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• recursive wget with hotlinked requisites

  - by dongle

  I often use wget to mirror very large websites. Sites that contain hotlinked content (be it images, video, css, js) pose a problem, as I seem unable to specify that I would like wget to grab page requisites that are on other hosts, without having the crawl also follow hyperlinks to other hosts. For example, let's look at this page https://dl.dropbox.com/u/11471672/wget-all-the-things.html Let's pretend that this is a large site that I would like to completely mirror, including all page requisites – including those that are hotlinked. wget -e robots=off -r -l inf -pk ^^ gets everything but the hotlinked image wget -e robots=off -r -l inf -pk -H ^^ gets everything, including hotlinked image, but goes wildly out of control, proceeding to download the entire web wget -e robots=off -r -l inf -pk -H --ignore-tags=a ^^ gets the first page, including both hotlinked and local image, does not follow the hyperlink to the site outside of scope, but obviously also does not follow the hyperlink to the next page of the site. I know that there are various other tools and methods of accomplishing this (HTTrack and Heritrix allow for the user to make a distinction between hotlinked content on other hosts vs hyperlinks to other hosts) but I'd like to see if this is possible with wget. Ideally this would not be done in post-processing, as I would like the external content, requests, and headers to be included in the WARC file I'm outputting.

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• How do I simplify my code?

  - by Mitchell Skurnik

  I just finished creating my first major application in C#/Silverlight. In the end the total line count came out to over 12,000 lines of code. Considering this was a rewrite of a php/javascript application I created 2 years that was over 28,000 lines I am actually quite proud of my accomplishment. After reading many questions and answers here on stackoverflow and other sites online, I followed many posters advice: I created classes, procedures, and such for things that I would have a year ago copied and pasted; I created logic charts to figure out complex functions; making sure there are no crazy hidden characters (used tabs instead of spaces); and a few others things; place comments where necessary (I have lots of comments). My application consists of 4 tiles laid out horizontally that have user controls loaded into each slice. You can have between one and four slices loaded at anytime. If you have once slice loaded, the slice takes up the entire artboard...if you have 2 loaded, each take up half, 3 a third, 4 a quarter. Each one of these slices represent (for the sake of this example) a light control. Each slice has 3 slider controls in it. Now when I coded the functionality of the sliders, I used a switch/case statement inside of a public function that would run the command on the specified slice/slider. The made for some duplicate code but I saw no way around it as each slice was named differently. So I would do slice1.my.commands(); slice2.my.commands(); etc. My question to you is how do I clean up my code even futher? (Sadly I cannot post any of my code). Is there any way to take this repetion out of my code?

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• Layering Images & Click to Choose Using Javascript

  - by rneal

  So I'm making a gallery of fabrics and backgrounds for letters for a fraternity/sorority store in my college's town. If you don't know what I'm talking about, this is a fabric letter. You can see how it has a white outline (background) and a red inside (foreground). WELL, I want to make it so you can change both the foreground and background, simply by clicking it's similar image. This is what I have so far <script type="text/javascript">// <![CDATA[ function changeImage(filename) { document.mainimage.src = filename; }// ]]></script> with these for each fabrics: <a href="javascript:changeImage('/wp-content/themes/collegiateconnectionbg/images/fabrics/foregrounds/37.jpg')"> <img src="/wp-content/themes/collegiateconnectionbg/images/fabrics/foregrounds/37.jpg" alt="" width="100px" height="50px" /></a> I really like how this works, but it's only good for one layer. Is there anyway I can add a layer below it, but still make it show at the top of the page? I know I'll have to use photoshop and transparency for both options, thats no problem, but I wanted to make sure I can do this before I start creating 600+ images. I know I can play with z-index and css, but since I'm using wordpress the one example I read about here wasn't working or I didn't completely understand it, and messed up my entire page. Also here's my tester webpage to see the current code in work. (if you click the navy&white stars image, you can see a very rough makeshift "A") Thanks in advance!

