.col3,X,1) HAVING (((Count(Mid([TABLE].[col3],[X],1)))>=1)); ideas and help are much appreciated, as being said this is probably very for some of your guys, I don't usually work with access and SQL. Thanks.

  Read the article

• PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer works from Maven command line, but not from Eclipse?

  - by HDave

  I have Eclipse configured to use an external maven instance. Nonetheless I have an integration test that runs fine from the command line, but fails from within Eclipse. The error is a class Spring application context bean error: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type The culprit it a bean that sets property values using a PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer. <!-- property settings for non-JNDI database connections --> <bean id="placeholderConfigUuid" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="systemPropertiesModeName" value="SYSTEM_PROPERTIES_MODE_OVERRIDE" /> <property name="location" value="classpath:database.properties" /> <property name="placeholderPrefix" value="$DS{" /> </bean> I know which bean is failing because it appears in the stack trace and because when I replace the $DS{hibernate.dialect} with a static value it works. I have two questions: 1) Since M2Eclipse is using the same Maven setup as the command line, why does one work and the other fail? 2) How to fix this? I really like the ability to run a single jUnit test from within Eclipse on demand.

  Read the article

• Intelligent search and generation of Java code, preferrably using Python?

  - by Ipsquiggle

  Basically, I do lots of one-off code generation, large-scale refactorings, etc. etc. in Java. My tool language of choice is Python, but I'll take whatever solutions you can offer. Here is a simplified illustration of what I would like, in a pseudocode Generating an implementation for an interface search within my project: for each Interface as iName: write class(name=iName+"Impl", implements=iName) search within the body of iName: for each Method as mName: write method(name=mName, body="// TODO implement this...") Basically, the tool I'm searching for would allow me to: parse files according to their Java structure ("search for interfaces") search for words contextualized by language elements and types ("variables of type SomeClass", "doStuff() method calls on SomeClass instances") to run searches with structural context ("within the body of the current result") easily replace or generate code (with helpers to generate, as above, or functions for replacing, "rename the interface to Foo", "insert the line Blah.Blah()", etc.) The point is, I don't want to spend a lot of time writing these things, as they are usually throwaway. But sometimes I need something just a little smarter than what grep offers. It wouldn't be too hard to write up a simplistic version of this, but if I'm going to use something like this at all, I'd expect it to be robust. Any suggestions of a tool/library that will help me accomplish this?

  Read the article

• Fastest reliable way for Clojure (Java) and Ruby apps to communicate

  - by jkndrkn

  Hi There, We have cloud-hosted (RackSpace cloud) Ruby and Java apps that will interact as follows: Ruby app sends a request to Java app. Request consists of map structure containing strings, integers, other maps, and lists (analogous to JSON). Java app analyzes data and sends reply to Ruby App. We are interested in evaluating both messaging formats (JSON, Buffer Protocols, Thrift, etc.) as well as message transmission channels/techniques (sockets, message queues, RPC, REST, SOAP, etc.) Our criteria: Short round-trip time. Low round-trip-time standard deviation. (We understand that garbage collection pauses and network usage spikes can affect this value). High availability. Scalability (we may want to have multiple instances of Ruby and Java app exchanging point-to-point messages in the future). Ease of debugging and profiling. Good documentation and community support. Bonus points for Clojure support. What combination of message format and transmission method would you recommend? Why? I've gathered here some materials we have already collected for review: Comparison of various java serialization options Comparison of Thrift and Protocol Buffers (old) Comparison of various data interchange formats Comparison of Thrift and Protocol Buffers Fallacies of Protocol Buffers RPC features Discussion of RPC in the context of AMQP (Message-Queueing) Comparison of RPC and message-passing in distributed systems (pdf) Criticism of RPC from perspective of message-passing fan Overview of Avro from Ruby programmer perspective

  Read the article

• Why is there so much XML in Java these days?

