Search Results

Search found 36013 results on 1441 pages for 'public fields'.

Page 747/1441 | < Previous Page | 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750 751 752 753 754  | Next Page >

  • Spring factory beans not always initialised before being used.

    - by aos
    Hi, I am using spring to initialise my beans. I have configured a bean which I intend to use as a factory bean. <bean id="jsServicesFactory" class="x.y.z.JSServicesFactory" /> It is a very basic class - which has 4 getter methods. One example is public final PortletRegistry getPortletRegistry() { PortletRegistry registry = (PortletRegistry) JetspeedPortletServices .getSingleton().getService("PortletRegistryComponent"); return registry; } I have a 2nd bean which uses this factory beans to set one of its properties <bean id="batchManagerService" class="x.y.z.BatchManagerService"> ... <property name="portletRegistry"> <bean factory-bean="jsServicesFactory" factory-method="getPortletRegistry" /> </property> ... When I start my server in RAD, this all works perfectly. However when I deploy to Linux I sometimes get the following error ERROR org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader - Context initialization failed org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'batchManagerService' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/context/root/batchManagerContext.xml]: Cannot create inner bean 'jsServicesFactory$created#70be70be' while setting bean property 'portletRegistry'; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'jsServicesFactory$created#70be70be' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/context/root/batchManagerContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Factory method [public final org.apache.jetspeed.components.portletregistry.PortletRegistry x.y.z.JSServicesFactory.getPortletRegistry()] threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.NullPointerException I have tried adding depends-on="jsServicesFactory" to my bean batchManagerService but it didn't work. Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • remove specific values from multi value dictionary

    - by Anthony
    I've seen posts here on how to make a dictionary that has multiple values per key, like one of the solutions presented in this link: Multi Value Dictionary it seems that I have to use a List< as the value for the keys, so that a key can store multiple values. the solution in the link is fine if you want to add values. But my problem now is how to remove specific values from a single key. I have this code for adding values to a dictionary: private Dictionary<TKey, List<TValue>> mEventDict; // this is for initializing the dictionary public void Subscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { if (mEventDict.ContainsKey(inEvent)) { mEventDict[inEvent].Add(inCallbackMethod); } else { mEventDict.Add(inEvent, new List<TValue>() { v }); } } // this is for adding values to the dictionary. // if the "key" (inEvent) is not yet present in the dictionary, // the key will be added first before the value my problem now is removing a specific value from a key. I have this code: public void Unsubscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { try { mEventDict[inEvent].Remove(inCallbackMethod); } catch (ArgumentNullException) { MessageBox.Show("The event is not yet present in the dictionary"); } } basically, what I did is just replace the Add() with Remove() . Will this work? Also, if you have any problems or questions with the code (initialization, etc.), feel free to ask. Thanks for the advice.

    Read the article

  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

    Read the article

  • Generic list typecasting problem

    - by AJ
    Hello, I'm new to C# and am stuck on the following. I have a Silverlight web service that uses LINQ to query a ADO.NET entity object. e.g.: [OperationContract] public List<Customer> GetData() { using (TestEntities ctx = new TestEntities()) { var data = from rec in ctx.Customer select rec; return data.ToList(); } } This works fine, but what I want to do is to make this more abstract. The first step would be to return a List<EntityObject> but this gives a compiler error, e.g.: [OperationContract] public List<EntityObject> GetData() { using (TestEntities ctx = new TestEntities()) { var data = from rec in ctx.Customer select rec; return data.ToList(); } } The error is: Error 1 Cannot implicitly convert type 'System.Collections.Generic.List<SilverlightTest.Web.Customer>' to 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.EntityObject>'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) What am i doing wrong? Thanks, AJ