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• [Rails3] How to do multiple many to many relationships between the same two tables.

  - by Kurt

  Hi. I have a model of a club where I want to model the two entities Meeting and Member. There are actually two many-to-many relationships between these entities though, as for any meeting a Member can either be a Speaker or a Guest. Now I am an OO thinker, so would normally just create the two classes and each one would just have two arrays of the other inside, but rails is making me think a bit more data centric here, so I realise I need to break these M2M relationships up with join tables Speakers and Guests which I have done, but now I am having trouble describing the relationships in the models. The two join table models both have "belongs_to :meeting" and "belongs_to :member" and I think that should be sufficient. I am not however sure about the Meeting and Member models though. Each one has "has_many :guests" and "has_many: speakers" but I am not sure if I also want to go: has_many :members, :through = :guests has_many :members, :through = :speakers But I suspect that this is like declaring two "members" that will clash. I also thought about: has_many :guests, :through = :guests has_many :speakers, :through = :speakers Does that make sense? How would ActiveRecord know that they are in fact Members? I have found heaps of examples of polymorphic m2m relationships and m2m relationships where 1 table references itself, but no good examples to help me mode this situation where two separate tables have two different m2m relationships. Anyone got any tips?

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• Hide form if javascript disabled

  - by Kero

  I need to check on disabling JavaScript if the user disabled JavaScript from browser or firewall or any other place he will never show the form. I have lots of search and solutions, but unfortunately didn't got the right one. - Using style with no-script tag: This one could be broke with removing style... <noscript> <style type="text/css"> .HideClass { display:none; } </style> </noscript> The past code will work just fine but there is lots of problems in no-script tag as here Beside that i don't want to redirect user with no-script tag too...Beside that i can quickly stop loading the page to broke this meta or disable Meta tag from IE: <meta http-equiv="refresh" content="0; URL=Frm_JavaScriptDisable.aspx" /> Another way to redirect user with JavaScript but this will work let's say for 99% of users and this one isn't lovely way and will slow down the website... window.location="http://www.location.com/page.aspx"; Is there is any other ideas or suggestions to secure working with JavaScript...and prevent user from entering the website or see my form except when JavaScript enabled...

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• C# and ASP.NET MVC: Using #if directive in a view

  - by Mega Matt

  Hi all, I've got a conditional compilation symbol I'm using called "RELEASE", that I indicated in my project's properties in Visual Studio. I want some particular CSS to be applied to elements when the RELEASE symbol is defined, and I was trying to do that from the view, but it doesn't seem to be working. My view code looks like this (shortened a bit for demo purposes): <% #if (RELEASE) %> <div class="releaseBanner">Banner text here</div> <% #else %> <div class="debugBanner">Banner text here</div> <% #endif %> With this code, and with the RELEASE symbol set, the 'else' code is running and I'm getting a div with the debugBanner class. So it doesn't seem to think that RELEASE is defined. It's worth noting that my actual C# code in .cs files is recognizing RELEASE and runs the correct code. It's only the view that is giving me the problem. Does anyone have any insight into this? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.

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• Automatic adition of `using` in CodeRush.

  - by drasto

  I just installed CodeRush Pro (evaluation trial) for Visual Studio and I can say I like it much so far. Comparing to Resharper there is only one type of feature I'm really missing. It is the way CodeRush deals with using. When I type some class name that is not declared in some package listed in using, CodeRush underlines it red as an error(what it is) but if I hover over it with cursor it does not offer me to add using, it merely says it is "Undeclared element". I have to use VS default using addition (move caret to the identifier, hover cursor over that really small box that appears under first letter, click the button that appears and choose for example using System form a drop down menu). Is there a way how to configure CodeRush to offer mi add using when I hover a cursor over highlighted "issue"(that says Undeclared element)? The second part of this is that Resharper has somethink called Type name completion. It some improved intellisense. Lets say you have no using declaration in your file. Then you type something like ICompar and press CTRL+SPACE. Of cause there will be no suggestions. But with Resharper you can press CTRL+ALT+SPACE and you get suggestions of all classes starting with ICompar even if they are not in using. When you choose one of them the correct using is automatically added for you. Is there a way to make CodeRush behave this way ?

