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• Migrate Data and Schema from MySQL to MSSQL

  - by colithium

  Are there any free solutions for automatically migrating a database from MySQL to MSSQL Server that "just works"? I've been attempting this simple (at least I thought so) task all day now. I've tried: MSSQL Server Management Studio's Import Data feature Create an empty database Tasks - Import Data... .NET Framework Data Provider for Odbc Valid DSN (verified it connects) Copy data from one or more tables or views Check 1 VERY simple table Click Preview Get Error: The preview data could not be retrieved. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: ERROR [42000] [MySQL][ODBC 5.1 Driver][mysqld-5.1.45-community]You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '"table_name"' at line 1 (myodbc5.dll) A similar error occurs if I go through the rest of the wizard and perform the operation. The failed step is "Setting Source Connection" the error refers to retrieving column information and then lists the above error. It can retrieve column information just fine when I modify column mappings so I really don't know what the issue is. I've also tried getting various MySql tools to output ddl statements that MSSQL understand but haven't succeeded. I've tried with MySQL v5.1.11 to SQL Server 2005 and with MySQL v5.1.45 to SQL Server 2008 (with ODBC drivers 3.51.27.00 and 5.01.06.00 respectively)

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• is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

  - by haansi

  Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

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• Using javascript and php together

  - by EmmyS

  I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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• Creating WPF components in background thread

  - by mizipzor

  Im working on a reporting system, a series of DocumentPage are to be created through a DocumentPaginator. These documents include a number of WPF components that are to be instantiated so the paginator includes the correct things when later sent to the XpsDocumentWriter (which in turn is sent to the actual printer). My problem now is that the DocumentPage instances take quite a while to create (enough for Windows to mark the application as frozen) so I tried to create them in a background thread, which is problematic since WPF expects the attributes on them to be set from the GUI thread. I would also like to have a progress bar showing up, indicating how many pages have been created so far. Thus, it looks like Im trying to get two things to happen in parallell on the GUI. The problem is hard to explain and Im really not sure how to tackle it. In short: Create a series of DocumentPage's. These include WPF components These are to be created on a background thread, or use some other trick so the application isnt frozen. After each page is created, a WPF ProgressBar should be updated. If there is no decent way to do this, alternate solutions and approaches are more than welcome.

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• PHP returns invalid MySQL resource

  - by DeadMG

  $LDATE = '#' . $_REQUEST['LDateDay'] . '/' . $_REQUEST['LDateMonth'] . '/' . $_REQUEST['LDateYear'] . '#'; $RDATE = '#' . $_REQUEST['RDateDay'] . '/' . $_REQUEST['RDateMonth'] . '/' . $_REQUEST['RDateYear'] . '#'; include("../../sql.php"); $myconn2 = mysql_connect(/*removed*/, $username, $password); mysql_select_db(/*removed*/, $myconn2); $LSQLRequest = "SELECT * FROM flight WHERE DepartureDate = ".$LDATE; $LFlights = mysql_query($LSQLRequest, $myconn2); $RSQLRequest = "SELECT * FROM flight WHERE DepartureDate = ".$RDATE; $RFlights = mysql_query($RSQLRequest, $myconn2); Assuming that all the $_REQUESTs are valid numerical values for their appropriate fields in the day/month/year field, how can LFlights and RFlights be invalid? When I polled the whole database I got hundreds of results so I know that the database and connection data is fine, and the field DepartureDate exists too.

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• Problem in DataBinding an Enum using dictionary approach to a combobox in WPF.