    Read the article

  • Android - Dealing with a Dialog on Screen Orientation change

    - by Donal Rafferty
    I am overriding the onCreateDialog and onPrepareDialog methods or the Dialog class. I have followed the example from Reto Meier's Professional Android Application Development book, Chapter 5 to pull some XML data and then use a dialog to display the info. I have basically followed it exactly but changed the variables to suit my own XML schema as follows: @Override public Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { switch(id) { case (SETTINGS_DIALOG) : LayoutInflater li = LayoutInflater.from(this); View settingsDetailsView = li.inflate(R.layout.details, null); AlertDialog.Builder settingsDialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); settingsDialog.setTitle("Provisioned Settings"); settingsDialog.setView(settingsDetailsView); return settingsDialog.create(); } return null; } @Override public void onPrepareDialog(int id, Dialog dialog) { switch(id) { case (SETTINGS_DIALOG) : String afpunText = " "; if(setting.getAddForPublicUserNames() == 1){ afpunText = "Yes"; } else{ afpunText = "No"; } String Text = "Login Settings: " + "\n" + "Password: " + setting.getPassword() + "\n" + "Server: " + setting.getServerAddress() + "\n"; AlertDialog settingsDialog = (AlertDialog)dialog; settingsDialog.setTitle(setting.getUserName()); tv = (TextView)settingsDialog.findViewById(R.id.detailsTextView); if (tv != null) tv.setText(Text); break; } } It works fine until I try changing the screen orientation, When I do this onPrepareDialog gets call but I get null pointer exceptions on all my variables. The error still occurs even when I tell my activity to ignore screen orientation in the manifest. So I presume something has been left out of the example in the book do I need to override another method to save my variables in or something?

    Read the article

  • Sending multi-part email from Google App Engine using Spring's JavaMailSender fails

    - by hleinone
    It works without the multi-part (modified from the example in Spring documentation): final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage); message.setTo(toAddress); message.setFrom(fromAddress); message.setSubject(subject); final String htmlText = FreeMarkerTemplateUtils .processTemplateIntoString(configuration .getTemplate(htmlTemplate), model); message.setText(htmlText, true); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); But once I change it to: final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage, true); ... message.setText(plainText, htmlText); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); I get: Failed message 1: javax.mail.MessagingException: Converting attachment data failed at com.google.appengine.api.mail.stdimpl.GMTransport.sendMessage(GMTransport.java:231) at org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl.doSend(JavaMailSenderImpl.java:402) ... This is especially difficult since the GMTransport is proprietary Google class and no sources are available, which would make it a bit easier to debug. Anyone have any ideas what to try next? My bean config, for helping you to help me: <bean id="mailSender" class="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl" p:username="${mail.username}" p:password="${mail.password}" p:protocol="gm" />

    Read the article

  • problem parsing with XMLReader (using ReadSubTree)

    - by no9
    Hello. Im trying to build a simple XML to Controls parser in my CF application. In the code below the string im trying to parse looks like this: "<Panel><Label>Text1</Label><Label>Text2</Label></Panel>" The result i want with this code would be a Panel with two labels. But the problem is when the first Label is parsed the subreader.Read() returns false in the ParsePanelElementh method, and so it falls out of while statement. Since im new into XMLReader i must be missing something very simple. Any help would be apreciated ! peace. static class XMLParser { public static Control Parse(string aXmlString) { XmlReader reader = XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(aXmlString)); return ParseXML(reader); } public static Control ParseXML(XmlReader reader) { using (reader) { while (reader.Read()) { if (reader.NodeType == XmlNodeType.Element) { if (reader.LocalName == "Panel") { return ParsePanelElement(reader); } if (reader.LocalName == "Label") { return ParseLabelElement(reader); } } } } return null; } private static Control ParsePanelElement(XmlReader reader) { var myPanel = new Panel(); XmlReader subReader = reader.ReadSubtree(); while (subReader.Read()) { Control subControl = ParseXML(subReader); if (subControl != null) { myPanel.Controls.Add(subControl); }; } return myPanel; } private static Control ParseLabelElement(XmlReader reader) { reader.Read(); var myString = reader.Value as string; var myLabel = new Label(); myLabel.Text = myString; return myLabel; } }

    Read the article

  • Help me understand entity framework 4 caching for lazy loading

    - by Chris
    I am getting some unexpected behaviour with entity framework 4.0 and I am hoping someone can help me understand this. I am using the northwind database for the purposes of this question. I am also using the default code generator (not poco or self tracking). I am expecting that anytime I query the context for the framework to only make a round trip if I have not already fetched those objects. I do get this behaviour if I turn off lazy loading. Currently in my application I am breifly turning on lazy loading and then turning it back off so I can get the desired behaviour. That pretty much sucks, so please help. Here is a good code example that can demonstrate my problem. Public Sub ManyRoundTrips() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() 'makes unnessesary round trip to the database, I just loaded the employees' MessageBox.Show(context.Employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) context.Orders.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly) For Each emp As Employee In employees 'makes unnessesary trip to database every time despite orders being pre loaded.' Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Public Sub OneRoundTrip() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Include("Orders").Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() MessageBox.Show(employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) For Each emp As Employee In employees Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Why is the first block of code making unnessesary round trips?