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• How do I specify the foreign key on a many-to-one relationship when is not a property on the object

  - by jjujuma

  I'm trying to map a many-to-one relationship from MarketMenuBranch to Market. My classes look like: public class Market implements Serializable { private int id; private String name; private List<MarketMenuBranch> marketMenuBranches; // accessors / mutators etc... public class MarketMenuBranch implements Serializable { private MarketMenuBranchId id; private String name; // accessors / mutators etc... public class MarketMenuBranchId implements Serializable { private int marketId; private int sequence; // accessors / mutators etc... But I don't know what I can put for the property name (where I have ???? below). I really want to put id.marketId but that seems to be wrong. <class name="MarketMenuBranch" table="MARKET_MENU_BRANCH"> <composite-id name="id" class="MarketMenuBranchId"> <key-property name="marketId"/> <key-property name="sequence"/> </composite-id> <property name="name"/> <many-to-one name="????????"/> </class> How can I do this?

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• Rails nested association issue

  - by Ben Langfeld

  Ok, so I'm new to both Ruby and Rails and I'm trying to do what I believe is called a nested association (please correct me if this is the wrong terminology). I currently have a User model and a Domains model and I have many to many associations setup (using has_many :through) between the two, and this works fine. I now want to extend this to allow for a single role per domain per user (eg User1 is a member of Domain1 and has the role "Admin"). I have setup a Roles model with a single field (name:string) and have created three roles. I have also added a role_id column to the join table (memberships). I expected (and this is probably the issue) to be able to just use user1 = User.find(1) user1.domains.first => <some domain object> user1.domains.first.role => <some role object> but this returns a method not defined error. Can anyone tell me what I'm failing to grasp here? My model classes can be seen at http://gist.github.com/388200

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• Java: How ArrayList memory management

  - by cka3o4nik

  In my Data Structures class we have studies the Java ArrayList class, and how it grows the underlying array when a user adds more elements. That is understood. However, I cannot figure out how exactly this class frees up memory when lots of elements are removed from the list. Looking at the source, there are three methods that remove elements: [code] public E remove(int index) { RangeCheck(index); modCount++; E oldValue = (E) elementData[index]; int numMoved = size - index - 1; if (numMoved 0) System.arraycopy(elementData, index+1, elementData, index, numMoved); elementData[--size] = null; // Let gc do its work return oldValue; } public boolean remove(Object o) { if (o == null) { for (int index = 0; index < size; index++) if (elementData[index] == null) { fastRemove(index); return true; } } else { for (int index = 0; index < size; index++) if (o.equals(elementData[index])) { fastRemove(index); return true; } } return false; } private void fastRemove(int index) { modCount++; int numMoved = size - index - 1; if (numMoved 0) System.arraycopy(elementData, index+1, elementData, index, numMoved); elementData[--size] = null; // Let gc do its work } {/code] None of them reduce the datastore array. I even started questioning if memory free up ever happens, but empirical tests show that it does. So there must be some other way it is done, but where and how? I checked the parent classes as well with no success.