  - by Ashish Ashu

  I have a Dictionary which is binded to a combobox. I have used dictionary to provide spaces in enum. public enum Option {Enter_Value, Select_Value}; Dictionary<Option,string> Options; <ComboBox x:Name="optionComboBox" SelectionChanged="optionComboBox_SelectionChanged" SelectedValuePath="Key" DisplayMemberPath="Value" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedOption}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = Options}" /> This works fine. My queries: 1. I am not able to set the initial value to a combo box. In above XAML snippet the line SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedOption}" is not working. I have declared SelectOption in my viewmodel. This is of type string and I have intialized this string value in my view model as below: SelectedOption = Options[Options.Enter_Value].ToString(); 2. The combobox is binded to datadictionary which have two options first is "Enter_value" and second is "Select_value" which is actually Option enum. Based on the Option enum value I want to perform different action. For example if option is equal to option.Enter_value then Combo box becomes editable and user can enter the numeric value in it. if option is equal to option.Select_value value then the value comes from the database and the combo box becomes read only and shows the fetched value from the database. Please Help!!

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• C# web service, MySql encoding problem

  - by Boban

  I use C# web service to insert, delete and get data from MySql database. The problem is some of the data is in Macedonian (Cyrilic). When I insert directly in the database, it inserts ok. For example: "???" is "???". When I insert throgh the service, it's not. For example: "???" is "???". When I try to get data throug the service, it gets it ok. What's the problem with the inserting? Here is part of my code for inserting: MySqlConnection connection = new MySqlConnection(MyConString); MySqlCommand command = connection.CreateCommand(); command.CommandText = "INSERT INTO user (id_user, name VALUES (NULL, ?name);"; command.Parameters.Add("?name", MySqlDbType.VarChar).Value = name; connection.Open(); command.ExecuteReader(); connection.Close(); return thisrow; Tnq U in advance!!!

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• Why does multiple sessions started on the same page gets the same session id?

  - by Calmarius

  I tryed the following: <?php session_name('user'); session_start(); // sets an 'user' cookie with session id. // This session stores the user's login data. // Its an ordinary session. $USERSESSION=$_SESSION; // saving this session $userSessId=session_id(); session_write_close(); //closing this session session_name('chatroom'); session_start(); // set a 'chatroom' cookie but contains the same session id and points to the same data :( . // This session would be used to store the chat text. This session would be // shared between all users joined in this chat room by setting the same session id for all members. // by calling session_regenerate_id would make a diffent session id for every user and it won't be a chat room anymore. ?> So I want to do a chat like thing with sessions. On the client side it would be done with ajax that polls this php page in every 5-10 seconds. Sessions may be cached in the server's memory so it can be accessible fast. I can store the chat in the database but my service runs on a free webhost which is limited, only 4 mysql connections allowed at a time which is almost nothing. I try to touch my database as least times as possible.

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• Barcode to Product Name Converter

  - by spagetticode

  Hi All, We are designing a mobile shopping system. The camera on the phone will read the barcode and then we have to convert the barcode to a standard product name in order to save it to our database. We are saving it to our database because we are connecting to a web service of local e-commerce sites to get their price about the related product. We are sending the product name to get the price from them, so that the user can see the prices, compare and buy. We cannot send barcode number to get the data from the e-commerce sites because some sites do not have the info of the barcode number. I have to somehow get the product name by only knowing the barcode. Google returns the result when barcode number is searched. But how am I going to parse the data? or how am I going to know which answer of google search best suits my input? Is there a site that sells barcode and product name data match? We are designing the system with C# Thanks alot.

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• JSP/Struts2/Hibernate: loop through a self-referencing table.

  - by TBW

  Hello everyone, Let's say we have a self-referencing table called PERSON, with the following columns: ID, PARENT, where PARENT is a foreign key to the ID column of another element in the PERSON table. Of course, many persons can have the same parent. I use Hibernate 3 in lazy fetching mode to deal with the database. Hibernate fetches a person element from the database, which is then put in the ValueStack by the Struts2 action, to be used on the result JSP page. Now the question is : In JSP, how can I do to display all the child (and the child's child, and so on, like a family tree) of this person element? Of course, for the n+1 children I can use the < s:iterator tag over the person.person. I can also nest another < s:iterator tag over person.person.person to get the n+2 children. But what if I want to do this in an automated manner, up to the last n+p child, displaying in the process all the children of all the n+1..n+p elements? I hope I have been clear enough. Thank you all for your time. -- TBW.

