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• Argument exception after trying to use TryGetObjectByKey

  - by Rickjaah

  Hi, EDIT: Somethings wrong.... I have to use objectContext.Frontpages.ToArray() before I can use TryGetObjectByEntityKey(). Any ideas anyone? I'm trying to retrieve an object from my database using entity (framework 4) When I use the following code it gives an ArgumentException: An item with the same key has already been added. if (databaseContext.TryGetObjectByKey(entityKey, out result)) { return (result != null && result is TEntityObject) ? result as TEntityObject : null; } else { return null; } When I check the objectContext, I see the entities, but only if I enumerate the specific list of entities manually using VS2010, it works. What am I missing? Do I have to do something else before i can get the item from the database? I searched google, but could not find any results, the same for the msdn library EDIT: Still working on this.... It's a weird problem. I retrieve a value, but get an error that says a duplicate item exists. STACKTRACE: [ArgumentException: An item with the same key has already been added.] System.ThrowHelper.ThrowArgumentException(ExceptionResource resource) +52 System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2.Insert(TKey key, TValue value, Boolean add) +9549131 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.LoadRelationshipTypes() +661 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.LoadTypesFromAssembly() +17 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAssemblyLoader.Load() +25 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemAttributeAssemblyLoader.Load() +4 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.AssemblyCache.LoadAssembly(Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, ObjectItemLoadingSessionData loadingData) +160 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.AssemblyCache.LoadAssembly(Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, KnownAssembliesSet knownAssemblies, EdmItemCollection edmItemCollection, Action1 logLoadMessage, Object& loaderCookie, Dictionary2& typesInLoading, List1& errors) +166 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.ObjectItemCollection.LoadAssemblyFromCache(ObjectItemCollection objectItemCollection, Assembly assembly, Boolean loadReferencedAssemblies, EdmItemCollection edmItemCollection, Action`1 logLoadMessage) +316 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.MetadataWorkspace.ImplicitLoadAssemblyForType(Type type, Assembly callingAssembly) +306 System.Data.Metadata.Edm.MetadataWorkspace.ImplicitLoadFromEntityType(EntityType type, Assembly callingAssembly) +109 System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.TryGetObjectByKey(EntityKey key, Object& value) +288 EDIT: Lazy loading is set to true. EDIT: Somethings wrong.... I have to use objectContext.Frontpages.ToArray() before I can use TryGetObjectByEntityKey(). Any ideas anyone?

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• Improving long-polling Ajax performance

  - by Bears will eat you

  I'm writing a webapp (Firefox-compatible only) which uses long polling (via jQuery's ajax abilities) to send more-or-less constant updates from the server to the client. I'm concerned about the effects of leaving this running for long periods of time, say, all day or overnight. The basic code skeleton is this: function processResults(xml) { // do stuff with the xml from the server } function fetch() { setTimeout(function () { $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: 'foo/bar/baz', dataType: 'xml', success: function (xml) { processResults(xml); fetch(); }, error: function (xhr, type, exception) { if (xhr.status === 0) { console.log('XMLHttpRequest cancelled'); } else { console.debug(xhr); fetch(); } } }); }, 500); } (The half-second "sleep" is so that the client doesn't hammer the server if the updates are coming back to the client quickly - which they usually are.) After leaving this running overnight, it tends to make Firefox crawl. I'd been thinking that this could be partially caused by a large stack depth since I've basically written an infinitely recursive function. However, if I use Firebug and throw a breakpoint into fetch, it looks like this is not the case. The stack that Firebug shows me is only about 4 or 5 frames deep, even after an hour. One of the solutions I'm considering is changing my recursive function to an iterative one, but I can't figure out how I would insert the delay in between Ajax requests without spinning. I've looked at the JS 1.7 "yield" keyword but I can't quite wrap my head around it, to figure out if it's what I need here. Is the best solution just to do a hard refresh on the page periodically, say, once every hour? Is there a better/leaner long-polling design pattern that won't put a hurt on the browser even after running for 8 or 12 hours? Or should I just skip the long polling altogether and use a different "constant update" pattern since I usually know how frequently the server will have a response for me?

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• Ext3 fs: Block bitmap for group 1 not in group (block 0). is fs dead?

