Search Results

Search found 55281 results on 2212 pages for 'get set'.

Page 742/2212 | < Previous Page | 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749  | Next Page >

  • Pattern for sharing data between views (MVP or MVVM)

    - by Dovix
    What is a good pattern for sharing data between related views?. I have an application where 1 form contains many small views, each views behaves independently from each other more or less (they communicate/interact via an event bus). Every so often I need to pass the same objects to the child views. Sometimes I need this same object to be passed to a child view and then the child passes it onto another child itself contains. What is a good approach to sharing this data between all the views contained within the parent form (view) ? I have looked into CAB and their approach and every "view" has a "root work item" this work item has dictionary that contains a shared "state" between the views that are contained. Is this the best approach? just a shared dictionary all the views under a root view can access? My current approach right now is to have a function on the view that allows one to set the object for that view. Something like view.SetCustomer(Customer c); then if the view contains a child view it knows to set it on the child view ala: this.childview1.SetCustomer(c); The application is written in C# 3.5, for winforms using MVP with structure map as a IoC/DI provider.

    Read the article

  • Complex string split in Java

    - by c0mrade
    Consider the following String : 5|12345|value1|value2|value3|value4+5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4?5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4+ Here is how I want to split string, split it with + so I get this result : myArray[0] = "5|12345|value1|value2|value3|value4"; myArray[1] = "5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4?5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4"; if string has doesn't contain char "?" split it with "|" and continue to part II, if string does contain "?" split it and for each part split it with "|" and continue to part II. Here is part II : myObject.setAttribute1(newString[0]); ... myObject.setAttribute4(newString[3]); Here what I've got so far : private static String input = "5|12345|value1|value2|value3|value4+5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4?5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4+"; public void mapObject(String input){ String[] myArray = null; if (input.contains("+")) { myArray = input.split("+"); } else { myArray = new String[1]; myArray[0] = input; } for (int i = 0; i < myArray.length; i++) { String[] secondaryArray = null; String[] myObjectAttribute = null; if (myArray[i].contains("?")) { secondaryArray = temporaryString.myArray[i].split("?"); for (String string : secondaryArray) { myObjectAttribute = string.split("\\|"); } } else { myObjectAttribute = myArray[i].toString().split("\\|"); } myObject.setAttribute1(myObjectAttribute[0]); ... myObject.setAttribute4(myObjectAttribute[3]); System.out.println(myObject.toString()); } Problem : When I split myArray, going trough for with myArray[0], everything set up nice as it should. Then comes the myArray[1], its split into two parts then the second part overrides the value of the first(how do I know that?). I've overridden toString() method of myObject, when I finish I print the set values so I know that it overrides it, does anybody know how can I fix this?

    Read the article

  • Pros and cons of making database IDs consistent and "readable"

    - by gmale
    Question Is it a good rule of thumb for database IDs to be "meaningless?" Conversely, are there significant benefits from having IDs structured in a way where they can be recognized at a glance? What are the pros and cons? Background I just had a debate with my coworkers about the consistency of the IDs in our database. We have a data-driven application that leverages spring so that we rarely ever have to change code. That means, if there's a problem, a data change is usually the solution. My argument was that by making IDs consistent and readable, we save ourselves significant time and headaches, long term. Once the IDs are set, they don't have to change often and if done right, future changes won't be difficult. My coworkers position was that IDs should never matter. Encoding information into the ID violates DB design policies and keeping them orderly requires extra work that, "we don't have time for." I can't find anything online to support either position. So I'm turning to all the gurus here at SA! Example Imagine this simplified list of database records representing food in a grocery store, the first set represents data that has meaning encoded in the IDs, while the second does not: ID's with meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 101 Apple 102 Banana 103 Orange 201 Lettuce 202 Onion 203 Carrot Location 41 Aisle four top shelf 42 Aisle four bottom shelf 51 Aisle five top shelf 52 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 10141 Apple on aisle four top shelf 10241 Banana on aisle four top shelf //just by reading the ids, it's easy to recongnize that these are both Fruit on Aisle 4 ID's without meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 1 Apple 2 Banana 3 Orange 4 Lettuce 5 Onion 6 Carrot Location 1 Aisle four top shelf 2 Aisle four bottom shelf 3 Aisle five top shelf 4 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 1 Apple on aisle four top shelf 2 Banana on aisle four top shelf //given the IDs, it's harder to see that these are both fruit on aisle 4 Summary What are the pros and cons of keeping IDs readable and consistent? Which approach do you generally prefer and why? Is there an accepted industry best-practice?