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• Hibernate does not allow an embedded object with an int field to be null?

  - by Jason Novak

  Hibernate does not allow me to persist an object that contains an null embedded object with an integer field. For example, if I have a class called Thing that looks like this @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; public Part part; } where Part is an embeddable class that looks like this @Embeddable public class Part { public String a; public int b; } then trying to persist a Thing object with a null Part causes Hibernate to throw an Exception. In particular, this code Thing th = new Thing(); th.id = "thing.1"; th.part = null; session.saveOrUpdate(th); causes Hibernate to throw this Exception org.hibernate.PropertyValueException: not-null property references a null or transient value: com.ace.moab.api.jobs.Thing.part My guess is that this is happening because Part is an embedded class and so Part.a and Part.b are simply columns in the Thing database table. Since the Thing.part is null Hibernate wants to set the Part.a and Part.b column values to null for the row for thing.1. However, Part.b is an integer and Hibernate will not allow integer columns in the database to be null. This is what causes the Exception, right? So I am looking for workarounds for this problem. I noticed making Part.b an Integer instead of an int seems to work, but for reasons I won't bore you with this is not a good option for us. Thanks!

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• LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

  - by Manuel Navarro

  I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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• How to write to a text file in pipe delimited format from SQL Server / ASP.Net?

  - by NJTechGuy

  I have a text file which needs to be constantly updated (regular intervals). All I want is the syntax and possibly some code that outputs data from a SQL Server database using ASP.Net. The code I have so far is : <%@ Import Namespace="System.IO" %> <script language="vb" runat="server"> sub Page_Load(sender as Object, e as EventArgs) Dim FILENAME as String = Server.MapPath("Output.txt") Dim objStreamWriter as StreamWriter ' If Len(Dir$(FILENAME)) > 0 Then Kill(FILENAME) objStreamWriter = File.AppendText(FILENAME) objStreamWriter.WriteLine("A user viewed this demo at: " & DateTime.Now.ToString()) objStreamWriter.Close() Dim objStreamReader as StreamReader objStreamReader = File.OpenText(FILENAME) Dim contents as String = objStreamReader.ReadToEnd() lblNicerOutput.Text = contents.Replace(vbCrLf, "<br>") objStreamReader.Close() end sub </script> <asp:label runat="server" id="lblNicerOutput" Font-Name="Verdana" /> With PHP, it is a breeze, but with .Net I have no clue. If you could help me with the database connectivity and how to write the data in pipe delimited format to an Output.txt file, that had be awesome. Thanks guys!

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• Componentizing complex functionality in an MVC web app

  - by NXT

  Hi Everyone, This is question about MVC web-app architecture, and how it can be extended to handle componentizing moderately complex units of functionality. I have an MVC style web-app with a customer facing credit card charge page. I've been asked to allow the admins to enter credit card payments as well, for times when credit cards are taken over the phone. The customer facing credit card charge section of the website is currently it's own controller, with approximately 3 pages and a login. That controller is responsible for: Customer login credential authentication Credit card data collection Calling a library to do the actual charge. reporting the results to the user. I would like to extract the card data collection pages into a component of some kind so that I can easily reuse the code on the admin side of the app. Right now my components are limited to single "view" pages with PHP style embedded Perl code. This is a simple, custom MVC framework written in Perl. Right now, controllers are called directly from the framework to service web requests. My idea is to allow controllers to be called from other controllers, so that I can componentize more complex functionality. For simplicity I think I prefer composition over inheritance, even though it will require writing a bunch of pass-through methods (actions). Being Perl, I could in theory do multiple inheritance. I'm wondering if anyone with experience in other MVC web frameworks can comment on how this sort of thing is usually done. Thank you.