  - by ip

  Hi, My company has a server with one big partition with Mysql database and php files. Now this partition seems to be corrupted, as reported from kernel messages when I tried to mount it manually: [329862.817837] EXT3-fs error (device loop1): ext3_check_descriptors: Block bitmap for group 1 not in group (block 0)! [329862.817846] EXT3-fs: group descriptors corrupted! I've tried to recovery it running tools from a PLD livecd. These are the tools I have tested: - e2retrieve - testdisk - photorec - dd_rescue/dd_rhelp - ddrescue - fsck.ext2 - e2salvage without any success. dumpe2fs 1.41.3 (12-Oct-2008) Filesystem volume name: /dev/sda3 Last mounted on: <not available> Filesystem UUID: dd51610b-6de0-4392-a6f3-67160dbc0343 Filesystem magic number: 0xEF53 Filesystem revision #: 1 (dynamic) Filesystem features: has_journal filetype sparse_super Default mount options: (none) Filesystem state: not clean with errors Errors behavior: Continue Filesystem OS type: Linux Inode count: 9502720 Block count: 18987570 Reserved block count: 949378 Free blocks: 11555345 Free inodes: 11858398 First block: 0 Block size: 4096 Fragment size: 4096 Blocks per group: 32768 Fragments per group: 32768 Inodes per group: 16384 Inode blocks per group: 512 Last mount time: Wed Mar 24 09:31:03 2010 Last write time: Mon Apr 12 11:46:32 2010 Mount count: 10 Maximum mount count: 30 Last checked: Thu Jan 1 01:00:00 1970 Check interval: 0 (<none>) Reserved blocks uid: 0 (user root) Reserved blocks gid: 0 (group root) First inode: 11 Inode size: 128 Journal inode: 8 Journal backup: inode blocks dumpe2fs: A block group is missing an inode table while reading journal inode There's any other tools I have to test before considering these disk definitely unrecoverable? Many thanks, ip

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• Store comparison in variable (or execute comparison when it's given as an string)

  - by BorrajaX

  Hello everyone. I'd like to know if the super-powerful python allows to store a comparison in a variable or, if not, if it's possible calling/executing a comparison when given as an string ("==" or "!=") I want to allow the users of my program the chance of giving a comparison in an string. For instance, let's say I have a list of... "products" and the user wants to select the products whose manufacturer is "foo". He could would input something like: Product.manufacturer == "foo" and if the user wants the products whose manufacturer is not "bar" he would input Product.manufacturer != "bar" If the user inputs that line as an string, I create a tree with an structure like: != / \ manufacturer bar I'd like to allow that comparison to run properly, but I don't know how to make it happen if != is an string. The "manufacturer" field is a property, so I can properly get it from the Product class and store it (as a property) in the leaf, and well... "bar" is just an string. I'd like to know if I can something similar to what I do with "manufacturer": storing it with a 'callable" (kind of) thing: the property with the comparator: != I have tried with "eval" and it may work, but the comparisons are going to be actually used to query a MySQL database (using sqlalchemy) and I'm a bit concerned about the security of that... Any idea will be deeply appreciated. Thank you! PS: The idea of all this is being able to generate a sqlalchemy query, so if the user inputs the string: Product.manufacturer != "foo" || Product.manufacturer != "bar" ... my tree thing can generate the following: sqlalchemy.or_(Product.manufacturer !="foo", Product.manufacturer !="bar") Since sqlalchemy.or_ is callable, I can also store it in one of the leaves... I only see a problem with the "!="

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• Setting custom WCF-binding behaviour via .config file - why doesn't this work?

  - by Andrew Shepherd

  I am attempting to insert a custom behavior into my service client, following the example here. I appear to be following all of the steps, but I am getting a ConfigurationErrorsException. Is there anyone more experienced than me who can spot what I'm doing wrong? Here is the entire app.config file. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="ClientLoggingEndpointBehaviour"> <myLoggerExtension /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> <extensions> <behaviorExtensions> <add name="myLoggerExtension" type="ChatClient.ClientLoggingEndpointBehaviourExtension, ChatClient, Version=0.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null"/> </behaviorExtensions> </extensions> <bindings> </bindings> <client> <endpoint behaviorConfiguration="ClientLoggingEndpointBehaviour" name="ChatRoomClientEndpoint" address="http://localhost:8016/ChatRoom" binding="wsDualHttpBinding" contract="ChatRoomLib.IChatRoom" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> Here is the exception message: An error occurred creating the configuration section handler for system.serviceModel/behaviors: Extension element 'myLoggerExtension' cannot be added to this element. Verify that the extension is registered in the extension collection at system.serviceModel/extensions/behaviorExtensions. Parameter name: element (C:\Documents and Settings\Andrew Shepherd\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\WcfPractice\ChatClient\bin\Debug\ChatClient.vshost.exe.config line 5) I know that I've correctly written the reference to the ClientLoggingEndpointBehaviourExtensionobject, because through the debugger I can see it being instantiated.

