Search Results

Search found 21352 results on 855 pages for 'bit shift'.

Page 744/855 | < Previous Page | 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750 751  | Next Page >

  • Replacing characters in a non well-formed XML body

    - by ryanprayogo
    In a (Java) code that I'm working on, I sometimes deal with a non well-formed XML (represented as a Java String), such as: <root> <foo> bar & baz < quux </foo> </root> Since this XML will eventually need to be unmarshalled (using JAXB), obviously this XML as is will throw exception upon unmarshalling. What's the best way to replace the & and the < to its character entities? For &, it's as easy as: xml.replaceAll("&", "&amp;") However, for the < symbol, it's a bit tricky since obviously I don't want to replace the < that's used for the XML tag opening 'bracket'. Other than scanning the string and manually replacing < in the XML body with &lt;, what other option can you suggest?

    Read the article

  • find nearest match to array of doubles

    - by Scott
    Given the code below, how do I compare a List of objects's values with a test value? I'm building a geolocation application. I'll be passing in longitude and latitude and would like to have the service answer back with the location closest to those values. I started down the path of converting to a string, and formatting the values down to two decimal places, but that seemed a bit too ghetto, and I'm looking for a more elegant solution. public class Location : IEnumerable { public string label { get; set; } public double lat { get; set; } public double lon { get; set; } //Implement IEnumerable public IEnumerator GetEnumerator() { return (IEnumerator)this; } } [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { private List<Location> myList = new List<Location> { new Location { label="Atlanta Midtown", lon=33.657674, lat=-84.423130}, new Location { label="Atlanta Airport", lon=33.794151, lat=-84.387228}, new Location { label="Stamford, CT", lon=41.053758, lat=-73.530979}, ... } public static int Main(String[] args) { string inLat = "-80.987654"; double dblInLat = double.Parse(inLat); // here's where I would like to find the closest location to the inLat // once I figure out this, I'll implement the Longitude, and I'll be set }

    Read the article

  • calling a function from a set of overloads depending on the dynamic type of an object

    - by Jasper
    I feel like the answer to this question is really simple, but I really am having trouble finding it. So here goes: Suppose you have the following classes: class Base; class Child : public Base; class Displayer { public: Displayer(Base* element); Displayer(Child* element); } Additionally, I have a Base* object which might point to either an instance of the class Base or an instance of the class Child. Now I want to create a Displayer based on the element pointed to by object, however, I want to pick the right version of the constructor. As I currently have it, this would accomplish just that (I am being a bit fuzzy with my C++ here, but I think this the clearest way) object->createDisplayer(); virtual void Base::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } virtual void Child::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } This works, however, there is a problem with this: Base and Child are part of the application system, while Displayer is part of the GUI system. I want to build the GUI system independently of the Application system, so that it is easy to replace the GUI. This means that Base and Child should not know about Displayer. However, I do not know how I can achieve this without letting the Application classes know about the GUI. Am I missing something very obvious or am I trying something that is not possible?

    Read the article

  • "2d Search" in Solr or how to get the best item of the multivalued field 'items'?

    - by Karussell
    The title is a bit awkward but I couldn't found a better one. My problem is as follows: I have several users stored as documents and I am storing several key-value-pairs or items (which have an id) for each document. Now, if I apply highlighting I can get the first n items. If you have several hundreds of such items this highlighting is necessary and works nicely. But there are two problems: The highlighted text won't contain the id and so retrieving additional information of the highlighted item text is ugly. E.g. you need to store the id in the text so that the highlighter returns it. Adding the id to the hl.fl parameter does not help. You will not get the most relevant n-items. You will get the first n items ... So how can I find the best items of a documents with multiple such items? I will now add my own findings as answers, but as I will point out. Each of them has its drawbacks. Hopefully anyone of you can point me to a better solution.