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• Algorithm for finding similar users through a join table

  - by Gdeglin

  I have an application where users can select a variety of interests from around 300 possible interests. Each selected interest is stored in a join table containing the columns user_id and interest_id. Typical users select around 50 interests out of the 300. I would like to build a system where users can find the top 20 users that have the most interests in common with them. Right now I am able to accomplish this using the following query: SELECT i2.user_id, count(i2.interest_id) AS count FROM interests_users as i1, interests_users as i2 WHERE i1.interest_id = i2.interest_id AND i1.user_id = 35 GROUP BY i2.user_id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 20; However, this query takes approximately 500 milliseconds to execute with 10,000 users and 500,000 rows in the join table. All indexes and database configuration settings have been tuned to the best of my ability. I have also tried avoiding the use of joins altogether using the following query: select user_id,count(interest_id) count from interests_users where interest_id in (13,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25,26,27,28,29,30,31,32,33,34,35,36,37,38,39,40,41,42,43,44,45,46,47,48,49,50,51,52,53,54,55,56,57,58,59,60,61,62,63,64,65,66,68,69,70,71,72,73,74,75,76,77,78,79,80,81,82,83,84,85,86,87,88,89,90,91,92,93,94,95,96,97,98,508) group by user_id order by count desc limit 20; But this one is even slower (~800 milliseconds). How could I best lower the time that I can gather this kind of data to below 100 milliseconds? I have considered putting this data into a graph database like Neo4j, but I am not sure if that is the easiest solution or if it would even be faster than what I am currently doing.

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• [CODE GENERATION] How to generate DELETE statements in PL/SQL, based on the tables FK relations?

  - by The chicken in the kitchen

  Is it possible via script/tool to generate authomatically many delete statements based on the tables fk relations, using Oracle PL/SQL? In example: I have the table: CHICKEN (CHICKEN_CODE NUMBER) and there are 30 tables with fk references to its CHICKEN_CODE that I need to delete; there are also other 150 tables foreign-key-linked to that 30 tables that I need to delete first. Is there some tool/script PL/SQL that I can run in order to generate all the necessary delete statements based on the FK relations for me? (by the way, I know about cascade delete on the relations, but please pay attention: I CAN'T USE IT IN MY PRODUCTION DATABASE, because it's dangerous!) I'm using Oracle DataBase 10G R2. This is the result I've written, but it is not recursive: This is a view I have previously written, but of course it is not recursive! CREATE OR REPLACE FORCE VIEW RUN ( OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME, VINCOLO ) AS SELECT OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME, '(' || LTRIM ( EXTRACT (XMLAGG (XMLELEMENT ("x", ',' || COLUMN_NAME)), '/x/text()'), ',') || ')' VINCOLO FROM ( SELECT CON1.OWNER OWNER_1, CON1.TABLE_NAME TABLE_NAME_1, CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, CON1.DELETE_RULE, CON1.STATUS, CON.TABLE_NAME, CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME, COL.POSITION, COL.COLUMN_NAME FROM DBA_CONSTRAINTS CON, DBA_CONS_COLUMNS COL, DBA_CONSTRAINTS CON1 WHERE CON.OWNER = 'TABLE_OWNER' AND CON.TABLE_NAME = 'TABLE_OWNED' AND ( (CON.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'P') OR (CON.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'U')) AND COL.TABLE_NAME = CON1.TABLE_NAME AND COL.CONSTRAINT_NAME = CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME --AND CON1.OWNER = CON.OWNER AND CON1.R_CONSTRAINT_NAME = CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME AND CON1.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'R' GROUP BY CON1.OWNER, CON1.TABLE_NAME, CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME, CON1.DELETE_RULE, CON1.STATUS, CON.TABLE_NAME, CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME, COL.POSITION, COL.COLUMN_NAME) GROUP BY OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME; ... and it contains the error of using DBA_CONSTRAINTS instead of ALL_CONSTRAINTS...

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• How should I pass the translated text to my object in my multilingual application?