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• Javascript html5 database transaction problem in loops

  - by Marek

  I'm hittig my head on this and i will be glad for any help. I need to store in a database a context (a list of string ids) for another page. I open a page with a list of artworks and this page save into the database those artowrks ids. When i click on an artwork i open its webpage but i can access the database to know the context and refer to the next and prev artwork. This is my code to retrieve the contex: updateContext = function () { alert("updating context"); try { mydb.transaction( function(transaction) { transaction.executeSql("select artworks.number from artworks, collections where collections.id = artworks.section_id and collections.short_name in ('cro', 'cra', 'crp', 'crm');", [], contextDataHandler, errorHandler); }); } catch(e) { alert(e.message); } } the contextDatahandler function then iterates through the results and fill again the current_context table: contextDataHandler = function(transaction, results) { try { mydb.transaction( function(transaction) { transaction.executeSql("drop table current_context;", [], nullDataHandler, errorHandler); transaction.executeSql("create table current_context(id String);", [], nullDataHandler, errorHandler); } ) } catch(e) { alert(e.message); } var s = ""; for (var i=0; i < results.rows.length; i++) { var item = results.rows.item(0); s += item['number'] + " "; mydb.transaction( function(tx) { tx.executeSql("insert into current_context(id) values (?);", [item['number']]); } ) } alert(s); } the result is, i get the current_context table deleted, recreated, and filled, but all the rows are filled with the LAST artwork id. the query to retrieve the artworks ids works, so i think it's a transaction problem, but i cant figure out where. thanks for any help

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• Achieving NHibernate Nested Transactions Behavior

  - by jfneis

  Hi all, I'm trying to achieve some kind of nested transaction behavior using NHibernate's transaction control and FlushMode options, but things got a little bit confusing after too much reading, so any confirmation about the facts I list below will be very usefull. What I want is to open one big transaction that splits in little transactions. Imagine the following scenario: TX1 opens a TX and inserts a Person's record; TX2 opens a TX and updates this Person's name to P2; TX2 commits; TX3 opens a TX and updates this Person's name to P3; TX3 rollbacks; TX1 commits; I'd like to see NH sending the INSERT and the TX2 UPDATE to the database, just ignoring what TX3, as it was rolled back. I tried to use FlushMode = Never and only flushing the session after the proper Begins/Commits/Rollbacks have been demanded, but NH always update the database with the object's final state, independent of commits and rollbacks. Is that normal? Does NH really ignores transactional control when working with FlushMode = Never? I've also tried to use FlushMode = Commit and openning the nested transactions, but I discovered that, because ADO.NET, the nested transactions are, actually, always the same transaction. Note that I'm not trying to achieve a "all or nothing" behavior. I'm looking more to a savepoint way of working. Is there a way to do that (savepoints) with NH? Thank you in advance. Filipe

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• How to call SQL Function with multiple parameters from C# web page

  - by Marshall

  I have an MS SQL function that is called with the following syntax: SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) AS RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable('WHERE ClientID = 7 AND LocationName = ''Default'' ', 10) The first parameter passes a specific WHERE clause that is used by the function for one of the internal queries. When I call this function in the front-end C# page, I need to send parameter values for the individual fields inside of the WHERE clause (in this example, both the ClientID & LocationName fields) The current C# code looks like this: String SQLText = "SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) AS RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable('WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName ',10)"; SqlCommand Cmd = new SqlCommand(SQLText, SqlConnection); Cmd.Parameters.Add("@ClientID", SqlDbType.Int).Value = 7; // Insert real ClientID Cmd.Parameters.Add("@LocationName", SqlDbType.NVarChar(20)).Value = "Default"; // Real code uses Location Name from user input SqlDataReader reader = Cmd.ExecuteReader(); When I do this, I get the following code from SQL profiler: exec sp_executesql N'SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) as RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable (''WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName '',10)', N'@ClientID int,@LocationID nvarchar(20)', @ClientID=7,@LocationName=N'Default' When this executes, SQL throws an error that it cannot parse past the first mention of @ClientID stating that the Scalar Variable @ClientID must be defined. If I modify the code to declare the variables first (see below), then I receive an error at the second mention of @ClientID that the variable already exists. exec sp_executesql N'DECLARE @ClientID int; DECLARE @LocationName nvarchar(20); SELECT Field1, COUNT(*) as RecordCount FROM GetDecileTable (''WHERE ClientID = @ClientID AND LocationName = @LocationName '',10)', N'@ClientID int,@LocationName nvarchar(20)', @ClientID=7,@LocationName=N'Default' I know that this method of adding parameters and calling SQL code from C# works well when I am selecting data from tables, but I am not sure how to embed parameters inside of the ' quote marks for the embedded WHERE clause being passed to the function. Any ideas?