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• Speed of Synchronization vs Normal

  - by Swaranga Sarma

  I have a class which is written for a single thread with no methods being synchronized. class MyClass implements MyInterface{ //interface implementation methods, not synchronized } But we also needed a synchronized version of the class. So we made a wrapper class that implements the same interface but has a constructor that takes an instance of MyClass. Any call to the methods of the synchronized class are delegated to the instance of MyClass. Here is my synchronized class.. class SynchronizedMyClass implements MyInterface{ //the constructor public SynchronizedMyClass(MyInterface i/*this is actually an instance of MyClass*/) //interface implementation methods; all synchronized; all delegated to the MyInterface instance } After all this I ran numerous amounts of test runs with both the classes. The tests involve reading log files and counting URLs in each line. The problem is that the synchronized version of the class is consistently taking less time for the parsing. I am using only one thread for the teste, so there is no chance of deadlocks, race around condition etc etc. Each log file contains more than 5 million lines which means calling the methods more than 5 million times. Can anyone explain why synchronized versiuon of the class migt be taking less time than the normal one?

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• Need help: input int from console and pass it into method in different class and do math

  - by christophe

  i'm a beginner, Need help, Please!!! I want to read optional number "a" from console and then store it in variable to use as passing to a different class (different .java file). and pint the sum separetely by optional inputting. How do i code the 2 classes? thanks /* * DemoApp.java */ public class DemoApp { public static void main(String[] args) { Scanner input = new Scanner(System.in); int a; System.out.println("Input one of the following 3 numbers: 100, 200, 300"); System.out.print("Enter: "); a = input.nextInt(); TestApplication testapp = new TestApplication(); testapp.test(a); } } /* * TestApplication.java * */ public class TestApplication { private int a; public void test(int a) { this.a = a; // TODO: where to get the "a"? (entered by users from console) System.out.println("The number_a was passed in: "+a); } protected void printNum() throws Exception { int num; switch (a) { case 100: num = num + 10; break; case 200: num = num + 20; break; case 300: num = num + 30; break; default: // TODO: unexpected number input. throw(); break; } System.out.println("I got a sum number"+num); } }

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• Could this be considered a well-written class (am I using OOP correctly)?

  - by Ben Dauphinee

  I have been learning OOP principals on my own for a while, and taken a few cracks at writing classes. What I really need to know now is if I am actually using what I have learned correctly, or if I could improve as far as OOP is concerned. I have chopped a massive portion of code out of a class that I have been working on for a while now, and pasted it here. To all you skilled and knowledgeable programmers here I ask: Am I doing it wrong? class acl extends genericAPI{ // -- Copied from genericAPI class protected final function sanityCheck($what, $check, $vars){ switch($check){ case 'set': if(isset($vars[$what])){return(1);}else{return(0);} break; } } // --------------------------------- protected $db = null; protected $dataQuery = null; public function __construct(Zend_Db_Adapter_Abstract $db, $config = array()){ $this->db = $db; if(!empty($config)){$this->config = $config;} } protected function _buildQuery($selectType = null, $vars = array()){ // Removed switches for simplicity sake $this->dataQuery = $this->db->select( )->from( $this->config['table_users'], array('tf' => '(CASE WHEN count(*) > 0 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END)') )->where( $this->config['uidcol'] . ' = ?', $vars['uid'] ); } protected function _sanityRun_acl($sanitycheck, &$vars){ switch($sanitycheck){ case 'uid_set': if(!$this->sanityCheck('uid', 'set', $vars)){ throw new Exception(ERR_ACL_NOUID); } $vars['uid'] = settype($vars['uid'], 'integer'); break; } } private function user($action = null, $vars = array()){ switch($action){ case 'exists': $this->_sanityRun_acl('uid_set', $vars); $this->_buildQuery('user_exists_idcheck', $vars); return($this->db->fetchOne($this->dataQuery->__toString())); break; } } public function user_exists($uid){ return($this->user('exists', array('uid' => $uid))); } } $return = $acl_test->user_exists(1);

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• XSLT apply attribute depending on position

  - by Burt

  I am using XSLT for a website based on the 960 grid css framework. I have columns of divs that span across the page if it is the first div in a row it should have a class first applied, if it is the middle one then no class and if it is the 3rd in the row it should have the class last applied. I am really scratching my head as the best way to go about this any help is appreciated. Below is the structure I want to end up with, the numbers inside the divs represent the position. <div class="container_12"> <div id="main-content" class="alpha grid_12" style="margin-bottom: 20px;"> <div class="grid_4 alpha"> 1 </div> <div class="grid_4 "> 2 </div> <div class="grid_4 omega"> 3 </div> <div class="grid_4 alpha"> 4 </div> </div> </div>