    Read the article

  • Print a string that contains a certain pattern in Java

    - by jjpotter
    I am trying to find a regular expression within a line of a .csv file, so I can eventually save all the matches to another file, and lose all the other junk. So a line in my file might look like: MachineName,User,IP,VariableData,Location The VariableData is what I want to match, and if there's a match, print the line. I am using a pattern for this because I only want 3 out of 10 of variations of VariableData, and out of those 3, they are numbered differently(example, "pc104, pccrt102, pccart65"). I am trying to do this using the Scanner Class and keeping it simple as possible so I can understand it. Here is where I was heading with this...(the pattern isn't complete, just have it like this for testing). import java.io.File; import java.util.Scanner; import java.util.regex.Pattern; public class pcv { public static void main(String[] args) { File myFile = new File("c:\\temp\\report.csv"); Pattern myPat = Pattern.compile("pc"); try{ Scanner myScan = new Scanner(myFile); while(myScan.hasNext()){ if(myScan.hasNext(myPat)){ System.out.println("Test"); } } }catch(Exception e){ } } } This code loops, im guessing the .hasNext() methods are resetting themselves. I've played around with the Matcher class a little bit, but only found a way to match the expression but not get the whole line. My other throught was maybe somehow count the line that contains the pattern, then go back and print the line that corresponds to the counts.

    Read the article

  • Spring Stripes framework problem

    - by ali
    I am new to stripes and am attempting to integrate spring into stripes In the following code : public class ContactFormActionBeanTest { private static MockServletContext mockServletContext; private static MockHttpSession mockSession; @BeforeClass public static void setup() throws Exception { mockServletContext = new MockServletContext("webmail"); Map<String,String> params = new HashMap<String,String>(); params.put("ActionResolver.Packages", "stripesbook.action"); params.put("Extension.Packages", "stripesbook.ext," + "net.sourceforge.stripes.integration.spring"); mockServletContext.addFilter(StripesFilter.class, "StripesFilter", params); mockServletContext.setServlet(DispatcherServlet.class, "DispatcherServlet", null); mockSession = new MockHttpSession(mockServletContext); mockServletContext.addInitParameter("contextConfigLocation", "/WEB-INF/applicationContext-test.xml"); ContextLoaderListener springContextLoader = new ContextLoaderListener(); springContextLoader.contextInitialized( new ServletContextEvent(mockServletContext)); // Load mock user MockRoundtrip trip = new MockRoundtrip(mockServletContext, MockDataLoaderActionBean.class, mockSession); trip.execute(); // Login mock user trip = new MockRoundtrip(mockServletContext, LoginActionBean.class, mockSession); trip.setParameter("username", "freddy"); trip.setParameter("password", "nadia"); trip.execute("login"); } I get null in springContextLoader ContextLoaderListener springContextLoader = new ContextLoaderListener(); and test fails. Am I missing something? I am using eclipse with maven. Also when I try to deploy it for tomcat 6.0 I get following warnings: WARN net.sourceforge.stripes.util.ResolverUtil - Could not examine class 'stripesbook/ext/ContactFormatter.class' due to a java.lang.UnsupportedClassVersionError with message: Bad version number in .class file (unable to load class stripesbook.ext.ContactFormatter) I have checked to be sure that I am compiling with Java 5(set JDK compiler to 1.5) instead of 1.6 (Java 6); but didn't work out for me and still have problems running spring-stripes integrated project.