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• Saving record in Subsonic 3 using Active Record

  - by singfoom

  I'm having trouble saving a record in Subsonic 3 using Active record. I've generated my objects using the DALs and tts and everything seems fine because the following test passes. I think that my connection string is correct or the generation wouldn't have succeeded. [Test] public void TestSavingAnEmail() { Email testEmail = new Email(); testEmail.EmailAddress = "[email protected]"; testEmail.Subscribed = true; testEmail.Save(); Assert.AreEqual(1, Email.All().Count()); } On the live side, the following code fails: protected void btEmailSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Email email = new Email(); email.EmailAddress = txtEmail.Text; email.Subscribed = chkSubscribe.Checked; email.Save(); } with a message of: Need to specify Values or a Select query to insert - can't go on! at the following line repo.Add(this,provider); line in my ActiveRecord.cs: public void Add(IDataProvider provider){ var key=KeyValue(); if(key==null){ var newKey=_repo.Add(this,provider); this.SetKeyValue(newKey); }else{ _repo.Add(this,provider); } SetIsNew(false); OnSaved(); } Am I doing something horribly wrong here? The save and add methods have parameterless overloads that I thought were safe to use. Do I need to pass a provider? I've googled around for this for a while and was unable to come up with anything specific to my situation. Thanks in advance for any kind of answer.

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• How to delete child object in NHibernate?

  - by Mark Struzinski

  I have a parent object which has a one to many relationship with an IList of child objects. What is the best way to delete the child objects? I am not deleting the parent. My parent object contains an IList of child objects. Here is the mapping for the one to many relationship: <bag name="Tiers" cascade="all"> <key column="mismatch_id_no" /> <one-to-many class="TGR_BL.PromoTier,TGR_BL"/> </bag> If I try to remove all objects from the collection using clear(), then call SaveOrUpdate(), I get this exception: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column If I try to delete the child objects individually then remove them from the parent, I get an exception: deleted object would be re-saved by cascade This is my first time dealing with deleting child objects in NHibernate. What am I doing wrong? edit: Just to clarify - I'm NOT trying to delete the parent object, just the child objects. I have the relationship set up as a one to many on the parent. Do I also need to create a many-to-one relationship on the child object mapping?

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• Problem converting a byte array into datatable.

  - by kranthi

  Hi, In my aspx page I have a HTML inputfile type which allows user to browse for a spreadsheet.Once the user choses the file to upload I want to read the content of the spreadsheet and store the content into mysql database table. I am using the following code to read the content of the uploaded file and convert it into a datatable in order into insert it into database table. if (filMyFile.PostedFile != null) { // Get a reference to PostedFile object HttpPostedFile myFile = filMyFile.PostedFile; // Get size of uploaded file int nFileLen = myFile.ContentLength; // make sure the size of the file is > 0 if (nFileLen > 0) { // Allocate a buffer for reading of the file byte[] myData = new byte[nFileLen]; // Read uploaded file from the Stream myFile.InputStream.Read(myData, 0, nFileLen); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); MemoryStream st = new MemoryStream(myData); st.Position = 0; System.Runtime.Serialization.IFormatter formatter = new System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter(); dt=(DataTable)formatter.Deserialize(st); } } But I am getting the following error when I am trying to deserialise the byte array into datatable. Binary stream '0' does not contain a valid BinaryHeader. Possible causes are invalid stream or object version change between serialization and deserialization. Could someone please tell me what am I doing wrong? I've also tried converting the bytearray into string ,then converting the string back to byte array and convert into datatable.That is also throwing the same error. Thanks.

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• Client-Server Networking Between PHP Client and Java Server

  - by Muhammad Yasir

  Hi there, I have a university project which is already 99% completed. It consists of two parts-website (PHP) and desktop (Java). People have their accounts on the website and they wish to query different information regarding their accounts. They send an SMS which is received by desktop application which queries database of website (MySQL) and sends the reply accordingly. This part is working superbly. The problem is that some times website wishes to instruct the desktop application to send a specific SMS to a particular number. Apparently there seems no way other than putting all the load to the DB server... This is how I made it work. Website puts SMS jobs in a specific table. Java application polls this table again and again and if it finds a job, it executes it. Even this part is working correctly but unfortunately it is not acceptable by my university to poll the DB like this. :( The other approach I could think of is to use client-server one. I tried making Java server and its PHP client. So that whenever an SMS is to be sent, the website opens a socket connection to desktop application and sends two strings (cell # and SMS message). Unfortunately I am unable to do this. I was successfully to make a Java server which works fine when connected by a Java client, similarly my PHP client connects correctly to a PHP server, but when I try to cross them, they start hating each other... PHP shows no error but Java gives StreamCorruptedException when it tries to read header of input stream. Could someone please tell what I can try to make PHP client and Java server work together? Or if the said purpose can be achieved by another means, how? Regards, Yasir