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• Pointers to a typed variable in C#: Interfase, Generic, object or Class? (Boxing/Unboxing)

  - by PaulG

  First of all, I apologize if this has been asked a thousand times. I read my C# book, I googled it, but I can't seem to find the answer I am looking for, or I am missing the point big time. I am very confused with the whole boxing/unboxing issue. Say I have fields of different classes, all returning typed variables (e.g. 'double') and I would like to have a variable point to any of these fields. In plain old C I would do something like: double * newVar; newVar = &oldVar; newVar = &anotherVar; ... In C#, it seems I could do an interfase, but would require that all fields be properties and named the same. Breaks apart when one of the properties doesn't have the same name or is not a property. I could also create a generic class returning double, but seems a bit absurd to create a class to represent a 'double', when a 'double' class already exists. If I am not mistaken, it doesn't even need to be generic, could be a simple class returning double. I could create an object and box the typed variable to the newly created object, but then I would have to cast every time I use it. Of course, I always have the unsafe option... but afraid of getting to unknown memory space, divide by zero and bring an end to this world. None of these seem to be the same as the old simple 'double * variable'. Am I missing something here?

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• Html.Editor() helper in ASP.NET MVC 3 does not work as expected with array in model

  - by SlimShaggy

  In my ASP.NET MVC 3 application I have classes like the following: public class Localization<T> { public int VersionID { get; set; } public T Value { get; set; } ... } public class Localizable<T> { public Localization<T>[] Name { get; set; } ... } Then, I have the following view: @model dynamic ... @for (int i = 0; i < VersionCount; i++) { ... @Html.Editor(string.Format("Name[{0}.Value", i)) ... } Now, when I display this view, passing a subclass of Localizable<string> as the model, the textboxes for the strings are rendered, but they are empty. If I replace @Html.Editor(string.Format("Name[{0}.Value", i)) with @InputExtensions.TextBox(Html, string.Format("Name[{0}].Value", i), Model.Name[i].Value), the textboxes are correctly filled with values from the model. However, using TextBox instead of Editor is not an option for me, because I want to use different editor templates for different types of T. So, what am I doing wrong, or is it a bug in MVC, and is there any workaround?

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• How can I differentiate two different touches on a layer ?

  - by srikanth rongali

  I am writing an app in cocos2d. I hava a sprite and a text in my scene. I have written two separate classes for sprite and text. And I added both of them to another class. In sprite class I have written - (void)ccTouchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event And in text class I have written -(void) registerWithTouchDispatcher { [[CCTouchDispatcher sharedDispatcher]addTargetedDelegate:self priority:0 swallowsTouches:YES]; } -(BOOL) ccTouchBegan:(UITouch *)touch withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { return YES; } -(void) ccTouchEnded:(UITouch *)touch withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSLog(@"Recognized tOuches in Instructions");// CGSize windowSize = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] winSize]; CCNode *node = [self getChildByTag:kTagNode]; [node setPosition: ccp(text1.contentSize.width/2,text1.contentSize.height/2 - windowSize.height)]; } -(void) ccTouchMoved:(UITouch *)touch withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { CGPoint touchLocation = [touch locationInView: [touch view]]; CGPoint prevLocation = [touch previousLocationInView: [touch view]]; touchLocation = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] convertToGL: touchLocation]; prevLocation = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] convertToGL: prevLocation]; CGPoint diff = ccpSub(touchLocation,prevLocation); CCNode *node = [self getChildByTag:kTagNode]; CGPoint currentPos = [node position]; [node setPosition: ccpAdd(currentPos, diff)]; } But, only touches in the text are recognized and touch of sprite is not recognized ? How can I differentiate the two touches.