    Read the article

  • Creating a timesheet for work using PHP MySQL

    - by Justin
    I am trying to create a time-sheet for my work. I don't know if getting myself into a lot of work by doing this as I am quiet new to PHP and MYSQL but I do have a good understanding/knowledge of the two. I want the below fields in my database. Job weekPeriod ------A list of weeks Monday Sunday dateWorked ------List Of dates in the form coming from a database e.g. 1/1/2011 startTime ------List of times from 12:00am11:00pm 30 min intervals e.g. 11:30-12:30 endTime ------List of times from 12:00am11:00pm 30 min intervals e.g. 11:30-12:30 totalHours ------Automated amount ------Automated based on dayWorked comments ------Any messages here I want to be able to fill in some drop down boxes through a form that will then submit all information to my database. I want the script to know that if the date worked is on a Weekday Mon-Fri e.g. my rate of pay is 30.00ph On a sat it is 35.00ph and on a Sunday it is 40ph I then want to create a page where i select a particular week and see how many hours i worked and how much i earn and so on. Please let me know if there is such a program already established or if this is something that requires a bit of time and if I could do it being new to PHP and MYSQL

    Read the article

  • jquery tabs - load url in current tab?

    - by BigDogsBarking
    I'm trying to figure out how to load the url each tab links to inside the tab area onclick, and have been trying to following the docs at http://docs.jquery.com/UI/Tabs#...open_links_in_the_current_tab_instead_of_leaving_the_page, but am clearly not getting it.... This is the HTML markup: <div class="tabs"> <ul class="tabNav"> <li><a href="/1.html#tabone">Tab One</a></li> <li><a href="/2.html#tabtwo">Tab Two</a></li> <li><a href="/3.html#tabthree">Tab Three</a></li> </ul> </div> <div id="tabone"> <!-- Trying to load content from 1.html in this div on click --> </div> <div id="tabtwo"> <!-- Trying to load content from 2.html in this div on click --> </div> <div id="tabthree"> <!-- Trying to load content from 3.html in this div on click --> </div> And this is the jquery I'm trying to use: $(".tabs").tabs({ load: function(event, ui) { $('a', ui.panel).click(function() { $(ui.panel).load(this.href); return false; }); } }); I know I've got some part of this wrong.... I've gone through several iterations (too many to post), and all I get is a blank div... I don't know... Feeling a bit confused here... Help?

    Read the article

  • deployd authentification using jquery ajax

    - by user2507987
    I have installed deployd in my debian 7.0.0 64 bit, I have also succesfully installed mongodb in it, I have create some collection and user collection in deployd dashboard, then using user guide how to connect and query the table in deployd, I choose jquery ajax to log in to deployd from my localhost site and after login success I try to get/post some data, but somehow deployd return access denied. I have create collection name it people, and then at the GET, POST, PUT Event I have write this code : cancelUnless(me, "You are not logged in", 401); then using this ajax code, I try to login and POST new people data: $(document).ready(function(){ /* Create query for username and password for login */ var request = new Object; request.username = 'myusername'; request.password = 'mypassword'; submitaddress = "http://myipaddress:myport/users/login"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress, data: request, cache: false, success: function(data){ var returndata = eval(data); /* After Login success try to post people data */ if (returndata){ var request2 = new Object; request2.name = 'People Name'; submitaddress2 = "http://myipaddress:myport/people"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress2, data: request2, cache: false, success: function(){ } }) } } } }); }) The login process success, it's return session id and my user id, but after login success and I try to POST people data it's return "You are not logged in", can anyone help me, what is the correct way to login to deployd using jquery from other website(cross domain)?

    Read the article

  • Question about architecting asp.net mvc application ?

    - by Misnomer
    I have read little bit about architecture and also patterns in order to follow the best practices. So this is the architecture we have and I wanted to know what you think of it and any proposed changes or improvements to it - Presentation Layer - Contains all the views,controllers and any helper classes that the view requires also it containes the reference to Model Layer and Business Layer. Business Project - Contains all the business logic and validation and security helper classes that are being used by it. It contains a reference to DataAccess Layer and Model Layer. Data Access Layer - Contains the actual queries being made on the entity classes(CRUD) operations on the entity classes. It contains reference to Model Layer. Model Layer - Contains the entity framework model,DTOs,Enums.Does not really have a reference to any of the above layers. What are your thoughts on the above architecture ? The problem is that I am getting confused by reading about like say the repository pattern, domain driven design and other design patterns. The architecture we have although not that strict still is relatively alright I think and does not really muddle things but I maybe wrong. I would appreciate any help or suggestions here. Thanks !

    Read the article

  • Does Monitor.Wait ensure that fields are re-read?