  - by boatingcow

  Up until now, I have maintained a 'dictionary' table in my database, for example: +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | phrase | en | fr | etc... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | generated | Generated in %1$01.2f seconds at %2$s | Créée en %1$01.2f secondes à %2$s aujourd'hui | ... | | submit | Submit... | Envoyer... | ... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ I'll then select all rows from the database for the column that matches the locale we're interested in (or read the cache from a file to speed db lookup) and dump the dictionary into an array called $lng. Then I'll have HTML helper objects like this in my view: $html->input(array('type' => 'submit', 'value' => $lng['submit'], etc...)); ... $html->div(array('value' => sprintf($lng['generated'], $generated, date('H:i')), etc...)); The translations can appear in PDF, XLS and AJAX responses too. The problem with my approach so far is that I now have loads of global $lng; in every class where there is a function that spits out UI code.. How do other people get the translation into the object? Is it one scenario where globals aren't actually that bad? Would it be madness to create a class with accessors when the dictionary terms are all static?

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• Copy recordset data into multiple sheets to avoid problem of maximum rows limit in Excel VBA

  - by Sam

  I am developing reporting application in Excel/vba 2003. VBA code sends search query to database and gets the data through recordset. It will then be copied to one of excel sheet. The rertrieved data looks like as shown below. ProductID--|---DateProcessed--|----State----- 1................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Picked Up 1................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Forward To Approver 1................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Approver Picked Up 1................|.. 1/3/2010..............|.....Approval Completed 2................|.. 1/1/2010..............|.....Picked Up 3................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Picked Up 3................|.. 1/2/2010..............|.....Forward To Approver The problem is data retrieved from search query is so huge that it goes above the excel row limit (65536 rows in excel 2003). So I want to split this data into two excel sheets. While spliting the data I want to ensure that the data for same product shoud remain in one sheet. For example, if the last record in the above result set is 65537th record then I also want to move all records for product 3 into new sheet. So sheet1 will contain records for product id 1 and 2 with total records = 65534. Sheet 2 will cotain records for product id 3 - with total records = 2. How can I acheive this in vba? If it is not possible, is there any alternative solution ? Thanks in Advance !

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• Update a list of things without hitting every entry

  - by bobobobo

  I have a list in a database that the user should be able to order. itemname| order value (int) --------+--------------------- salad | 1 mango | 2 orange | 3 apples | 4 On load from the database, I simply order by order_value. By drag 'n drop, he should be able to move apples so that it appears at the top of the list.. itemname| order value (int) --------+--------------------- apples | 4 salad | 1 mango | 2 orange | 3 Ok. So now internally I have to update EVERY LIST ITEM! If the list has 20 or 100 items, that's a lot of updates for a simple drag operation. itemname| order value (int) --------+--------------------- apples | 1 salad | 2 mango | 3 orange | 4 I'd rather do it with only one update. One way I thought of is if "internal Order" is a double value. itemname| order value (double) --------+--------------------- salad | 1.0 mango | 2.0 orange | 3.0 apples | 4.0 SO after the drag n' drop operation, I assign apples has a value that is less than the item it is to appear in front of: itemname| order value (double) --------+--------------------- apples | 0.5 salad | 1.0 mango | 2.0 orange | 3.0 .. and if an item is dragged into the middle somewhere, its order_value is bigger than the one it appears after .. here I moved orange to be between salad and mango: itemname| order value (double) --------+--------------------- apples | 0.5 salad | 1.0 orange | 1.5 mango | 2.0 Any thoughts on better ways to do this?

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• wordpress generating slow mysql queries - is it index problem?