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• java script is not working in mozila

  - by Piyush

  I have added some javascript in html page for input validation.same page is working correct in IE and chrome but in mozila its not working.The problem is when user inputs invalid data its supposed to show alert msg box and when user clicks OK it should return false to form...BUT mozila is not waiting for alert box it just shows alert box for 5-6 sec and then goes to next page defined in form action="nextpage.php" function validate_form(thisform) { with (thisform) { if (validate_required(oldpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the Old Password!") == false) { changeColor("oldpassword"); return false; } else if (valid_length(newpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the New Password!!") == false) {newpassword.value=""; changeColor("newpassword"); return false; } else if (valid_length(cnfpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the Confirm Password!!") == false) {cnfpassword.value=""; changeColor("cnfpassword"); return false; } else if (document.getElementById('newpassword').value != document.getElementById('cnfpassword').value) {changeColor("newpassword");cool.error("<b>Error: </b>Passwords entered are not same!"); newpassword.value="";cnfpassword.value="";return false;} } }function validate_required(field, alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value == null || value == "") { cool.error(alerttxt);return false; } else { return true; } } } cool.error is nothing but CSS nd Js for alert box.I thing there is not any problem in my code weather problem is in some browser settings.Is it so??? because it is working fine in IE and Chrome.

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• C# Function Inheritance--Use Child Class Vars with Base Class Function

  - by Sean O'Connor

  Good day, I have a fairly simple question to experienced C# programmers. Basically, I would like to have an abstract base class that contains a function that relies on the values of child classes. I have tried code similar to the following, but the compiler complains that SomeVariable is null when SomeFunction() attempts to use it. Base class: public abstract class BaseClass { protected virtual SomeType SomeVariable; public BaseClass() { this.SomeFunction(); } protected void SomeFunction() { //DO SOMETHING WITH SomeVariable } } A child class: public class ChildClass:BaseClass { protected override SomeType SomeVariable=SomeValue; } Now I would expect that when I do: ChildClass CC=new ChildClass(); A new instance of ChildClass should be made and CC would run its inherited SomeFunction using SomeValue. However, this is not what happens. The compiler complains that SomeVariable is null in BaseClass. Is what I want to do even possible in C#? I have used other managed languages that allow me to do such things, so I certain I am just making a simple mistake here. Any help is greatly appreciated, thank you.

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• How to create reference tables using fluent nhibernate

  - by Akk

  How can i create a 3 table schema from the following model classes. public class Product { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public IList<Photo> Photos {get; set;} } public class Photo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Path {get; set;} } I want to create the following table structure in the database: Product ------- Id Name ProductPhotos ------------- ProductId (FK Products.Id) PhotoId (FK Photos.Id) Photos ------ Id Path How i can express the above Database Schema using Fluent NHibernate? I could only manage the following the Mapping but this does not get me the 3rd Photo ref table. public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public CityMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Table("Products"); HasMany(x => x.Photos).Table("ProductPhotos").KeyColumn("ProductId"); } }

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• how do i call methods from another class in android?

  - by Phani Gargey

  I have two classes in question. Both extend Activity. Class A public void displayinfo() { setContentView(R.layout.dynamicinfo); //Add some buttons dynamically here //do some processing // move on to Class B } In Class B: I want to go back to Class A state in UI if BACK button is pressed. Class B //Register a listener for this button Backbutton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View arg0) { Log.i("setOnClickListener", "Pressed Back Button "); Toast.makeText(mycontext, "Pressed Back Button", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); //HERE I want to go back class's function in UI as well as restoring the sttae for that screen. } how do I do that? I looked around some questions. they did not answer clearly what I am looking for.hence the posting. thanks.I think I was adding my own Back button on the Layout I created in the Class B's UI Screen --not using the regular "Back" button on the key board. May be that was the problem.