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• Complex Query on cassandra

  - by Sadiqur Rahman

  I have heard on cassandra database engine few days ago and searching for a good documentation on it. after studying on cassandra I got cassandra is more scalable than other data engine. I also read on Amazon SimpleDB but as SimpleDB has a limitation 10GB/table and Google Datastore is slower than Amazon SimpleDB, I prefer not to use them (Google Datastore, Amazon SimpleDB). So for making our site scaled specially high write rates with massive data, I like to use Cassandra as our Data Engine. But before starting using cassandra I am confused on "How to handle complex data using casssandra". I am giving you the MySQL database structure below, Please read this and give me a good suggestion. Users Table hasColum ID Primary hasColum email Unique hasColum FirstName hasColum LastName Category Table hasColum ID Primary hasColum Parent hasColum Category Posts Table hasColum ID Primary hasColum UID Index foreign key linked to users-ID hasColum CID Index foreign key linked to Category-ID hasColum Title hasColum Post Index hasColum PunDate Comments hasColum ID primary hasColum UID Index foreign key linked to users-ID hasColum PID Index foreign key linked to Posts-ID hasColum Comment User Group hasColum ID primary hasColum Name UserToGroup Table (for many to many relation only) hasColum UID foreign key linked to Users-ID hasColum GID foreign key linked to Group-ID Finally for your information, I like to use SimpleCassie PHP Class http://code.google.com/p/simpletools-php/ So, it will be very helpful if you can give me example using SimpleCassie

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• Cannot rollback ransaction with Entity Framework

  - by Luca

  I have to do queries on uncommitted changes and I tried to use transactions, but I found that it do not work if there are exceptions. I made a simple example to reproduce the problem. I have a database with only one table called "Tabella" and the table has two fields: "ID" is a autogenerated integer, and "Valore" is an integer with a Unique constraint. Then I try to run this code: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { Db1Container db1 = new Db1Container(); try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 1 }); db1.SaveChanges(); } catch { } try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 1 }); db1.SaveChanges(); //Unique constraint is violated here and an exception is thrown } catch { } try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 2 }); db1.SaveChanges(); } catch { } //scope.Complete(); //NEVER called } //here everything should be rolled back Now if I look into the database it should contain no records because the transaction should rollback, instead I find two records!!!! One with Valore=1 and one with Valore=2. I am missing something? It looks like the second call to SaveChanges method rollback its own changes and "deletes" the transaction, then the third call to SaveChanges commits the changes of the first and the third insert (at this point it is like the transaction not exists). I also tried to use SaveChanges(false) method (even without calling AcceptAllChanges method), but with no success: I have the same behaviour. I do not want the transaction to be rolled back automatically by SaveChanges, because I want to correct the errors (for example by user interaction in the catch statement) and make a retry. Can someone help me with this? It seems like a "bug", and it is giving me a really big headache...

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• Rails test db doesn't persist record changes

  - by nathan.f77

  I've been trying to solve a problem for a few weeks now. I am running rspec tests for my Rails app, and they are working fine except for one error that I can't seem get my head around. I am using MySQL with the InnoDB engine. I have set config.use_transactional_fixtures = true in spec_helper.rb I load my test fixtures manually with the command rake spec:db:fixtures:load. The rspec test is being written for a BackgrounDRb worker, and it is testing that a record can have its state updated (through the state_machine gem). Here is my problem: I have a model called Listings. The rspec test calls the update_sold_items method within a file called listing_worker.rb. This method calls listing.sell for a particular record, which sets the listing record's 'state' column to 'sold'. So far, this is all working fine, but when the update_sold_items method finishes, my rspec test fails here: listing = Listing.find_by_listing_id(listing_id) listing.state.should == "sold" expected: "sold", got: "current" (using ==) I've been trying to track down why the state change is not persisting, but am pretty much lost. Here is the result of some debugging code that I placed in the update_sold_items method during the test: pp listing.state # => "current" listing.sell! listing.save! pp listing.state # => "sold" listing.reload pp listing.state # => "current" I cannot understand why it saves perfectly fine, but then reverts back to the original record whenever I call reload, or Listing.find etc. Thanks for reading this, and please ask any questions if I haven't given enough information. Thanks for your help, Nathan B P.S. I don't have a problem creating new records for other classes, and testing those records. It only seems to be a problem when I am updating records that already exist in the database.