    Read the article

  • Which is better Java programming practice for looping up to an int value: a converted for-each loop

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, Given the need to loop up to an arbitrary int value, is it better programming practice to convert the value into an array and for-each the array, or just use a traditional for loop? FYI, I am calculating the number of 5 and 6 results ("hits") in multiple throws of 6-sided dice. My arbitrary int value is the dicePool which represents the number of multiple throws. As I understand it, there are two options: Convert the dicePool into an array and for-each the array: public int calcHits(int dicePool) { int[] dp = new int[dicePool]; for (Integer a : dp) { // call throwDice method } } Use a traditional for loop. public int calcHits(int dicePool) { for (int i = 0; i < dicePool; i++) { // call throwDice method } } I apologise for the poor presentation of the code above (for some reason the code button on the Ask Question page is not doing what it should). My view is that option 1 is clumsy code and involves unnecessary creation of an array, even though the for-each loop is more efficient than the traditional for loop in Option 2. Thanks in advance for any suggestions you might have.

    Read the article

  • Using Qt signals/slots instead of a worker thread

    - by Rob
    I am using Qt and wish to write a class that will perform some network-type operations, similar to FTP/HTTP. The class needs to connect to lots of machines, one after the other but I need the applications UI to stay (relatively) responsive during this process, so the user can cancel the operation, exit the application, etc. My first thought was to use a separate thread for network stuff but the built-in Qt FTP/HTTP (and other) classes apparently avoid using threads and instead rely on signals and slots. So, I'd like to do something similar and was hoping I could do something like this: class Foo : public QObject { Q_OBJECT public: void start(); signals: void next(); private slots: void nextJob(); }; void Foo::start() { ... connect(this, SIGNAL(next()), this, SLOT(nextJob())); emit next(); } void Foo::nextJob() { // Process next 'chunk' if (workLeftToDo) { emit next(); } } void Bar::StartOperation() { Foo* foo = new Foo; foo->start(); } However, this doesn't work and UI freezes until all operations have completed. I was hoping that emitting signals wouldn't actually call the slots immediately but would somehow be queued up by Qt, allowing the main UI to still operate. So what do I need to do in order to make this work? How does Qt achieve this with the multitude of built-in classes that appear to perform lengthy tasks on a single thread?

    Read the article

  • Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

    - by David Jeske
    .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Sendkeys problem from .NET program

    - by user203123
    THe code below I copied from MSDN with a bit of modification: [DllImport("user32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] public static extern IntPtr FindWindow(string lpClassName,string lpWindowName); DllImport("User32")] public static extern bool SetForegroundWindow(IntPtr hWnd); int cnt = 0; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { IntPtr calculatorHandle = FindWindow("Notepad", "Untitled - Notepad"); if (calculatorHandle == IntPtr.Zero) { MessageBox.Show("Calculator is not running."); return; } SetForegroundWindow(calculatorHandle); SendKeys.SendWait(cnt.ToString()); SendKeys.SendWait("{ENTER}"); cnt++; SendKeys.Flush(); System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); } The problem is the number sequence in Notepad is not continuously. The first click always results 0 (as expected). but from the second click, the result is unpredictable (but the sequence is still in order, e.g. 3, 4, 5, 10, 14, 15, ....) If I click the button fast enough, I was able to get the result in continuous order (0,1,2,3,4,....) but sometimes it produces more than 2 same numbers (e.g. 0,1,2,3,3,3,4,5,6,6,6,7,8,9,...)

    Read the article

  • Saving twice don't update my object in JDO

    - by Javi
    Hello I have an object persisted in the GAE datastore using JDO. The object looks like this: public class MyObject implements Serializable, StoreCallback { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String id; @Persistent private String firstId; ... } As usually when the object is stored for the first time a new id value is generated for the identifier. I need that if I don't provide a value for firstId it sets the same value as the id. I don't want to solve it with a special getter which checks for null value in firstId and then return the id value because I want to make queries relating on firstId. I can do it in this way by saving the object twice (Probably there's a better way to do this, but I'll do it in this way until I find a better one). But it is not working. when I debug it I can see that result.firstId is set with the id value and it seems to be persisted, but when I go into the datastore I see that firstId is null (as it was saved the first time). This save method is in my DAO and it is called in another save method in the service annotated with @Transactional. Does anyone have any idea why the second object in not persisted properly? @Override public MyObject save(MyObject obj) { PersistenceManager pm = JDOHelper.getPersistenceManagerFactory("transactions-optional"); MyObject result = pm.makePersistent(obj); if(result.getFirstId() == null){ result.setFirstId(result.getId()); result = pm.makePersistent(result); } return result; } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why This Maintainability Index Increase?