    Read the article

  • Java 1.4 singleton containing a mutable field

    - by Philippe
    Hi, I'm working on a legacy Java 1.4 project, and I have a factory that instantiates a csv file parser as a singleton. In my csv file parser, however, I have a HashSet that will store objects created from each line of my CSV file. All that will be used by a web application, and users will be uploading CSV files, possibly concurrently. Now my question is : what is the best way to prevent my list of objects to be modified by 2 users ? So far, I'm doing the following : final class MyParser { private File csvFile = null; private static Set myObjects = Collections.synchronizedSet(new HashSet); public synchronized void setFile(File file) { this.csvFile = file; } public void parse() FileReader fr = null; try { fr = new FileReader(csvFile); synchronized(myObjects) { myObjects.clear(); while(...) { // foreach line of my CSV, create a "MyObject" myObjects.add(new MyObject(...)); } } } catch (Exception e) { //... } } } Should I leave the lock only on the myObjects Set, or should I declare the whole parse() method as synchronized ? Also, how should I synchronize - both - the setting of the csvFile and the parsing ? I feel like my actual design is broken because threads could modify the csv file several times while a possibly long parse process is running. I hope I'm being clear enough, because myself am a bit confused on those multi-synchronization issues. Thanks ;-)

    Read the article

  • Populating JavaScript Array from JSP List

    - by tkeE2036
    Ok so perhaps someone can help me with a problem I'm trying to solve. Essentially I have a JSP page which gets a list of Country objects (from the method referenceData() from a Spring Portlet SimpleFormController, not entirely relevant but just mentioning in case it is). Each Country object has a Set of province objects and each province and country have a name field: public class Country { private String name; private Set<Province> provinces; //Getters and setters } public class Province { private String name; //Getters and setters } Now I have two drop down menus in my JSP for countries and provinces and I want to filter the provinces by country. I've been following this tutorial/guide to make a chain select in JavaScript. Now I need a dynamic way to create the JavaScript array from my content. And before anyone mentions AJAX this is out of the question since our project uses portlets and we'd like to stay away from using frameworks like DWR or creating a servlet. Here is the JavaScript/JSP I have so far but it is not populating the Array with anything: var countries = new Array(); <c:forEach items="${countryList}" var="country" varStatus="status"> countries[status.index] = new Array(); countries[status.index]['country'] = ${country.name}; countries[status.index]['provinces'] = [ <c:forEach items="${country.provinces}" var="province" varStatus="provinceStatus"> '${province.name}' <c:if test="${!provinceStatus.last}"> , </c:if> </c:forEach> ]; </c:forEach> Does anyone know how to create an JavaScript array in JSP in the case above or what the 'best-practice' would be considered in this case? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Core data and @unionOfSets

    - by KevinD
    Im having trouble using the @unionOfSets on my core-data objects. NSLog(@"%@", [NSApp valueForKeyPath:@"delegate.mainWindowController.sidebarViewController.arrayController.selection.list.listElement"]); Prints the set of listElements as expected 2010-03-24 18:11:15.844 Pirouette[7459:80f] Relationship objects for {( (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10a71b0 ; data: ), (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10ac7d0 ; data: ), (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10acf60 ; data: ), (entity: PRPlaylistElement; id: 0x10a6850 ; data: ) However when I try to get the set of file objects for each of the list elements. NSLog(@"%@", [NSApp valueForKeyPath:@"delegate.mainWindowController.sidebarViewController.arrayController.selection.list.listElement.@unionOfArrays.file"]); I get the following error 2010-03-24 18:16:45.843 Pirouette[7505:80f] An uncaught exception was raised 2010-03-24 18:16:45.844 Pirouette[7505:80f] [<NSCFSet 0x10415e0> valueForKeyPath:]: this class does not implement the unionOfArrays operation. 2010-03-24 18:16:45.847 Pirouette[7505:80f] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '[<NSCFSet 0x10415e0> valueForKeyPath:]: this class does not implement the unionOfArrays operation.' Confused because I thought calling to-many relationships in core-data were NSSets.