  - by BD at Rivenhill

  This is really more of a philosophy/design issue. I did some work in Java back in the middle 90's and again in the early 2000's and now I'm coming back to it after spending a lot of time in C/C++ and it seems like there was an explosion of XML dependency while I was gone. Major build system tools like ant and maven depend on XML for their configuration, but I'm actually more concerned with all the frameworks, such as Spring, Hibernate, etc. My experience is that powerful supporting libraries like these are where a developer can really get leverage for building programs with lots of features without writing a lot of code, but it really seems like I'm getting one language for the price of two here. I write a bunch of Java classes, but then I also write a bunch of XML files to glue them together. The things that get done in the XML are things that I can see reasonable ways of doing in straight code without the middleman, and they don't really seem to be treated exactly like configuration files: they change rarely and they end up getting committed to source code control like the Java code itself, but they are distributed with the resulting application and need to be unpacked and installed in the classpath in order to get the application to work. I'm working with server applications that are not web-based, so maybe the domain is a bit different from what most people are doing, but I just can't help feeling that I must be doing something wrong here. Can someone point me to a good source of information for why these design choices were made and what problems they are meant to solve so that I can analyze my own experiences in this context?

  Read the article

• C++ reference variable again!!!

  - by kumar_m_kiran

  Hi All, I think most would be surprised about the topic again, However I am referring to a book "C++ Common Knowledge: Essential Intermediate Programming" written by "Stephen C. Dewhurst". In the book, he quotes a particular sentence (in section under Item 5. References Are Aliases, Not Pointers), which is as below A reference is an alias for an object that already exists prior to the initialization of the reference. Once a reference is initialized to refer to a particular object, it cannot later be made to refer to a different object; a reference is bound to its initializer for its whole lifetime Can anyone please explain the context of "cannot later be made to refer to a different object" Below code works for me, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int i = 100; int& ref = i; cout<<ref<<endl; int k = 2000; ref = k; cout<<ref<<endl; return 0; } Here I am referring the variable ref to both i and j variable. And the code works perfectly fine. Am I missing something? I have used SUSE10 64bit linux for testing my sample program. Thanks for your input in advance.

  Read the article

• Jquery conditionals, window locations, and viewdata. Oh my!

  - by John Stuart

  I have one last thing left on a project and its a doozy. Not only is this my first web application, but its the first app i used Jquery, CSS and MVC. I have no idea on how to proceed with this. What i am trying to do is: In my controller, a waste item is validated, and based on the results one of these things can happen. The validation is completed, nothing bad happens, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to -9999. Its a new waste item and the validation did not pass, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to 0. Its an existing waste item and the validation did not pass, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to the id of the waste item. This ViewData["FailedWasteId"] is set on page load using <%=Html.Hidden("wFailId", int.Parse(ViewData["WasteFailID"].ToString()))%> When the validations do not pass, then the page zooms (by window.location) to an invisible div, opens the invisible div etc. Hopefully my intentions are clear with this poor attempt at jquery. The new waste div is and the existing item divs are dynamically generated (this i know works) " So my question here is... Help? I cant even get the data to parse correctly, nor can i even get the conditionals to work. And since this happens after post, i cant get firebug to help my step through the debugger, as the script isnt loaded yet. $(document).ready(function () { var wasteId = parseInt($('#wFailId').text()); if (wasteId == -9999) { //No Issue } else if (wasteId < 0) { //Waste not saved to database } else if (wasteId == 0) { //New Waste window.location = '#0'; $('.editPanel').hide(); $('#GeneratedWasteGrid:first').before(newRow); $('.editPanel').appendTo('#edit-panel-row').slideDown('slow'); } else if (wasteId > 0) { //Waste saved to database } });

  Read the article

• Android getSelectedItem, how to use?

  - by user1881184

  Im trying use the spinner control result in order to point it to another screen that would be on the app. For example in the spinner control if the user chose chevy it would then take you to another screen which is coded in chevy.xml and Chevy.class. This is what i have thus far and need some help, as our book only used getSelectedItem and the example was only for an output statement. Please help. import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.AdapterView; import android.widget.AdapterView.OnItemSelectedListener; import android.widget.Spinner; public class Mainpage extends Activity implements OnItemSelectedListener { String carChoice, chevy, ford, dodge, toyota; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main); /* carChoice = group.getSelectedItem().toString(); } if (carChoice.compareTo(chevy)==0) { startActivity(new Intent(Mainpage.this, Chevy.class)); */ } public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0, View arg1, int arg2, long arg3) { final Spinner group = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.carGroup); group.setOnItemSelectedListener(this); // TODO Auto-generated method stub String selected = group.getItemAtPosition(1).toString(); } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } }

  Read the article

• RewitePath on IIS7 with .Net 3.5 or 4.0 - The resource cannot be found.