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• Send Data Using the WebRequest Class to DotNetOpenAuth website

  - by Denis

  I am trying to send data to DotNetOpenAuth website as described here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/debx8sh9.aspx Sender receive (500) Internal Server Error. The same code for blank website without DotNetOpenAuth works fine. Should I tweak something? Here is an exception: System.ArgumentNullException was unhandled by user code Message="Value cannot be null.\r\nParameter name: key" Source="mscorlib" ParamName="key" StackTrace: at System.ThrowHelper.ThrowArgumentNullException(ExceptionArgument argument) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Insert(TKey key, TValue value, Boolean add) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Add(TKey key, TValue value) at DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth.ChannelElements.OAuthChannel.ReadFromRequestCore(HttpRequestInfo request) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OAuth\ChannelElements\OAuthChannel.cs:line 145 at DotNetOpenAuth.Messaging.Channel.ReadFromRequest(HttpRequestInfo httpRequest) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\Messaging\Channel.cs:line 372 at DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth.ServiceProvider.ReadRequest(HttpRequestInfo request) in c:\BuildAgent\work\7ab20c0d948e028f\src\DotNetOpenAuth\OAuth\ServiceProvider.cs:line 222 Exception occurs on last line of the code: private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Don't read OAuth messages directed at the OAuth controller or else we'll fail nonce checks. if (this.IsOAuthControllerRequest()) { return; } if (HttpContext.Current.Request.HttpMethod != "HEAD") { // workaround: avoid involving OAuth for HEAD requests. IDirectedProtocolMessage incomingMessage = OAuthServiceProvider.ServiceProvider.ReadRequest(new HttpRequestInfo(this.application.Context.Request));

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• WPF - Dynamic tooltip

  - by Al Mackenzie

  I have a class ToolTipProvider which has a method string GetToolTip(UIElement element) which will return a specific tooltip for the UIElement specified, based on various factors including properties of the UIElement itself and also looking up into documentation which can be changed dynamically. It will also probably run in a thread so when the form first fires up the tooltips will be something like the visual studio 'Document cache is still being constructed', then populated in the background. I want to allow this to be used in any wpf form with the minimum effort for the developer. Essentially I want to insert an ObjectDataProvider resource into the Window.Resources to wrap my ToolTipProvider object, then I think I need to create a tooltip (called e.g. MyToolTipProvider) in the resources which references that ObjectDataProvider, then on any element which requires this tooltip functionality it would just be a case of ToolTip="{StaticResource MyToolTipProvider}" however I can't work out a) how to bind the actual elemnt itself to the MethodParameters of the objectdataprovider, or b) how to force it to call the method each time the tooltip is opened. Any ideas/pointers on the general pattern I need? Not looking for complete solution, just any ideas from those more experienced

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• Extra text shown on oveflow: hidden

  - by TRiG

  I'm keeping the main content area of the webpage small, so that footer navigation can be seen "above the fold". This is done by javascript setting the main content <div> thus: sec.style.height = '265px'; sec.style.overflow = 'hidden'; And then using javascript to insert a button to change the style back to normal: sec.style.height = 'auto'; The problem is that the cut-off point of 265px (dictated by the size of an image which I don't want to hide) doesn't quite match the gap between lines of text. This means that there the tops of tall letters show as funny little marks. Is there any way to hide text which is partially showing in a <div style="overflow: hidden;">? Edit to add: Full javascript var overflow = { hide: function() { var sec = app.get('content_section'); sec.style.height = '263px'; sec.style.overflow = 'hidden'; overflow.toggle(false); }, toggle: function(value) { var cnt = app.get('toggle_control'); if (value) { var func = 'hide'; cnt.innerHTML = 'Close « '; } else { var func = 'show'; cnt.innerHTML = 'More » '; } cnt.onclick = function() {eval('overflow.' + func + '();'); return false;}; cnt.style.cursor = 'pointer'; cnt.style.fontWeight = 'normal'; cnt.style.margin = '0 0 0 857px'; }, show: function() { var sec = app.get('content_section'); sec.style.height = 'auto'; overflow.toggle(true); } } if (document.addEventListener) { document.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', overflow.hide, false); } else { window.onload = function() {return overflow.hide();}; }