    Read the article

  • How to Anti-Alias Layers in iPhoneOS

    - by Shannon A.
    We've had Reiner Knizia's Money out for a couple of months now. It's done pretty well, and so we've been updating it as time allows. However, one thing continues to bug me. I've never been able to get my layered cards to anti-alias correctly. Here's a sample: Cards that are laid straight are very clean, but whenever they're angled the black lines around the cards get jagged. I've tried this depending on both lines implicit to the artwork and lines drawn through drawRect:, and they both do the same thing. I've tried the edgeAntiAliasingMask and it doesn't do a thing as far as I can tell. I've tried masksToBounds for the sublayers set to NO and YES. Right now my card is set up as a CALayer that has sub-CALayers for the front and the back, plus for a few other things like a lightening mask and a darkening mask. Here's some snippets of the code: CArdLayer *theCardLayer = [CArdLayer layer]; theCardLayer.edgeAntialiasingMask = kCALayerLeftEdge | kCALayerRightEdge | kCALayerBottomEdge | kCALayerTopEdge; theCardLayer.front = [CALayer layer]; theCardLayer.front.edgeAntialiasingMask = kCALayerLeftEdge | kCALayerRightEdge | kCALayerBottomEdge | kCALayerTopEdge; theCardLayer.front.bounds = theCardLayer.bounds; theCardLayer.front.masksToBounds = YES; theCardLayer.front.contents = (id)[cardDrawing CGImage]; [theCardLayer addSublayer:theCardLayer.front]; Etc ... Any ideas on how to make the cards actually anti-alias?

    Read the article

  • Blurry UILabel as programmatic subview of UITableViewCell contentView

    - by Alex Reynolds
    I am adding a UILabel instance as a subview of my custom UITableViewCell instance's contentView. When I select the cell, the row is highlighted blue, except for the background of the label. The label text is sharp. When I set the label and content view backgroundColor property to [UIColor clearColor], the label text becomes blurry. How do I set the label background color to be clear, to allow the row highlight to come through, while still keeping the label text sharp? One suggestion I read elsewhere was to round the label's frame values, but this did not have any effect. CODE Here is a snippet of my custom UITableViewCell subview's -setNeedsLayout method: UILabel *_objectTitleLabel = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectNull]; _objectTitleLabel.text = [self.awsObject cleanedKey]; _objectTitleLabel.font = [UIAppDelegate defaultObjectLabelFont]; _objectTitleLabel.highlightedTextColor = [UIColor clearColor]; //[UIAppDelegate defaultLabelShadowTint]; _objectTitleLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; //[UIAppDelegate defaultWidgetBackgroundTint]; _objectTitleLabel.frame = CGRectMake( kCellImageViewWidth + 2.0 * self.indentationWidth, 0.5 * (self.tableView.rowHeight - 1.5 * kCellLabelHeight) + kCellTitleYPositionNudge, contentViewWidth, kCellLabelHeight ); _objectTitleLabel.frame = CGRectIntegral(_objectTitleLabel.frame); _objectTitleLabel.tag = kObjectTableViewCellTitleSubviewType; //NSLog(@"_objectTitleLabel: %@", NSStringFromCGRect(_objectTitleLabel.frame)); [self.contentView addSubview:_objectTitleLabel]; [_objectTitleLabel release], _objectTitleLabel = nil; ... self.contentView.backgroundColor = [UIAppDelegate defaultWidgetBackgroundTint]; self.contentView.clearsContextBeforeDrawing = YES; self.contentView.autoresizesSubviews = YES; self.contentView.clipsToBounds = YES; self.contentView.contentMode = UIViewContentModeRedraw;