    - by Marc Gravell
    It is generally accepted (I believe!) that a lock will force any values from fields to be reloaded (essentially acting as a memory-barrier or fence - my terminology in this area gets a bit loose, I'm afraid), with the consequence that fields that are only ever accessed inside a lock do not themselves need to be volatile. (If I'm wrong already, just say!) A good comment was raised here, questioning whether the same is true if code does a Wait() - i.e. once it has been Pulse()d, will it reload fields from memory, or could they be in a register (etc). Or more simply: does the field need to be volatile to ensure that the current value is obtained when resuming after a Wait()? Looking at reflector, Wait calls down into ObjWait, which is managed internalcall (the same as Enter). The scenario in question was: bool closing; public bool TryDequeue(out T value) { lock (queue) { // arbitrary lock-object (a private readonly ref-type) while (queue.Count == 0) { if (closing) { // <==== (2) access field here value = default(T); return false; } Monitor.Wait(queue); // <==== (1) waits here } ...blah do something with the head of the queue } } Obviously I could just make it volatile, or I could move this out so that I exit and re-enter the Monitor every time it gets pulsed, but I'm intrigued to know if either is necessary.

    Read the article

  • Odd Things of ASP.NET MVC Deployment on IIS 6

    - by misaxi
    Recently, I am a bit interested in the deployment of ASP.NET MVC application on IIS6 because Phil Haack posted an easier way to deploy ASP.NET MVC application on ASP.NET 4. So I decided to see how different version of ASP.NET MVC works on different version of ASP.NET. First off, I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 project in Visual Studio 2010 and deploy it to IIS 6 on Windows Server 2003 (only .NET framework 3.5 installed). I set the application to run in ASP.NET 2.0 and no extra stuff. Because I just wanted to see what sort of error would occur. And as expected, some error was reported as following. Then, I set the Copy Local attribute of System.Web.Mvc assembly to true as following and deploy again. As a result, the application ran smoothly. I had read tons of materials talked about the mess of deploying MVC application on IIS 6. And I did fight to tackle the deploying issues in my previous project. At least, if had used Extensionless Url in your application, you should have configured wildcard mapping in IIS. But in this case, I even didn’t have chance to do so. What the heck was going on exactly? Did I discover a new continent?

    Read the article

  • Mapping element via joining table with NHibernate

    - by NhibernateIdiot
    This is stuff ive done lots of times before but my mind is just blanking at the moment, i will try and give a simple overview of my current situation. I currently have 3 tables as shown below: Office > id, name Person > id, name Office_Personnel > office_id, person_id I then have a model for Person (id, name) and Office, however the Office model contains personnel information: public class Office { int Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} ICollection<Person> Personnel {get;set;} } Mapping person is easy, but now im a bit stumped as to why office wont map properly. I chose to use a set when I was mapping the Personnel as there shouldn't be any duplicates, however it doesn't seem to work as I would expect... <set name="Personnel" table="office_personnel" cascade="all"> <key column="office_id" /> <one-to-many class="Person"/> </set> Now one thing that strikes me as odd is that there is no indication as to what person should be binding to (person_id). It keeps trying to find *office_id* column within the Person table. I'm sure this is just some simple problem and im being an idiot, but any help would be great! On a side note, I was weighing up if I should even bother having a middle man table, as I could directly put an Office_Id column within the Person table, but im not 100% sure if in my real project the Person class could be in multiple Offices further down the line...

    Read the article

  • Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

    - by devoured elysium
    When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

    Read the article

  • In Python, how to make data members visible to subclasses if not known when initializing an object ?

    - by LB
    The title is a bit long, but it should be pretty straightforward for someone well-aware of python. I'm a python newbie. So, maybe i'm doing things in the wrong way. Suppose I have a class TreeNode class TreeNode(Node): def __init__(self, name, id): Node.__init__(self, name, id) self.children = [] and a subclass with a weight: class WeightedNode(TreeNode): def __init__(self,name, id): TreeNode.__init__(self, name, id) self.weight = 0 So far, i think I'm ok. Now, I want to add an object variable called father in TreeNode so that WeightedNode has also this member. The problem is that I don't know when initializing the object who is going to be the father. I set the father afterwards with this method in TreeNode : def set_father(self, father_node): self.father = father_node The problem is then when i'm trying to access self.father in Weighted: print 'Name %s Father %s '%(self.name, self.father.name) I obtain: AttributeError: WeightedNode instance has no attribute 'father' I thought that I could make father visible by doing something in TreeNode.__init__ but i wasn't able to find what. How can i do that ? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How is an array stored in memory?