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• Guidelines for using Merge task in SSIS

  - by thursdaysgeek

  I have a table with three fields, one an identity field, and I need to add some new records from a source that has the other two fields. I'm using SSIS, and I think I should use the merge tool, because one of the sources is not in the local database. But, I'm confused by the merge tool and the proper process. I have my one source (an Oracle table), and I get two fields, well_id and well_name, with a sort after, sorting by well_id. I have the destination table (sql server), and I'm also using that as a source. It has three fields: well_key (identity field), well_id, and well_name, and I then have a sort task, sorting on well_id. Both of those are input to my merge task. I was going to output to a temporary table, and then somehow get the new records back into the sql server table. Oracle Well SQL Well | | V V Sort Source Sort Well | | -------> Merge* <----------- | V Temp well table I suspect this isn't the best way to use this tool, however. What are the proper steps for a merge like this? One of my reasons for questioning this method is that my merge has an error, telling me that the "Merge Input 2" must be sorted, but its source is a sort task, so it IS sorted. Example data SQL Well (before merge) well_key well_id well_name 1 123 well k 2 292 well c 3 344 well t 5 439 well d Oracle Well well_id well_name 123 well k 292 well c 311 well y 344 well t 439 well d 532 well j SQL Well (after merge) well_key well_id well_name 1 123 well k 2 292 well c 3 344 well t 5 439 well d 6 311 well y 7 532 well j Would it be better to load my Oracle Well to a temporary local file, and then just use a sql insert statment on it?

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• C++ Set Erase Entry Question

  - by Wallace

  Hi. I encountered a problem here. I'm using C++ multiset. This is the test file. Score: 3-1 Ben Steven Score: 1-0 Ben Score: 0-0 Score: 1-1 Cole Score: 1-2 Ben I'm using while loop and ifstream (fin1) to read in from the test file above. multiset<string, less<string> > myset; while(!fin1.eof()) { fin1 >> scoreName; if(scoreName == "Score:") { //calculates number of matches played } else { goalCheck = scoreName.substr(1,1); if(goalCheck == "-") { string lGoal, rGoal; lGoal = scoreName.substr(0,1); rGoal = scoreName.substr(2,1); int leftGoal, rightGoal; leftGoal = atoi(lGoal.c_str()); rightGoal = atoi(rGoal.c_str()); if(leftGoal > rightGoal) //if team wins { //some computations } else if(leftGoal < rightGoal) //if team loses { //computations } else if(leftGoal == rightGoal) //if team draws { //computations } else { myset.insert(myset.begin(), scoreName); } } } I'm inserting all names into myset (regardless of wins/loses/draws) in my last else statement. But I only require the names of those matches who won/draw. Those names whose matches lost will not be included in myset. In the test file above, there's only one match that lost (1-2) and I wanted to remove "Ben". How can I do that? I tried to use myset.erase(), but I'm not sure how to get it point to Ben and remove it from myset. Any help is much appreciated. Thanks.

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• VB.Net plugin using Matlab COM Automation Server...Error: 'Could not load Interop.MLApp'

  - by Ben

  My Problem: I am using Matlab COM Automation Server to call and execute matlab .m files from a VB.Net plugin for a CAD program called Rhino 3D. The code works flawlessly when set up as a simple Windows Application in Visual Studio, but when I insert it (and make the requisite reference) into my .Net plugin and test it in the CAD program I get the following error: "Could not load file or assembly 'Interop.MLApp, Version 1.0.0.0, culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. the system cannot find the file specified." What I've Tried: I am baffled as to why this occurs, but I was able to contact the CAD program's technical support staff and they suggested that it has something to do with their DotNet SDK having trouble with references that are located far outside the CAD program directory. They didn't have any solutions so I tried playing around with copylocal and this made no difference. I tried using other COM libraries and the Open Office automation server works fine, although uses url's instead of requiring a reference. I also tested Excel, which does require a reference, and it returned the error: "retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {...} failed due to the following error: 80040154." This may or may not be related to the issue with the Matlab COM reference, but I thought was worthwhile to share. Perhaps is there another way to reference Interop.MLApp? I would appreciate any suggestions or thoughts on how I might make the Matlab Interop.MLApp reference work. Best regards, Ben

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• DNN: Registered Mark changing to Question Mark