    Read the article

  • MySQL Access denied error

    - by dancingbush
    I am trying to install mySQL on a Mac OS 10.8 and set up a user account. NOTE I am a abs beginner when it comes to using the command line in Terminal window. I used these instructions to install: http://www.macminivault.com/mysql-mountain-lion/ I set my own password for all users here: GRANT ALL ON *.* TO 'root'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'mypass' WITH GRANT OPTION; quit Every time i try to execute mySQL as a root user on the command line i get this: Ciarans-MacBook-Pro:~ callanmooneys$ mysql -u root ERROR 1045 (28000): Access denied for user 'root'@'localhost' (using password: NO) I read around on the net and tried various things including tried this to change password: mysqladmin -u root -pyourcurrentmysqlrootpassword password yournewmysqlrootpassword, it returns -> -> USE mysql -> If i simply type 'mysql' and launch the mySQL monitor then try to crete a user account: mysql> USE mysql ERROR 1044 (42000): Access denied for user ''@'localhost' to database 'mysql' mysql> Also tried answers on forum: access is denied for user 'root'@localhost mysql error 1045 returned '[email protected] command not found And MySQL - ERROR 1045 - Access denied: Ciarans-MacBook-Pro:~ callanmooneys$ mysqld_safe --skip-grant-tables 131105 21:44:41 mysqld_safe Logging to '/usr/local/mysql/data/Ciarans-MacBook-Pro.local.err'. 131105 21:44:41 mysqld_safe Starting mysqld daemon with databases from /usr/local/mysql/data /usr/local/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe: line 129: /usr/local/mysql/data/Ciarans-MacBook-Pro.local.err: Permission denied /usr/local/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe: line 166: /usr/local/mysql/data/Ciarans-MacBook-Pro.local.err: Permission denied 131105 21:44:41 mysqld_safe mysqld from pid file /usr/local/mysql/data/Ciarans-MacBook-Pro.local.pid ended /usr/local/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe: line 129: /usr/local/mysql/data/Ciarans-MacBook-Pro.local.err: Permission denied Ciarans-MacBook-Pro:~ callanmooneys$ mysql -u root ERROR 2002 (HY000): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/tmp/mysql.sock' (2) Ciarans-MacBook-Pro:~ callanmooneys$ Feedback appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Ruby / Rails - How to aggregate a Query Results in an Array?

    - by AnApprentice
    Hello, I have a large data set that I want to clean up for the user. The data set from the DB looks something like this: ID | project_id | thread_id | action_type |description 1 | 10 | 30 | comment | yada yada yada yada yada 1 | 10 | 30 | comment | xxx 1 | 10 | 30 | comment | yada 313133 1 | 10 | 33 | comment | fdsdfsdfsdfsdfs 1 | 10 | 33 | comment | yada yada yada yada yada 1 | 10 | | attachment | fddgaasddsadasdsadsa 1 | 10 | | attachment | xcvcvxcvxcvxxcvcvxxcv Right now, when I output the above in my view its in the very same order as above, problem is it is very repetitive. For example, for project_id 10 & thread_id 30 you see: 10 - 30 - yada yada yada yada yada 10 - 30 - xxxxx 10 - 30 - yada yada yada yada yada What I would like to learn how to do in ruby, is some how create an array and aggreate descriptions under a project_id and thread_id, so instead the output is: 10 - 30 - yada yada yada yada yada - xxxxx - yada yada yada yada yada Any advice on where to get started? This requirement is new for me so I would appreciate your thoughts on what you're thinking the best way to solve this is.Hopefully this can be done in ruby and not sql, as the activity feed is likely going to grow in event types and complexity. Thanks