  - by tash

  Hello Stack Overflow I've got very slow Mysql queries coming up from my wordpress site. It's making everything slow and I think this is eating up CPU usage. I've pasted the Explain results for the two most frequently problematic queries below. This is a typical result - although very occasionally teh queries do seem to be performed at a more normal speed. I have the usual wordpress indexes on the database tables. You will see that one of the queries is generated from wordpress core code, and not from anything specific - like the theme - for my site. I have a vague feeling that the database is not always using the indexes/is not using them properly... Is this right? Does anyone know how to fix it? Or is it a different problem entirely? Many thanks in advance for any help anyone can offer - it is hugely appreciated Query: [wp-blog-header.php(14): wp()] SELECT SQL_CALC_FOUND_ROWS wp_posts.* FROM wp_posts WHERE 1=1 AND wp_posts.post_type = 'post' AND (wp_posts.post_status = 'publish' OR wp_posts.post_status = 'private') ORDER BY wp_posts.post_date DESC LIMIT 0, 6 id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE wp_posts ref type_status_date type_status_date 63 const 427 Using where; Using filesort Query time: 34.2829 (ms) 9) Query: [wp-content/themes/LMHR/index.php(40): query_posts()] SELECT SQL_CALC_FOUND_ROWS wp_posts.* FROM wp_posts WHERE 1=1 AND wp_posts.ID NOT IN ( SELECT tr.object_id FROM wp_term_relationships AS tr INNER JOIN wp_term_taxonomy AS tt ON tr.term_taxonomy_id = tt.term_taxonomy_id WHERE tt.taxonomy = 'category' AND tt.term_id IN ('217', '218', '223', '224') ) AND wp_posts.post_type = 'post' AND (wp_posts.post_status = 'publish' OR wp_posts.post_status = 'private') ORDER BY wp_posts.post_date DESC LIMIT 0, 6 id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY wp_posts ref type_status_date type_status_date 63 const 427 Using where; Using filesort 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY tr ref PRIMARY,term_taxonomy_id PRIMARY 8 func 1 Using index 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY tt eq_ref PRIMARY,term_id_taxonomy,taxonomy PRIMARY 8 antin1_lovemusic2010.tr.term_taxonomy_id 1 Using where Query time: 70.3900 (ms)

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• MySQL SELECT combining 3 SELECTs INTO 1

  - by Martin Tóth

  Consider following tables in MySQL database: entries: creator_id INT entry TEXT is_expired BOOL other: creator_id INT entry TEXT userdata: creator_id INT name VARCHAR etc... In entries and other, there can be multiple entries by 1 creator. userdata table is read only for me (placed in other database). I'd like to achieve a following SELECT result: +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | creator_id | entries | expired | other | +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | 10951 | 59 | 55 | 39 | | 70887 | 41 | 34 | 108 | | 88309 | 38 | 20 | 102 | | 94732 | 0 | 0 | 86 | ... where entries is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries GROUP BY creator_id, expired is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 0 GROUP BY creator_id and other is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM other GROUP BY creator_id. I need this structure because after doing this SELECT, I need to look for user data in the "userdata" table, which I planned to do with INNER JOIN and select desired columns. I solved this problem with selecting "NULL" into column which does not apply for given SELECT: SELECT creator_id, COUNT(any_entry) as entries, COUNT(expired_entry) as expired, COUNT(other_entry) as other FROM ( SELECT creator_id, entry AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, entry AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 1 UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, entry AS other_enry FROM other ) AS tTemp GROUP BY creator_id ORDER BY entries DESC, expired DESC, other DESC ; I've left out the INNER JOIN and selecting other columns from userdata table on purpose (my question being about combining 3 SELECTs into 1). Is my idea valid? = Am I trying to use the right "construction" for this? Are these kind of SELECTs possible without creating an "empty" column? (some kind of JOIN) Should I do it "outside the DB": make 3 SELECTs, make some order in it (let's say python lists/dicts) and then do the additional SELECTs for userdata? Solution for a similar question does not return rows where entries and expired are 0. Thank you for your time.