  - by Renso

  In Global.asax handle errors by trying to redirect users to another page without changing the url in the address bar, that's why I am using RewritePath and not Redirect. void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when an unhandled error occurs Context.RewritePath("~/Error.aspx", false); } Error.apsx in same root folder as About.aspx, and Default.aspx pages which of course work. Not sure I am having this issue. Have the following web.config file settings that I thought may be relevant: IIS7 settings: Application "TestRewriteUrl" under Default Web Site on DefaultAppPool. This example my seem trivial but I cannot use IIS7 HTTP Redirect as I actually was using this example to keep it simple. What I want to ultimately do is have a user type in http://www.somesite.com/myownpage and have it rewrite the path to another page in the same application directory by looking up the "myownpage" in the database to see what database id they have and redirect them to the correct "microsite" based on that without the user noticing a url change. Kind of like when you go to a blogging engine and no matter where in your blog you go the url remains the same. I don't want the user to go from http://www.mysite.com/tomshardware to http://www.mysite.com?id=8734656856. So that is why I used the simply example above to try and understand why the rewrite path does not work.

  Read the article

• Can't use method from class in other file

  - by user1833848

  I am not able to use one of my methods that i implemented in my tableviewcell file in my tableview controller implementation. I tried searching the web and xcode help with no luck. My codes looks like this: TableViewController.h: #import TableViewCell.h @interface TableViewController : UITableViewController @property (nonatomic, strong) IBOutlet UIBarButtonItem *A1Buy; @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender; TableViewController.m: @implementation A1ViewController @synthesize A1Buy = _A1Buy; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender { [TableViewCell Enable]; //this is where it gives an error } TableViewCell.h: @interface TableViewCell : UITableViewCell { BOOL Enable; BOOL Disable; } @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; TableViewCell.m: @implementation TableViewCell; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (BOOL) Enable { return userInteractionEnabled = YES; } - (BOOL) Disable { return userInteractionEnabled = NO; } As you can see i am trying to enable user interaction with a button, but Xcode only gives me errors like "class does not have this method" and stuff like that. All files are importet correctly so thats not why. Would appreciate any help. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Letting user carry on after three attempts

  - by sMilbz

  In my spelling game there is a grid that is populated with words. The words are hidden and the aim of the game is to spell the word that is highlighted with the aid of a sound and a picture. To highlight a word you press the "next" button. At the moment if you spell the word correctly it says "well done" and you can advance to the next word, but if you spell it incorrectly you have to keep attempting the word until it is complete. As the game is designed for children I do not think this is the best approach, so I would like to make it so you can advance after 3 incorrect attempts. I have played around with the script so much trying to put counters on incorrect attempts and then making the button active but cannot seem to get it to work. Can someone please help me? Here is the script for the button var noExist = $('td[data-word=' + listOfWords[rndWord].name + ']').hasClass('wordglow2'); if (noExist) { $('.minibutton').click(); } else { $('.minibutton').click('disable'); $("#mysoundclip").attr('src', listOfWords[rndWord].audio); audio.play(); $("#mypic").attr('src', listOfWords[rndWord].pic); pic.show(); } }); "wordglow2" is the style applied if the word is spelt correctly. Here is a fiddle to help understand... http://jsfiddle.net/smilburn/ZAfVZ/4/

  Read the article

• How to create a separate thread to do some operation periodically and update UI in WPF?I'm stack