    - by Timothy
    I would be appreciative if someone could explain to me the difference between the following two pieces of code in terms of Visual Studio's Code Metrics rules. Why does the Maintainability Index increase slightly if I don't encapsulate everything within using ( )? Sample 1 (MI score of 71) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { Byte[] text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); Byte[] hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } } Sample 2 (MI score of 73) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { Byte[] text, hashBytes; using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); } return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } I understand metrics are meaningless outside of a broader context and understanding, and programmers should exercise discretion. While I could boost the score up to 76 with return Convert.ToBase64String(sha1.ComputeHash(Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText))), I shouldn't. I would clearly be just playing with numbers and it isn't truly any more readable or maintainable at that point. I am curious though as to what the logic might be behind the increase in this case. It's obviously not line-count.

    Read the article

  • Why won't my program terminate?

    - by Qwertie
    I have a .NET Compact Framework app that can runs on three windows machines (Desktop windows and two WinCE machines) and on the WinCE devices, the process never terminates on exit, even if I call Application.Exit(). Besides .NET, it uses one COM component (which does everything on the UI thread). If I break into the debugger after exitting, Visual Studio shows only one thread and a completely blank call stack. What could possibly cause this? Update: My process is terminating on the desktop but not the WinCE machines. I tried to force the process to terminate with the following code, but it doesn't work: [DllImport("coredll.dll")] static extern int TerminateProcess(IntPtr hProcess, uint uExitCode); static public void ExitProcess() { if (Platform.IsWindowsCE) TerminateProcess(new IntPtr(-1), 0); Application.Exit(); } There are also supposed to be ExitProcess() and GetCurrentProcess() APIs like the following, but if I try to call them, I get EntryPointNotFoundException. Therefore I am using TerminateProcess(-1, 0) because the documentation for the desktop version of GetCurrentProcess claims that it simply returns -1. [DllImport("coredll.dll")] static extern int ExitProcess(IntPtr hProcess); [DllImport("coredll.dll")] static extern IntPtr GetCurrentProcess(); Even if I do this: static public void ExitProcess() { if (Platform.IsWindowsCE) TerminateProcess(new IntPtr(-1), 0); Application.Exit(); throw new Exception("Trying to force quit."); } A fatal error dialog appears with a helpful "Quit" button, but pushing the button still does not cause the process to terminate on either machine!

    Read the article

  • WCF Callbacks often break

    - by cdecker
    I'm having quite some trouble with the WCF Callback mechanism. They sometimes work but most of the time they don't. I have a really simple Interface for the callbacks to implement: public interface IClientCallback { [OperationContract] void Log(string content); } I then implmenent that interface with a class on the client: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession)] [ServiceContract] internal sealed class ClientCallback : IClientCallback { public void Log(String content){ Console.Write(content); } } And on the client I finally connect to the server: NetTcpBinding tcpbinding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.Transport); EndpointAddress endpoint = new EndpointAddress("net.tcp://127.0.0.1:1337"); ClientCallback callback= new ClientCallback(); DuplexChannelFactory<IServer> factory = new DuplexChannelFactory<IServer>(callback,tcpbinding, endpoint); factory.Open(); _connection = factory.CreateChannel(); ((ICommunicationObject)_connection).Faulted += new EventHandler(RecreateChannel); try { ((ICommunicationObject)_connection).Open(); } catch (CommunicationException ce) { Console.Write(ce.ToString()); } To invoke the callback I use the following: OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel().Log("Hello World!"); But it just hangs there, and after a while the client complains about timeouts. Is there a simple solution as to why?

    Read the article

  • Why this method does not use any properties of the object?