    - by George
    In an interest to delve deeper into how memory is allocated and stored, I have written an application that can scan memory address space, find a value, and write out a new value. I developed a sample application with the end goal to be able to programatically locate my array, and overwrite it with a new sequence of numbers. In this situation, I created a single dimensional array, with 5 elements, e.g. int[] array = new int[] {8,7,6,5,4}; I ran my application and searched for a sequence of the five numbers above. I was looking for any value that fell between 4 and 8, for a total of 5 numbers in a row. Unforuntately, my the sequential numbers in my array matched hundreds of results, as the numbers 4 through 8, in no particular sequence happened to be next to each other, in memory, in many situations. Is there any way to distinguish that a set of numbers within memory, represents an array, not simply integers that are next to each other? Is there any way of knowing that if I find a certain value, that the matching values proceeding it are that of an array? I would assume that when I declare int[] array, its pointing at the first address of my array, which would provide some kind of meta-data to what existed in the array, e.g. 0x123456789 meta-data, 5 - 32 bit integers 0x123456789 + 32 "8" 0x123456789 + 64 "7" 0x123456789 + 96 "6" 0x123456789 + 128 "5" 0x123456789 + 160 "4" Am I way off base?

    Read the article

  • Problem with mathamatical calculation in JQUERY

    - by Param-Ganak
    Hello friends! I have two text boxes. I enter number in one textbox. I write following JQUERY for that textbox which get executed when the focus out from first text box. The JQUERY code takes the entered value from first text box and multiply it by a decimal number 34.95 and display the answer in second text box. The code is doing the calculation little bit ok because when I enter the value 1000 in first text box it gives answer 34950 in second textbox and when I enter the value 100 in first text box it gives answer 3495.0000000000005 in second text box. **Please any one tell me what is the problem. is problem is in my JQUERY code. I also want to show the answer always in decimal point. Answer should always dislply only two digits after decimal point. so How to achieve this too.** This is my JQUERY code. $("#id_pvalue").focusout(function() { q=$("#id_pvalue").val(); var ans=q*34.95; $("#id_tvalue").val(ans); }); Please guide me friends! Thank You!

    Read the article

  • (How) Can I approximate a "dynamic" index (key extractor) for Boost MultiIndex?

    - by Sarah
    I have a MultiIndex container of boost::shared_ptrs to members of class Host. These members contain private arrays bool infections[NUM_SEROTYPES] revealing Hosts' infection statuses with respect to each of 1,...,NUM_SEROTYPES serotypes. I want to be able to determine at any time in the simulation the number of people infected with a given serotype, but I'm not sure how: Ideally, Boost MultiIndex would allow me to sort, for example, by Host::isInfected( int s ), where s is the serotype of interest. From what I understand, MultiIndex key extractors aren't allowed to take arguments. An alternative would be to define an index for each serotype, but I don't see how to write the MultiIndex container typedef ... in such an extensible way. I will be changing the number of serotypes between simulations. (Do experienced programmers think this should be possible? I'll attempt it if so.) There are 2^(NUM_SEROTYPES) possible infection statuses. For small numbers of serotypes, I could use a single index based on this number (or a binary string) and come up with some mapping from this key to actual infection status. Counting is still darn slow. I could maintain a separate structure counting the total numbers of infecteds with each serotype. The synchrony is a bit of a pain, but the memory is fine. I would prefer a slicker option, since I would like to do further sorts on other host attributes (e.g., after counting the number infected with serotype s, count the number of those infected who are also in a particular household and have a particular age). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Color banding only on Android 4.0+