  - by black sensei

  Hello Experts! I'm trying to do a periodic separated thread operation let's say check for internet connection or check for user's info via web service and update the user interface. i've tried with quartz.net to implement that.So i created an inner class for the window i need to update.That inner class does what is meant for but the problem is that i don't know how to access parent's(window class) members form the child(inner class). for example public partial class Window2 : Window { private int i; public Window2() { InitializeComponent(); } public string doMyOperation() { //code here return result; } public class Myclass :IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { string result = doMyOperation(); //Now here i could be able to call a label of name lblNotif //lblNotif.Content = result; } } } Well the whole idea works but i'm stacked at here i need to access a controls of Window2 Since i'm stacked i tried Spring.Net way of implementing Quartz hoping that i could use MethodInvokingJobDetailFactoryObject and rather have the Operation done on Window2 itself.But for some reason i'm having an exception Cannot resolve type [System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows];, could not load type from string value System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows and the wiring is done so <object name="UpdateLabelJob" type="System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows"/> What i'm i doing wrong here?Is that a way round? thanks for reading and for helping out

  Read the article

• Unable to Connect to Management Studio Server

  - by Phil Hilliard

  I have a nasty situation. I am using Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio Express edition locally on my pc for testing, and once tested I upload database changes to a remote server. I have a situation where I deleted the Default Database on my local machine, and instead of searching hard enough to find an answer to that problem, I uninstalled and reinstalled Management Studio. Since then Management Studio has not been able to connect to the server. Is there any help (or hope for me for that matter), out there????? The following is the detailed error message: =================================== Cannot connect to LENOVO-E7A54767\SQLEXPRESS. =================================== A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) (.Net SqlClient Data Provider) ------------------------------ For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?ProdName=Microsoft+SQL+Server&EvtSrc=MSSQLServer&EvtID=-1&LinkId=20476 ------------------------------ Error Number: -1 Severity: 20 State: 0 ------------------------------ Program Location: at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Connect(ServerInfo serverInfo, SqlInternalConnectionTds connHandler, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, Boolean encrypt, Boolean trustServerCert, Boolean integratedSecurity, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreateNonPooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPoolGroup poolGroup) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.VSIntegration.ObjectExplorer.ObjectExplorer.ValidateConnection(UIConnectionInfo ci, IServerType server) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.ConnectionDlg.Connector.ConnectionThreadUser()

  Read the article

• Bind two images together to be dragged

  - by Ryan Beaulieu

  I'm looking for some help with a script to drag two images together at once. I currently have a script that allows me to drag thumbnail images into a collection bin to be saved later. However, some of my thumbnails have an image positioned over the top of them to represent these thumbnail images as "unknown" plants. I was wondering if someone could point me in the right direction as to how I would go about binding these two images together to be dragged. Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var limit = 16; var counter = 0; $("#mainBin1, #mainBin2, #mainBin3, #mainBin4, #mainBin5, #bin_One_Hd, #bin_Two_Hd, #bin_Three_Hd, #bin_Four_Hd, #bin_Five_Hd").droppable({ accept: ".selector, .plant_Unknown", drop: function(event, ui) { counter++; if (counter == limit) { $(this).droppable("disable"); } $(this).append($(ui.draggable).clone()); $("#cbOptions").show(); $(".item").draggable({ containment: "parent", grid: [72,72], }); } }); $(".selector").draggable({ helper: "clone", revert: "invalid", revertDuration: 700, opacity: 0.75, }); $(".plant_Unknown").draggable({ helper: "clone", revert: "invalid", revertDuration: 700, opacity: 0.75, }); }); Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. EDIT: Website

  Read the article

• Regex preg_match issue with commas

  - by Serge Sf

  This is my code to pre_match when an amount looks like this: $ 99.00 and it works if (preg_match_all('/[$]\s\d+(\.\d+)?/', $tout, $matches)) { $tot2 = $matches[0]; $tot2 = preg_replace("/\\\$/", '', $tot2);} I need to do the same thing for a amount that looks like this (with a comma): $ 99,00 Thank you for your help (changing dot for comma do not help, there is an "escape" thing I do not understand... Idealy I need to preg_match any number that looks like an amount with dot or commas and with or without dollar sign before or after (I know, it's a lot to ask :) since on the result form I want to scan there are phone and street numbers... UPDATE (For some reason I cannot comment on replies) : To test properly, I need to preg_replace the comma by a dot (since we are dealings with sums, I don't think calculations can be done on numbers with commas in it). So to clarify my question, I should say : I need to transform, let's say "$ 200,24" to "200.24". (could be amounts bettween 0.10 to 1000.99) : $tot2 = preg_replace("/\\\$/", '', $tot2);} (this code just deals with the $ (it works), I need adaptation to deal also with the change of (,) for (.))