    - by Roman
    Here I found this code: import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; public class FunWithPanels extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { FunWithPanels frame = new FunWithPanels(); frame.doSomething(); } void doSomething() { Container c = getContentPane(); JPanel p1 = new JPanel(); p1.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); p1.add(new JButton("A"), BorderLayout.NORTH); p1.add(new JButton("B"), BorderLayout.WEST); JPanel p2 = new JPanel(); p2.setLayout(new GridLayout(3, 2)); p2.add(new JButton("F")); p2.add(new JButton("G")); p2.add(new JButton("H")); p2.add(new JButton("I")); p2.add(new JButton("J")); p2.add(new JButton("K")); JPanel p3 = new JPanel(); p3.setLayout(new BoxLayout(p3, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); p3.add(new JButton("L")); p3.add(new JButton("M")); p3.add(new JButton("N")); p3.add(new JButton("O")); p3.add(new JButton("P")); c.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); c.add(p1, BorderLayout.CENTER); c.add(p2, BorderLayout.SOUTH); c.add(p3, BorderLayout.EAST); pack(); setVisible(true); } } I do not understand how "doSomething" use the fact that "frame" is an instance of the class JFrame. It is not clear to me because there is no reference to "this" in the code for the method "doSomething".

    Read the article

  • GoDaddy Subdomain Hosting Issue/Question with Disk Access (C#/ASP.NET 3.5)

    - by Vogel
    This isn't a very complicated scenario really, but as I start to type out the problem I'm realizing how convoluted it can become textually. Let me try and be very clear: First, the set up... I have a C#/ASP.NET web application that is publicly facing on my main domain (www), let's call it www.mysite.com. Nothing fancy, just a front-end that connects to SQL to display records. Then, I have a second C#/ASP.NET web application that is secured using forms authentication running on a subdomain, let's call it admin.mysite.com. This is a very light-weight CMS system to administer the public site. Now, the problem... Both of these sites run fine for basic tasks, however, my problem arises when I try to gain access to the file system for uploading. GoDaddy requires subdomains to run as a virtual directories under the main application in IIS (so the subdomains actually resolve/re-direct to www.mysite.com/admin when you type in admin.mysite.com), but because of this I am unable to write to my website root from the subfolder. Let me explain a little more... The CMS system (running as a virtual directory) gives the admin the ability to upload photos for display on the main site, the target folder of which is www.mysite.com/images - when attempting disk access from the root app, I am able to write to the virtual directory, but cannot do the opposite -- that is, write to the root from the virtual directory, getting security violations. If I can only upload to the /admin/ virtual directory, the entire point is moot because it's a secured folder that the public can't see! The only solution I can think of is to upload the files to the /admin/ virtual directory, then call a URL in the root that moves files from /admin/ back to the root, but that is entirely ghetto. I hope this post makes sense. Anyone else experience anything like this? The bottom line is that it seems virtual directories ONLY have access to themselves, and not their parent directories, no matter what credentials are used. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • RSA example that do not use NoPadding

    - by Tom Brito
    Where can I find a RSA encrypt example that does not use "NoPadding"? --update Better: how to make this code run correctly without throw the "too much data for RSA block" exception? import java.math.BigInteger; import java.security.KeyFactory; import java.security.interfaces.RSAPrivateKey; import java.security.interfaces.RSAPublicKey; import java.security.spec.RSAPrivateKeySpec; import java.security.spec.RSAPublicKeySpec; import javax.crypto.Cipher; /** * Basic RSA example. */ public class TestRSA { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { byte[] input = new byte[100]; Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("RSA/None/NoPadding", "BC"); KeyFactory keyFactory = KeyFactory.getInstance("RSA", "BC"); // create the keys RSAPublicKeySpec pubKeySpec = new RSAPublicKeySpec(new BigInteger("d46f473a2d746537de2056ae3092c451", 16), new BigInteger("11", 16)); RSAPrivateKeySpec privKeySpec = new RSAPrivateKeySpec(new BigInteger( "d46f473a2d746537de2056ae3092c451", 16), new BigInteger("57791d5430d593164082036ad8b29fb1", 16)); RSAPublicKey pubKey = (RSAPublicKey) keyFactory.generatePublic(pubKeySpec); RSAPrivateKey privKey = (RSAPrivateKey) keyFactory.generatePrivate(privKeySpec); // encryption step cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, pubKey); byte[] cipherText = cipher.doFinal(input); // decryption step cipher.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, privKey); byte[] plainText = cipher.doFinal(cipherText); } }

    Read the article

  • What is default javac source mode (assert as identifier compilation)?