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• Objective C map view delegate viewForAnnotation for MKAnnotation gets just called after click

  - by user1185486

  I have a simple Map view. It has a method -(void)loadAndDisplayPois{ NSLog(@"loadAndDisplayPois"); if(mapView.annotations.count > 0) [mapView removeAnnotations:mapView.annotations]; self.pois = [self loadPoisFromDatabase]; NSLog(@"self.pois.count: %i", self.pois.count); [mapView addAnnotations:self.pois]; NSLog(@"mapView.annotations.count: %i",mapView.annotations.count);} This method gets called, and I am sure that the method gets called because of the Log, after I downloaded data and saved it into the database. The class which handles the download executes after saving the data to the database [self.senderObj performSelector:@selector(loadAndDisplayPois)]; Where senderObj is the MapViewControlller. The count Log from the pois array shows 4 after the first time I clicked. But no Annotations on the view, because viewForAnnotation is not called (one Annotation in the array ( my current position)). After I execute the method again by clicking a TEST button shows everything on the map. The viewForAnnotation method gets called after viewWillAppear and after I clicked the TEST button. It is driving me nuts since 2 days. I cant anymore ...

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• ASP.NET Web Application: use 1 or multiple virtual directories

  - by tster

  I am working on a (largish) internal web application which has multiple modules (security, execution, features, reports, etc.). All the pages in the app share navigation, CSS, JS, controls, etc. I want to make a single "Web Application" project, which includes all the pages for the app, then references various projects which will have the database and business logic in them. However, some of the people on the project want to have separate projects for the pages of each module. To make this more clear, this is what I'm advocating to be the projects. /WebInterface* /SecurityLib /ExecutionLib etc... And here is what they are advocating: /SecurityInterface* /SecutiryLib /ExecutionInterface* /ExecutionLib etc... *project will be published to a virtual directory of IIS Basically What I'm looking for is the advantages of both approaches. Here is what I can think of so far: Single Virtual Directory Pros Modules can share a single MasterPage Modules can share UserControls (this will be common) Links to other modules are within the same Virtual directory, and thus don't need to be fully qualified. Less chance of having incompatible module versions together. Multiple Virtual Directories Pros Can publish a new version of a single module without disrupting other modules Module is more compartmentalized. Less likely that changes will break other modules. I don't buy those arguments though. First, using load balanced servers (which we will have) we should be able to publish new versions of the project with zero downtime assuming there are no breaking database changes. Second, If something "breaks" another module, then there is either an improper dependency or the break will show up eventually in the other module, when the developers copy over the latest version of the UserControl, MasterPage or dll. As a point of reference, there are about 10 developers on the project for about 50% of their time. The initial development will be about 9 months.

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• Association Mapping Details confusion?

  - by AaronLS

  I have never understood why the associations in EntityFramework look the way they do in the Mapping Details window. When I select the line between 2 tables for an association, for example FK_ApplicationSectionsNodes_FormItems, it shows this: Association Maps to ApplicationSectionNodes FormItems (key symbol) FormItemId:Int32 <--> FormItemId:int ApplicationSectionNodes (key symbol) NodeId:Int32 <--> (key symbol) NodeId : int Fortunately this one was create automatically for me based on the foreign key constraints in my database, but whenever no constraints exist, I have a hard to creating associations manually(when the database doesn't have a diagram setup) because I don't understand the mapping details for associations. FormItems table has a primary key identity column FormItemId, and ApplicationSectionNodes contains a FormItemId column that is the foreign key and has NodeId as a primary key identity column. What really makes no sense to me is why the association has anything listed about the NodeId, when NodeId doesn't have anything to do with the foreign key relationship? (It's even more confusing with self referencing relationships, but maybe if I could understand the above case I'd have a better handle). CREATE TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes]( [NodeID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [OutlineText] [varchar](5000) NULL, [ParentNodeID] [int] NULL, [FormItemId] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_ApplicationSectionNodes] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [NodeID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY], CONSTRAINT [UQ_ApplicationSectionNodesFormItemId] UNIQUE NONCLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] FOREIGN KEY([ParentNodeID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] ([NodeID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItems] ([FormItemId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] GO FormItems Table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[FormItems]( [FormItemId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [FormItemType] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_FormItems] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemType]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItemTypes] ([FormItemTypeId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] GO

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• SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

  - by TheBlueSky

  Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

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