  Read the article

• Integration test for H1 text failing when it should be passing (Rspec and Capybara)

  - by rebec

  Below you can see my test for what happens when a user tries to access the page to edit a profile photo that they don't own. I've used the same test on the NEW action, where it worked fine, but it surprised me by failing when I copied it down to the EDIT action tests. I've used save_and_open_page to test what Capybara's seeing (as you can see below); the resulting page definitely has an h1 with the specified text in it. No spelling errors, and case is all the same as in the test. I've tried using both have_css and have_selector. Both fail. I'm still learning Ruby, Rails, Rspec and especially Capybara (was using webrat previously and recently switched over), and wonder if I'm misconceiving of something that's making me expect this to pass when it doesn't. Any thoughts? Thanks! describe "EDIT" do let(:user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:different_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:admin_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user, role: "admin") } let(:profile_photo1) { FactoryGirl.create(:profile_photo, user: user) } subject { page } context "when signed in as any member" do before { login different_user visit edit_user_profile_photo_path(:id => profile_photo1, :user_id => profile_photo1.user_id) save_and_open_page } # It should deny access with an Unauthorised/Forbidden message. it { should have_css('h1', text: "Unauthorised/Forbidden.") } end

  Read the article

• NSManagedObject How To Reload

  - by crissag

  I have a view that consists of a table of existing objects and an Add button, which allows the user to create a new object. When the user presses Add, the object is created in the list view controller, so that the object will be part of that managed object context (via the NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName: method). The Add view has a property for the managed object. In the list view controller, I create an Add view controller, set the property to the managed object I created, and then push the Add view on to the navigation stack. In the Add view, I have two buttons for save and cancel. In the save, I save the managed object and pass the managed object back to the list view controller via a delegate method. If the user cancels, then I delete the object and pass nil back to the list view controller. The complication I am having in the add view is related to a UIImagePickerController. In the Add view, I have a button which allows the user to take a photo of the object (or use an existing photo from the photo library). However, the process of transferring to the UIImagePickerController and having the user use the camera, is resulting in a didReceiveMemoryWarning in the add view controller. Further, the view was unloaded, which also caused my NSManagedObject to get clobbered. My question is, how to you go about reloading the NSManagedObject in the case where it was released because of the low memory situation?

  Read the article

• Can't get Dialog hosting a WebView to layout properly

  - by user246114

  Hi, I'm trying to host a webview on a dialog, without a titlebar, but I'm getting odd layout results. Example test: @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); WindowManager wm = (WindowManager)getContext().getSystemService(Context.WINDOW_SERVICE); Display display = wm.getDefaultDisplay(); LinearLayout ll = new LinearLayout(getContext()); ll.setOrientation(LinearLayout.VERTICAL); ll.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); ll.setMinimumWidth(display.getWidth() - 10); ll.setMinimumHeight(display.getHeight() - 10); WebView wv = new WebView(getContext()); wv.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); wv.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); ll.addView(mWebView); setContentView(ll, new LinearLayout.LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); } the dialog is inflated at startup, but the webview is not visible. If I rotate the device, it becomes visible, and fills the whole parent layout as requested. What is the right way to do this? I simply want a dialog which occupies most of the device screen, and has a WebView on it which fills the entire space. Thanks

  Read the article

• android use local service to refresh map UI

  - by urobo

  I don't need a strict code related answer I just need somebody to tell me what I am missing. My application has to retrieve from a web service (xmlrpc) the positions of some users I know and update their position on a MapView. So I decided to use a Service and an Activity extending MapActivity to show results. I thought about two solutions: I ) start the service and make it ask every minute for these positions and send them to the activity as a bundle via intent. (This didn't work out well, since once shown I couldn't find a method to let the activity continue refresh itself until she stop receiving intents+data from the service) II ) Incorporate a thread within the activity which starts the service via context.startService(...) every minute. And the MapUI refresh itself once the service send back an intent and stop itself. (Maybe I will fall in the same problem category as before I haven't tryied yet). I am also giving directions (via maps.google ws) in this way I'd like to refresh only users positions on the map and save the route. What Am I missing do you have any suggestions? related to activities/services internal mechanics, don't know launch modes, use broadcast receivers or intent filters? Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• License For (Mostly) Open Source Website / Service