    Read the article

  • desktop shortcut icon not showing in web setup project

    - by davsan
    i've created a web setup project and i wanted it to create a desktop shortcut to the web application (ex: http://localhost/xx/yy.aspx). up to this point it was pretty easy: i created a shortcut (doesnt matter where), gave it the url i wanted, added this to the User's Desktop special folder of my web setup project, and it was placed on the desktop after the installation. but then i wanted to display my custom shortcut icon. i set the icon of the shortcut i've created on my file system. then i re-included this to the setup project. however after the installation the shortcut kept showing the default IE icon again. (i tried these on windows 2003 server, on win xp the shortcut showed up iconless) after some trials i found another way: i recreated an iconless shortcut on my file system, opened my web setup project, included this shortcut and my icon to Web Application Folder under File System on Target Machine, then clicked on User's Desktop, right clicked on the right hand side blank area, selected Create New Shortcut and chose the shortcut i've just added. Then under User's Desktop i clicked on the newly created shortcut, opened the Properties window and set its Icon property to my included icon. These steps solved it all both on 2003 server and win xp. Though this wasnt really a question i wanted to share it anyways because it was quite annoying.

    Read the article

  • Using datetime float representation as primary key

    - by devanalyst
    From my experience I have learn that using an surrogate INT data type column as primary key esp. an IDENTITY key column offers better performance than using GUID or char/varchar data type column as primary key. I try to use IDENTITY key as primary key wherever possible. But recently I came across a schema where the tables were horizontally partitioned and were managed via a Partitioned view. So the tables could not have an IDENTITY column since that would make the Partitioned View non updatable. One work around for this was to create a dummy 'keygenerator' table with an identity column to generate IDs for primary key. But this would mean having a 'keygenerator' table for each of the Partitioned View. My next thought was to use float as a primary key. The reason is the following key algorithm that I devised DECLARE @KEY FLOAT SET @KEY = CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE())/100000.0 SET @KEY = @EMP_ID + @KEY Heres how it works. CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE()) gives float representation of current datetime since internally all datetime are represented by SQL as a float value. CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE())/100000.0 converts the float representation into complete decimal value i.e. all digits are pushed to right side of ".". @KEY = @EMP_ID + @KEY adds the Employee ID which is an integer to this decimal value. The logic is that the Employee ID is guaranteed to be unique across sessions since an employee cannot connect to an application more than once at the same time. And for the same employee each time a key will be generated the current datetime will be unique. In all an unique key across all employee sessions and across time. So for Emp Ids 11 and 12, I have key values like 12.40046693321566357, 11.40046693542361111 But my concern whether float data type as primary key offer benefits compared to choosing GUID or char/varchar as primary keys. Also important thing is because of partitioning the float column is going to be part of a composite key.

    Read the article

  • Fetch request error: no entity? Probably easy, but help!

    - by cksubs
    Hi, I'm going through the Stanford iPhone course. I'm on the second Paparazzi assignment. I'm getting this error: * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'executeFetchRequest:error: A fetch request must have an entity.' I've copied a lot of the code from this walkthrough site. Running his source code works perfectly, and at this point my code is pretty much exactly the same as his. But it throws that error. See below for the relavent bits: // Create FetchRequest NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Person" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [request setEntity:entity]; // Set the sort descriptor NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"personName" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptors release]; [sortDescriptor release]; // set up NSFetchedResultsController to hold the fetch NSFetchedResultsController *frc = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"personCache"]; // execute the fetch NSError *error; NSLog(@"Prints Here"); [frc performFetch:&error]; NSLog(@"Doesn't Print Here"); I'm clearly setting the entity with [request setEntity:entity]. So the error has me stumped. Is there something I'm missing? Maybe in another file? I don't know. I'm still so confused with Objective-C.... Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Using kAudioSessionProperty_OtherMixableAudioShouldDuck on iPhone