    - by threeshinyapples
    On emulators running Android 4.0 or 4.0.3, I am seeing horrible colour banding which I can't seem to get rid of. On every other Android version I have tested, gradients look smooth. I have a SurfaceView which is configured as RGBX_8888, and the banding is not present in the rendered canvas. If I manually dither the image by overlaying a noise pattern at the end of rendering I can make the gradients smooth again, though obviously at a cost to performance which I'd rather avoid. So the banding is being introduced later. I can only assume that, on 4.0+, my SurfaceView is being quantized to a lower bit-depth at some point between it being drawn and being displayed, and I can see from a screen capture that gradients are stepping 8 values at a time in each channel, suggesting a quantization to 555 (not 565). I added the following to my Activity onCreate function, but it made no difference. getWindow().setFormat(PixelFormat.RGBA_8888); getWindow().addFlags(WindowManager.LayoutParams.FLAG_DITHER); I also tried putting the above in onAttachedToWindow() instead, but there was still no change. (I believe that RGBA_8888 is the default window format anyway for 2.2 and above, so it's little surprise that explicitly setting that format has no effect on 4.0+.) Which leaves the question, if the source is 8888 and the destination is 8888, what is introducing the quantization/banding and why does it only appear on 4.0+? Very puzzling. I wonder if anyone can shed some light?

    Read the article

  • Creating a Month Dropdown in C# ASP.NET MVC

    - by Chris M
    This method seems stupid and a bit heavy; is there a more optimal way of creating the same thing (its for an MVC View Dropdown) private List<KeyValuePair<int, string>> getMonthListDD { get { var dDur = new List<KeyValuePair<int, string>>(); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(1, "January")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(2, "Febuary")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(3, "March")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(4, "April")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(5, "May")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(6, "June")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(7, "July")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(8, "August")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(9, "September")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(10, "October")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(11, "November")); dDur.Add(new KeyValuePair<int, string>(12, "December")); return dDur; } }

    Read the article

  • C++ Using a class from a header within a class

    - by Kotsuzui
    I'm having a bit of trouble with classes used within classes, from header files. I have an class time in time.h: class Time { private: int hour, second, minute; public: . . . int getHour(int h); etc. setHour(); etc. void print24hour(); // Prints time in 24 hour format } And then, main.cpp: #include "time.h" class Class { private: string name; double grade; Time startTime; Time endTime; public: Class(); ~Class(); void setName(); void setGrade(); etc. } int main() { //Need to print time in 24 hour format, but I don't know how. class[i].startTime.print24(getStartTime()); // ??? I'm rather lost } I get quite a few "hour, second, minute, etc." are private errors, I'm guessing I'm doing something simple in a rather wrong way. Please help.

    Read the article

  • GetLongPathName Undeclared

    - by iwizardpro
    When I try to compile my code with the function GetLongPathName(), the compiler tells me that the function is undeclared. I have already read the MSDN documentation located @ http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa364980%28VS.85%29.aspx. But, even though I included those header files, I am still getting the undeclared function error. Which header file(s) am I supposed to include when using the function? #include <Windows.h> #include <WinBase.h> #define DLLEXPORT extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) DLLEXPORT char* file_get_long(char* path_original) { long length = 0; TCHAR* buffer = NULL; if(!path_original) { return "-10"; } length = GetLongPathName(path_original, NULL, 0); if(length == 0) { return "-10"; } buffer = new TCHAR[length]; length = GetLongPathName(path_original, buffer, length); if(length == 0) { return "-10"; } return buffer; } And, if it makes a difference, I am currently compiling using Dev-C++ on a Windows Vista 64-bit.

    Read the article

  • Importing a Mercurial repository automatically (e.g. SVN Externals)

    - by dawmail333
    I have a project that I am developing built off CodeIgniter. The main part of the project is a private system I am creating, but I want to add it to source control, to gain all the associated goodies. Now I'm using Mercurial, so I did the whole hg init bit, so I've got the repository set up. Now, one of the things I've done is to make a library for CodeIgniter, which I use in this project. Now I want to make this library open, so I need a separate repo for that. For anyone unfamiliar with CodeIgniter library development, here's a reference: application /config <- configuration files /libraries <- library logic in here Now I will probably develop a few more libraries in the course of this project, so I can't just dump a repo in the application folder without clumping them all together. What I did was this: dev/ci/library <- library here dev/project <- project here Now in both of those folders, I have made a repository. What I want to do is make the project repository automatically reference the library repository, so I can have a private and a public repository, as I explained earlier. The main way to do this, I have read, is to use subrepositories, but I can only find examples on nested ones (which are unclear anyway, I find). How do I make it reference another repository like svn:externals?