  - by Ryan Sullivan

  I have an interesting setup and am not sure how to license a website. I know this is not legal advice, and I am not asking for any. There are so many different Open Source Licenses and I do not have the time to read every last one to see which best fits my situation. Really, I am looking for suggestions and a nudge in the right direction. My setup is: I give away for free version of my web service with a clean website interface. The implementation I use in the actual web site is (almost) identical to what I give away. The main service works the exactly the same way, but the website interface to manage features in the service is fairly different. Really the web interfaces have the same exact backend, and the front ends accomplish the same tasks, but the service I offer on my site is very rich and uses a good deal of javascript, where I kept the interface in the version I give away as simple and javascript-less as possible. Mostly so it is easy to understand and integrate into other sites. I am not entirely sure how I should license this. It is more like I develop an open source service but have a separate site built upon it. I like the GPLv3 but I am not sure if I can use it in this case especially since I am making some money off of google ad's on the site and plan on using amazon affiliates as well. Any help would be greatly appreciated. I do want to open it up as much as possible. But I still want to be able to continue with my own implementation. Thanks in advance for any information or help anyone can provide.

  Read the article

• How can I prevent the scaling of a UIWebview's content after reorientation?

  - by frankhermes

  I'm building an iOS 5/6 app that has a UIWebView. It loads some HTML that I have embedded in my app. Now when I rotate my device, the WebView changes its size (as I want it to fill the entire width of the screen). And then it gets weird: some content gets scaled up and some content doesn't get scaled up. See this image with some example text in it: As you can see, the header (H6) stays the same, while the paragraph gets scaled up. Does anybody have an idea how to prevent this? I want the html to look the same in landscape as it does in portrait mode. I've tried setting the viewport scaling to 1: <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0,max-scale=1.0"> but that doesn't help. The body's font-size style is set to 14px, but changing that to 14pt or a percentage also made no difference. Setting the width of the body to 100% also didn't help. Strangely, removing the line break (<br/>) that's in the text fixes it but I need line breaks to be in there so that's no solution. The only thing that does work is reloading the UIWebView's content after an orientation change, but that doesn't prevent it from looking wrong during rotation, and it resets any scrolling that the user may have done. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• How do you chain functions dynamically in jQuery?

  - by clarke78

  I want to loop through an object that contains functions which will execute one after another. My most ideal approach would be to have these chain somehow (ie. func2 waits for func1 and func3 waits for func2) but this needs to happen dynamically and the functions will all have different durations. I'm using jQuery so I thought that perhaps "queue()" may help but I haven't worked with it much. A main concern is to not add any scope/callbacks to the functions within the object. I'd rather somehow enclose them within a parent function to execute within the loop in order to create the callback/chaining. Here's an example of what I've got now, but dumbed down. Thanks for any help! var obj = [ {'name':'func1','callback':function(){ alert(1); }}, {'name':'func2','callback':function(){ alert(2); }}, {'name':'func3','callback':function(){ alert(3); }} ]; $.each(obj, function(x, el) { el.callback(); });

  Read the article

• Looking for a good C++/.net book

  - by Michael Minerva

  I have recently started to feel that I need to greatly improve my C++ skills especially in the realm of .net. I graduated from a good four year university with a degree in computer science about 9 months ago and I have since been doing full time contract work for a small software company in my local area. Most of my work has been done using Java/lisp/cocoa/XML and before that most of my programming in my senior year was in java/C#. I did a decent amount of C++ in my Sophomore year and in my free time before that but I feel that my general knowledge of C++/.net is very lacking for the opportunities that are now coming my way. Can anyone recommend a good book that could help me get up too speed? I feel I do not need a very basic introduction to C++ but something that covers the fundamentals of .net would be good for me. So basically what I need is a book or books that would be good for a .net novice and a C++ developer who is just beyond novice. Also, a book that would help bein an interview by giving me a conversional understanding of C++ would be great. Thanks a lot!.