    - by Cliff
    Hello, I'm trying to get consistant behavior out of the kAudioSessionProperty_OtherMixableAudioShouldDuck property on the iPhone to allow iPod music blending and I'm having trouble. At the start of my app I set an Ambient category like so: -(void) initialize { [[AVAudioSession sharedInstance] setCategory: AVAudioSessionCategoryAmbient error: nil]; } Later on when I attempt to play audio I set the duck property using the following method: //this will crossfade the audio with the ipod music - (void) toggleCrossfadeOn:(UInt32)onOff { //crossfade the ipod music AudioSessionSetProperty(kAudioSessionProperty_OtherMixableAudioShouldDuck,sizeof(onOff),&onOff); AudioSessionSetActive(onOff); } I call this passing a numeric "1" just before playing audio like so: [self toggleCrossfadeOn:1]; [player play]; I then call the crossfade method again passing a zero when my app's audio completes using a playback is stopping callback like so: -(void) playbackIsStoppingForPlayer:(MQAudioPlayer*)audioPlayer { NSLog(@"Releasing player"); [audioPlayer release]; [self toggleCrossfadeOn:0]; } In my production app this exact code works as expected, causing the ipod to fade out just before playing my app's audio then fade back in when the audio finishes playing. In a new project I recently started, I get different behavior. The iPod audio fades down and never fades back in. In my production app I use the AVAudioPlayer where in my new app I've written a custom audio player that uses audio queues. Could somebody help me understand the differences and how to properly use this API?

    Read the article

  • Make an image transparent in IE to show non-transparent background

    - by Select0r
    Hi, I'm trying to get this thing to work in IE (any version - works in FF, Opera, Safari, Chrome ...): I have a DIV with a background-image. The DIV also contains an image that should be transparent onMouseOver. The expected behaviour now is that the DIV-background would shine through the transparent image (which it does in all browsers but IE). Instead it looks like the image is getting transparent but on a white background, I can't see the DIV's background through the image. Here's some code: <div><a href="#" class"dragItem"><img /></a></div> And some CSS: .dojoDndItemOver { cursor : pointer; filter : alpha(opacity = 50); opacity : 0.5; -moz-opacity : 0.5; -khtml-opacity : 0.5; } .dragItem:hover { filter : alpha(opacity = 30); opacity : 0.3; -moz-opacity : 0.3; -khtml-opacity : 0.3; background : none; } All of this is embedded in a Dojo Drag-n-Drop-system, so dojoDndItemOver will automatically be set to the DIV on MouseOver, dragItem is set to the href around the image (using the same class on the image directly doesn't work at all as IE doesn't support "hover" on other items that href). Any ideas? Or is it an IE-speciality to just "simulate" transparency on images by somehow just greying them out instead of providing real transparency and showing whatever is beneath?

    Read the article

  • Question - Setting dynamic HTML using Javascript to iFrames on Windows Mobile 6.1 - IE Mobile6

    - by swaroop
    Hi Experts, (excuse me if this is not the right forum to post - i couldn't find anything related to non-native programming and related to this topic) I Am trying to set a dynamic HTML into an iFrame on the webpage. I have tried a couple of things but none of them seem to work. I m able to read the innerHTML but can't seem to update it. // Able to read using document.getElementById('iFrameIdentifier').innerHTML; // On Desktop IE, this code works document.getElementById('iFrameId').contentWindow.document.open(); document.getElementById('iFrameId').contentWindow.document.write(dynamicHTML); document.getElementById('iFrameId').contentWindow.document.close(); Ideally the same function should work as how it works for div's but it says 'Object doesn't support this method or property". I have also tried document.getElementById('iFrameId').document.body.innerHTML. This apparently replaces the whole HTML of the page and not just the innerHTML. I have tried out a couple of things and they didn't work document.getElementById('iFrameId').body.innerHTML document.frames[0].document.body.innerHTML My purpose is to have a container element which can contain dynamic HTML that's set to it. I've been using it well till now when I observed that the setting innerHTML on a div is taking increasing amount of time because of the onClicks or other JS methods that are attached to the anchors and images in the dynamic HTML. Appears the JS methods or the HTML is some how not getting cleaned up properly (memory leak?) Also being discussed - http://www.experts-exchange.com/Programming/Languages/Scripting/JavaScript/Q_26185526.html#a32779090