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• How difficult is it to write our own Robots API, similar to G Wave Robots API ? Please read the deta

  - by user169650

  Consider the following entities : a) My own Wave-server b) My own Robots API c) Tomcat d) Google wave server/any other wave server Let us consider that a and d interact with one another via Google wave federation protocol. Now, I want to write my own Robots API in Java (similar to that of G Wave Robots API) using which I want to create Robots; which I want to host in entity c), which may in-turn connect to a) for listening to events and responding with operations. Let us consider that a) is already in place, i.e. implemented. Let us also consider that the Robot running on tomcat and entity a) are co-located, so that we do not need to use JSON-RPC for receiving events/sending operations; instead we can use Java interfaces. Now, my questions are : 1.How much of an effort is it to write my own Robots API to run on a tomcat container ? 2.What are the salient points to be taken care of ? Am I missing some important point here ? 3.How can I reuse some of the classes/packages/interfaces (e.g. com.google.wave.api.AbstractRobot, com.google.wave.api.event) with little/no changes at all ?

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• when is a v-table created in C++?

  - by saminny

  When exactly does the compiler create a virtual function table? 1) when the class contains at least one virtual function. OR 2) when the immediate base class contains at least one virtual function. OR 3) when any parent class at any level of the hierarchy contains at least one virtual function. A related question to this: Is it possible to give up dynamic dispatch in a C++ hierarchy? e.g. consider the following example. #include <iostream> using namespace std; class A { public: virtual void f(); }; class B: public A { public: void f(); }; class C: public B { public: void f(); }; Which classes will contain a V-Table? Since B does not declare f() as virtual, does class C get dynamic polymorphism?

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• Generic Func<> as parameter to base method

  - by WestDiscGolf

  I might be losing the plot, but I hope someone can point me in the right direction. What am I trying to do? I'm trying to write some base methods which take Func< and Action so that these methods handle all of the exception handling etc. so its not repeated all over the place but allow the derived classes to specify what actions it wants to execute. So far this is the base class. public abstract class ServiceBase<T> { protected T Settings { get; set; } protected ServiceBase(T setting) { Settings = setting; } public void ExecAction(Action action) { try { action(); } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } public TResult ExecFunc<T1, T2, T3, TResult>(Func<T1, T2, T3, TResult> function) { try { /* what goes here?! */ } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } } I want to execute an Action in the following way in the derived class (this seems to work): public void Delete(string application, string key) { ExecAction(() => Settings.Delete(application, key)); } And I want to execute a Func in a similar way in the derived class but for the life of me I can't seem to workout what to put in the base class. I want to be able to call it in the following way (if possible): public object Get(string application, string key, int? expiration) { return ExecFunc(() => Settings.Get(application, key, expiration)); } Am I thinking too crazy or is this possible? Thanks in advance for all the help.

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• TFS merging for users that are used to VSS

  - by JacksonD

  I just migrated a team of 7 developers from VSS to TFS. I migrated all of their code into a DEV folder which I then branched into a QA folder (which I branched into a PROD folder). The developers usually don't work on the same files, but there are some shared utility classes. All of the code is for a large ASP.NET web site. When the developers are ready to merge from DEV to QA, they only want to merge their changes. For example, let's say that Developer1 has been working on a project for the last 3 months and he's ready to merge all of his code into QA. However, Developer2 has been working on a different project for the last 2 months which is not ready to be merged. Developer1 and Developer2's changes are not in any way dependent on each other, but they are not separated into different folder structures and they each regularly do a get latest. There doesn't seem to be a way for developer1 to only merge his changes without also merging all of developer2's changes. Currently, developer1 is going through the Pending Changes window and 'Undoing Pending Changes' for all of Developer2's changes, but this is time consuming. They could merge each file individually, but this is also time consuming. Is there an easier way? I am going to have a coronary if I hear one more person explain how much easier it was to work in VSS.

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