  Read the article

• ORDERBY "human" alphabetical order using SQL string manipulation

  - by supertrue

  I have a table of posts with titles that are in "human" alphabetical order but not in computer alphabetical order. These are in two flavors, numerical and alphabetical: Numerical: Figure 1.9, Figure 1.10, Figure 1.11... Alphabetical: Figure 1A ... Figure 1Z ... Figure 1AA If I orderby title, the result is that 1.10-1.19 come between 1.1 and 1.2, and 1AA-1AZ come between 1A and 1B. But this is not what I want; I want "human" alphabetical order, in which 1.10 comes after 1.9 and 1AA comes after 1Z. I am wondering if there's still a way in SQL to get the order that I want using string manipulation (or something else I haven't thought of). I am not an expert in SQL, so I don't know if this is possible, but if there were a way to do conditional replacement, then it seems I could impose the order I want by doing this: delete the period (which can be done with replace, right?) if the remaining figure number is more than three characters, add a 0 (zero) after the first character. This would seem to give me the outcome I want: 1.9 would become 109, which comes before 110; 1Z would become 10Z, which comes before 1AA. But can it be done in SQL? If so, what would the syntax be? Note that I don't want to modify the data itself—just to output the results of the query in the order described. This is in the context of a Wordpress installation, but I think the question is more suitably an SQL question because various things (such as pagination) depend on the ordering happening at the MySQL query stage, rather than in PHP.

  Read the article

• Automaically select the lastrow in PivotTable SourceData to avoid (blanks)

  - by Adam

  Hi A little help needed, I have a Macro automatically creating pivot tables and charts, this is all working fine but I am getting (blank) in my pivot table becuase my range is all the way to 65536. How do I automatically get the lastrow / column in my source data so I dont get any blanks. The data is changing constantly so this needs to be automatic Here is the source data, I am looking to get the R65536C37 to be automatically generated based on the lastcolumn of the "raw" sheet ActiveWorkbook.PivotCaches.Add(SourceType:=xlDatabase, SourceData:= _ "raw!R1C1:R65536C37").CreatePivotTable _ TableDestination:="Frontpage!R7C1", TableName:="PivotTable2", _ DefaultVersion:=xlPivotTableVersion10 I have tried; LastRow = ActiveSheet.UsedRange.Rows.Count SourceData:= "raw!R1C1:" & LastRow & C37" Pivot Macro Sheets("Frontpage").Select Range("A7").Select ActiveWorkbook.PivotCaches.Add(SourceType:=xlDatabase, SourceData:= _ "raw!R1C1:R65536C37").CreatePivotTable _ TableDestination:="Frontpage!R7C1", TableName:="PivotTable2", _ DefaultVersion:=xlPivotTableVersion10 Sheets("Frontpage").Select Cells(7, 1).Select ActiveSheet.Shapes.AddChart.Select ActiveChart.SetSourceData Source:=Range("Frontpage!$A$7:$H$22") ActiveChart.ChartType = xlColumnClustered With ActiveSheet.PivotTables("PivotTable2").PivotFields("Priority") .Orientation = xlRowField .Position = 1 End With ActiveSheet.PivotTables("PivotTable2").AddDataField ActiveSheet.PivotTables( _ "PivotTable2").PivotFields("Case ID"), "Count of Case ID", xlCount ActiveChart.Parent.Name = "IncidentsbyPriority" ActiveChart.ChartTitle.Text = "Incidents by Priority" Dim RngToCover As Range Dim ChtOb As ChartObject Set RngToCover = ActiveSheet.Range("D7:L16") Set ChtOb = ActiveSheet.ChartObjects("IncidentsbyPriority") ChtOb.Height = RngToCover.Height ' resize ChtOb.Width = RngToCover.Width ' resize ChtOb.Top = RngToCover.Top ' reposition ChtOb.Left = RngToCover.Left ' reposition Any help would be greatly appreciated. I need to repeat this in four other pivots so as to avoid getting (blank) in my tables and charts.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749  | Next Page >