    Read the article

  • Create Keyword Object Perl Microsoft::AdCenter

    - by toobsco42
    So I looked at the perldoc for the Microsoft::AdCenter module and it shows this as an example of how to create a keyword object: ~$ perldoc Microsoft::AdCenter #Create a Keyword object my $keyword = Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Keyword->new ->Text("some text") ->BroadMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)) ->ExactMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)); However, doesn't this violate the new policy of using only one match type per keyword? Campaign Management changes: "Previously, you would create a single Keyword object and specify a bid value for each match that you wanted to bid on (for example, exact match or phrase match). If you did not specify a bid value at the keyword-level, adCenter used the default bid value specified at the ad group level. Now, you must create a Keyword object for each match type that you want to bid on. For example, to bid on the keyword car by using exact match and phrase match, create a Keyword object and set the Text element to car and the ExactMatchBid element to a bid amount. Then, create a second Keyword object and set the Text element to car and PhraseMatchBid to a bid amount. When you add the keywords, you’ll get a unique keyword ID for each keyword and match-type combination."

    Read the article

  • How can you change Network settings (IP Address, DNS, WINS, Host Name) with code in C#

    - by rathkopf
    I am developing a wizard for a machine that is to be used as a backup of other machines. When it replaces an existing machine, it needs to set its IP address, DNS, WINS, and host name to match the machine being replaced. Is there a library in .net (C#) which allows me to do this programatically? There are multiple NICs, each which need to be set individually. EDIT Thannk you TimothyP for your example. It got me moving on the right track and the quick reply was awesome. Thanks balexandre. Your code is perfect. I was in a rush and had already adapted the example TimothyP linked to, but I would have loved to have had your code sooner. I've also developed a routine using similar techniques for changing the computer name. I'll post it in the future so subscribe to this questions RSS feed if you want to be informed of the update. I may get it up later today or on Monday after a bit of cleanup.

    Read the article

  • Difficulty with apps with a forced landscape orientation

    - by mahboudz
    I have two apps, both of which force the user to use the iPhone in landscape mode, in order to have a wider screen, instead of a taller one. One of the things I have found is that my first view will look fine, but all other views come up with their subviews (UIButtons, UIPicker, UIViews) squeezed to one side or clipped (depending on whether the elements were set to move, resize or stay in the same position as the view size changed). All my views are designed in IB in the landscape orientation. My underlying UIWindow, and everything I can think of has been laid out in landscape orientation. Even my plist file has the UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight flag set. Now, if I load all my views at the same time as my rootview controller, then I have no problems. But if I have views loaded later, they get clipped or squeezed. The only way to get around the problem was to add the following line in my code that flips in a new view: [coming.view setFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 480, 300)]; Anyone know why I need to do this? Is it just that the iPhone assumes that loaded views are 300x480 unless a transform gets applied to them? Thanks. ps. This is what the view looks like if I don't call setFrame, as described above: All viewcontrollers that get loaded after the first one will have their screen similarly squeezed down. For some reason the first viewcontroller doesn't have this issue.

    Read the article

  • NULL value when using NSDateFormatter after setting NSDate property via XML parsing

    - by David A Gibson
    Hello, I am using the following code to try and display in a time in a table cell. TimeSlot *timeSlot = [timeSlots objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSDateFormatter *timeFormat = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [timeFormat setDateFormat:@"HH:mm:ss"]; NSLog(@"Time: %@", timeSlot.time); NSDate *mydate = timeSlot.time; NSLog(@"Time: %@", mydate); NSString *theTime = [timeFormat stringFromDate:mydate]; NSLog(@"Time: %@", theTime); The log output is this: 2010-04-14 10:23:54.626 MyApp[1080:207] Time: 2010-04-14T10:23:54 2010-04-14 10:23:54.627 MyApp[1080:207] Time: 2010-04-14T10:23:54 2010-04-14 10:23:54.627 MyApp[1080:207] Time: (null) I am new to developing for the iPhone and as it all compiles with no errors or warnings I am at a loss as to why I am getting NULL in the log. Is there anything wrong with this code? Thanks Further Info I used the code exactly from your answer lugte098 just to check and I was getting dates which leads me to believe that my TimeSlot class can't have a date correctly set in it's NSDate property. So my question becomes - how from XML do I set a NSDate property? I have this code (abbreviated): -(void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *) string { if ([currentElement isEqualToString:@"Time"]) { currentTimeSlot.time = string } } Thanks