  - by coultertech

  I am having a problem with registered marks in the HTML module.  We need to use the Registered Trademark symbol (®) but some of them are being changed to question marks.  I can find no ryme or reason behind which change and which remain correct.  I have tried a number of things to fix this issue including the following: Using ® and ® using ® copy and paste of ® in both source and non source and using the "insert special character" from the RTE menu Some of the symbols remain but most revert back to question marks.  If i'm in edit mode, the questions marks change back to the registered mark.  Also sometimes the first time viewing the page not logged in or in view mode, they will look fine. But as soon as I got to edit mode or a new page then go back, they change back to question marks.  I am out of idea as to why this is happening. You can see the page at: http://fasttracsc.twif.net/AboutFastTracSC.aspx  Anywhere you see Fasttrac? it should be Fasttrac® Any help anyone can provide would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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• How do you write Valid XHTML 1.0 Strict code when you are using javascript to fill an element that r

  - by Tim Visher

  I'm running my site through the W3C's validator trying to get it to validate as XHTML 1.0 Strict and I've gotten down to a particularly sticky (at least in my experience) validation error. I'm including certain badges from various services in the site that provide their own API and code for inclusion on an external site. These badges use javascript (for the most part) to fill an element that you insert in the markup which requires a child. This means that in the end, perfectly valid markup is generated, but to the validator, all it sees is an incomplete parent-child tag which it then throws an error on. As a caveat, I understand that I could complain to the services that their badges don't validate. Sans this, I assume that someone has validated their code while including badges like this, and that's what I'm interested in. Answers such as, 'Complain to Flickr about their badge' aren't going to help me much. An additional caveat: I would prefer that as much as possible the markup remains semantic. I.E. Adding an empty li tag or tr-td pair to make it validate would be an undesirable solution, even though it may be necessary. If that's the only way it can be made to validate, oh well, but please lean answers towards semantic markup. As an example: <div id="twitter_div"> <h2><a href="http://twitter.com/stopsineman">@Twitter</a></h2> <ul id="twitter_update_list"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/javascripts/blogger.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/stopsineman.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> </ul> </div> Notice the ul tags wrapping the javascript. This eventually gets filled in with lis via the script, but to the validator it only sees the unpopulated ul. Thanks in advance!

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• Using a dynamic <script> (a <script> appended to the DOM by JavaScript) to load and initialize Click

  - by Bungle

  I'm creating an HTML/JavaScript widget to be used on third-party sites. This widget is generated by a <script> that our customers will insert on their page. The <script> creates an <iframe> in the customer's domain, and then creates and inserts all of that <iframe>'s content using JavaScript. It's important that this <iframe> contain Clicky's tracking code to monitor clicks on outbound links. Unfortunately, I'm not having any luck getting Clicky to work when I append the requisite <script> elements to the <iframe> using JavaScript. I first tried simply appending the Clicky tracking code to the <iframe> after appending some test outbound links, hoping that Clicky could attach to those automatically as it does on a static page. That didn't seem to work, so my next inclination was to use the "advanced_disable" custom option and use clicky.log() on the links I want to track. Here's a link to a test page that's along those lines: http://onespot.wsj.com/static/clicky_iframe_test.html When clicking a link on that test page, the action is not logged in Clicky, and a JavaScript error appears: clicky is not defined This ("clicky") appears to be defined in http://static.getclicky.com/js, which I confirmed through the Firebug console is indeed loading before I click a test outbound link. Has anyone successfully loaded Clicky in this way? If so, could you provide some sample code, a link to a working implementation, or some feedback on what's wrong with my code? I would also be interested to know if this is even possible. Thanks very much for any help or advice!

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• Exporting from SSRS 2008 ReportViewer to Excel Causes Duplicate Columns

  - by Daniel Coffman

  I have a report that groups months by quarters, so each quarter has three months and the display of the months under the quarter is toggled by the quarter header. It looks just fine in the ReportViewer, but when exporting to Excel the first month in the quarter with data is duplicated and appended to the end of the quarter group. Here is what it looks like in the ReportViewer (with Quarters 2 and 4 expanded, note May and June do not have any data and show blank columns by design): http://i.imgur.com/MykZE.png This is how it looks when exported to Excel: http://i.imgur.com/zfLuk.png The collapsed Quarter should only show the LAST month in the quarter. You can see that in the Excel export July is inserted in Q1 even though it should be hidden entirely since that quarter is collapsed, December is appended to Q2, January is inserted into Q3, and April is duplicated and appended to Q4. Exporting the any format OTHER than Excel works correctly and does not insert these columns. A similar bug for rows was filed and marked as "by design": http://connect.microsoft.com/SQLServer/feedback/details/508823/reporting-services-2008-group-by-export-to-excel-duplicate-rows-csv-ok-pdf-ok How do I stop the export to Excel feature from inserting these duplicate columns?

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