    Read the article

  • Saving Data to Relational Database (Entity Framework)

    - by sheefy
    I'm having a little bit of trouble saving data to a database. Basically, I have a main table that has associations to other tables (Example Below). Tbl_Listing ID UserID - Associated to ID in User Table CategoryID - Associated to ID in Category Table LevelID - Associated to ID in Level Table. Name Address Normally, it's easy for me to add data to the DB (using Entity Framework). However, I'm not sure how to add data to the fields with associations. The numerous ID fields just need to hold an int value that corresponds with the ID in the associated table. For example; when I try to access the column in the following manner I get a "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." error. Listing NewListing = new Listing(); NewListing.Tbl_User.ID = 1; NewListing.Tbl_Category.ID = 2; ... DBEntities.AddToListingSet(NewListing); DBEntities.SaveChanges(); I am using NewListing.Tbl_User.ID instead of NewListing.UserID because the UserID field is not available through intellisense. If I try and create an object for each related field I get a "The relationship between the two objects cannot be defined because they are attached to different ObjectContext objects." error. With this method, I am trying to add the object without the .ID shown above - example NewListing.User = UserObject. I know this should be simple as I just want to reference the ID from the associated table in the main Listing's table. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance, -S

    Read the article

  • Serializing an extended form object

    - by andyperfect
    I've been reading up on this whole subject, but I never came across this specific problem. I already understand that the whole idea of serializing an entire form is a horrible idea and just doesn't work. But, I am encountering a bit of a different problem. I have a class that inherits the "button" form object, that I call DataButton. Now for my problem. I want to be able to serialize this class, but I don't need any of the information from the actual button class. Is there any way to bypass the fact that I can't set the button form object to Serializable() and notify VB that when serialization is to occur, it should simply skip over that information? Theoretically, if such a procedure were possible, I'd be able to do the entire serialization without a hitch. I came up with the idea earlier of removing the "inherits" feature from the class, and having simply a button within the class, but that makes my program really difficult to work with as I am constantly changing the location, size, backgroundImage, text, and whatnot. Thus, immediate updates would be much tougher to work with. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • IE7 (sometimes) not showing website properly

    - by Ra y Mon
    We are a bit desperate... We have launched our website http://www.buscounviaje.com We tested all browsers (IE6-8, Firefox, Safari, Chrome, ...) to make sure everything was OK. However, there are some users (IE7 and IE6) that are complaining that they see everything 'white' with black letters (i.e. CSS styles not being applied). One user said he was getting an "Error 0: Object expected" However, we do not see that error in Firebug, nor on our local installations of IE6&7. Other users with IE6&7 are also visualizing the web correctly. We have no idea where the problem could be, and we cannot test it because our IE6&7 work fine. Anyone sees the web page without styles and give us a hint on where the problem might be? Reasons we can think of... we are compressing js and css and some versions of IE6&7 are not able to decompress them we are trying to use a non-existing object in javascript and some versions of IE6&7 do not like it the cache does not seem to be the problem... we guided a user through emptying his cache and he could still not see the web site correctly.

    Read the article

  • Why is Apache + Rails is spitting out two status headers for code 500?

    - by Daniel Beardsley
    I have a rails app that is working fine except for one thing. When I request something that doesn't exist (i.e. /not_a_controller_or_file.txt) and rails throws a "No Route matches..." exception, the response is this (blank line intentional): HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Thu, 02 Oct 2008 10:28:02 GMT Content-Type: text/html Content-Length: 122 Vary: Accept-Encoding Keep-Alive: timeout=15, max=100 Connection: Keep-Alive Status: 500 Internal Server Error Content-Type: text/html <html><body><h1>500 Internal Server Error</h1></body></html> I have the ExceptionLogger plugin in /vendor, though that doesn't seem to be the problem. I haven't added any error handling beyond the custom 500.html in public (though the response doesn't contain that HTML) and I have no idea where this bit of html is coming from. So Something, somewhere is adding that HTTP/1.1 200 status code too early, or the Status: 500 too late. I suspect it's Apache because I get the appropriate HTTP/1.1 500 header (at the top) when I use Webrick. My production stack is as follows: Apache 2 Mongrel (5 instances) RubyOnRails 2.1.1 (happens in both 1.2 and 2.1.1) I forgot to mention, the error is caused by a "no route matches..." exception

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750 751  | Next Page >