    Read the article

  • validation properties by attribute

    - by netmajor
    I create class with two property - name,link(below). I use simple property validation by Required and StringLength attribute. I bind this class object to WPF ListBox(with textBoxs). But when I have textbox empty or write words longer than 8 sign nothing happens :/ What should I do to fires ErrorMessage? Or how to implement validation in other way ? I also try use : if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } But it only fires in debug mode :/ My class with implementation of attribute validation: public class RssInfo : INotifyPropertyChanged { public RssInfo() { } public RssInfo(string _nazwa, string _link) { nazwa = _nazwa; link = _link; } private string nazwa; [Required(ErrorMessage = "To pole jest obowiazkowe nAZWA")] public string Nazwa { get { return nazwa; } set { if (value != nazwa) { nazwa = value; onPropertyChanged("Nazwa"); } if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } } } private string link; [Required(ErrorMessage="To pole jest obowiazkowe link")] [StringLength(8, ErrorMessage = "Link cannot be longer than 8 characters")] public string Link { get { return link; } set { if (value != link) { link = value; onPropertyChanged("Link"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion private void onPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } }

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework Multiple associations to a table causes error 3033

    - by taylonr
    I'm using EF 3.5 SP1. I have 3 tables: Pendants PendantAccessories PartsData Basically #1 and 2 are used for product selection, so #1 has a "Number of Buttons" property and other options. #2 has fields like "Cable Type" etc. The third table contains property information for all of our parts, such as what plant it's manufactured in, it's weight etc. What I'm trying to do is set up an association between #1 and #3 and also between #2 and #3. The PK in all 3 tables is the PartNumber. I set it up between #2 and 3 by going into Mapping Details and adding a Maps to PartsData and mapping the columns. Everything worked good. I then tried the same thing between #1 and 3. However, now when I compile I get "Error 3033: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 713: EntitySets 'pendants' and 'pendantAccessories' are both mapped to the table 'PartsData'. Their Primary Keys may collide." Does anyone know what I'm doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Silverlight, WCF service, integrated security AND ssl/https not possible?

    - by Flores
    I have this setup that works perfectly when using http. A silverlight 3 client .net 4 WCF service hosted in IIS with basicHttpBinding and using integrated security on the site When setting https to required on the website the setup stops working. Using the wcftestclient on the uri I get the message: The HTTP request is unauthorized with client authentication scheme 'Anonymous'. The authentication header received from the server was 'Negotiate,NTLM'. The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized. Maybe this makes sense because the wcftestclient does not pass credentials? in the web.config the security mode for the service binding is set is set to 'Transport'. The silverlight client is created like this: BasicHttpBinding basicHttpBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(); basicHttpBinding.Security.Mode = BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport; var serviceClient = new ImportServiceClient(basicHttpBinding, serviceAddress); The service address is ofcourse starting with https:// And the silverlight client reports this error: The provided URI scheme 'https' is invalid; expected 'http'. Parameter name: via Remember, swithing it back to http (and setting security mode to 'TransportCredentialOnly' makes everything working again. Is the setup I want even supported? If so, how should it be configured?

    Read the article

  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

    Read the article

  • Precompiled headers question

    - by Kotti
    Hello! I am right now reorganizing my project and what recently was a simple application now became a pair of C++ projects - static library and real application. I would like to share one precompiled header between two projects, but face some troubles with setting up the .pdb file paths. Assume my first project is called Library and builds it's .lib file with a corresponding Library.pdb file. Now, the second project is called Application and builds everything into the same folder (.exe and another Application.pdb file). Right now my both projects create their own precompiled headers file (Library.pch and Application.pch) based on one actual header file. It works, but I think it's a waste of time and I also think there should be a way to share one precompiled header between two projects. If in my Application project I try to set the Use Precompiled Header (/Yu) option and set it to Library.pch, it wouldn't work, because of the following error: error C2858: command-line option 'program database name "Application.pdb" inconsistent with precompiled header, which used "Library.pdb". So, does anyone know some trick or way to share one precompiled header between two projects preserving proper debug information?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749  | Next Page >