    - by waste
    According to Orcale's Java7 assert guide: source mode 1.3 (default) — the compiler accepts programs that use assert as an identifier, but issues warnings. In this mode, programs are not permitted to use the assert statement. source mode 1.4 — the compiler generates an error message if the program uses assert as an identifier. In this mode, programs are permitted to use the assert statement. I wrote such class: package mm; public class ClassTest { public static void main(String[] arg) { int assert = 1; System.out.println(assert); } } It should compile fine if Oracle's info right (1.3 is default source mode). But I got errors like this: $ javac -version javac 1.7.0_04 $ javac -d bin src/mm/* src\mm\ClassTest.java:5: error: as of release 1.4, 'assert' is a keyword, and may not be used as an identifier int assert = 1; ^ (use -source 1.3 or lower to use 'assert' as an identifier) src\mm\ClassTest.java:6: error: as of release 1.4, 'assert' is a keyword, and may not be used as an identifier System.out.println(assert); ^ (use -source 1.3 or lower to use 'assert' as an identifier) 2 errors I added manually -source 1.3 and it issued warnings but compiled fine. It seems that Oracle's information is wrong and 1.3 is not default source mode. Which one is it then?

    Read the article

  • Show me your Linq to SQL architectures!

    - by Brad Heller
    I've been using Linq to SQL for a new implementation that I've been working on. I have about 5000 lines of code and am a little ways from a solid demo. I've been pretty satisfied with Linq to SQL so far -- the tools are excellent and pretty painless and it allows you to get a DAL up and running quickly. That said, there are some major draw backs that I just keep hitting over and over again. Namely how to handle separation of concerns between my DAL and my business layer and juggling that with different data contexts. Here is the architecture I've been using: My repositories do all my data access and they return Linq to SQL objects. Each of my Linq to SQL objects implements an IDetachable interface. A typical implementation looks like this: partial class PaymentDetail : IDetachable { #region IDetachable Members public bool IsAttached { get { return PropertyChanging != null; } } public void Detach() { if (IsAttached) { PropertyChanged = null; PropertyChanging = null; Transaction.Detach(); } } #endregion } Every time I do a DAL operation in my repository I "detach" when I'm done with the object (and it should theoretically detach from any child objects) to remove the DataContext's context. Like I said, this works pretty well, but there are some edge cases that seem to be a big pain in the ass. For instance, my Transaction object has many PaymentDetails. Even when there are no PaymentDetails in that collection it's still attached to the DataContext's context! Thus, if I try to update (I update by Attach()ing to the object and then SubmitChanges()) I get that dreaded "An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported." message. Anyway, I'm starting to doubt that this technology was a good gamble. Has anyone got a decent architecture that they're willing to share? I'd really love to use this technology but I feel like I spend 1/3 of my time just debugging is retarded quirks!

    Read the article

  • Java get user details

    - by LC
    I'm new to Java and I have to write a program to get user details which appear like this: Author’s Details **************** Name: J. Beans YOB: 1969 Age: 41 Book Details ************ Title: *Wonderful Java* ISBN: *978 0 470 10554 9* Publisher: *Wiley* This is what I've done but it does not work, can anyone help me to find out the problem ? import java.util.Scanner ; public class UserDetails { public static void main(String args[]) { System scan = new Scanner(System.in); input sname, fname, born, title, isbn, publisher; System.out.print("Please enter author's surname:"); sname = input.nextLine(); System.out.print("Please the initial of author's first name:"); fname = input.nextLine(); System.out.print("Please enter the year the author was born:"); born = input.nextLine(); System.out.print("Please enter the author's book title:"); title = input.nextLine(); System.out.print("Please enter the book's ISBN:"); isbn = input.nextLine(); System.out.print("Please enter the publisher of the book:"); publisher = input.nextLine; System.out.println("Author's detail"); System.out.println("**********************"); System.out.println("Name:" + fname + sname); System.out.println("YOB:" + born); System.out.println("Age" + born); System.out.println("Book Details"); System.out.println("**********************"); System.out.println("Title:" + "*" + title + "*"); System.out.println("ISBN:" + "*" + isbn + "*"); System.out.println("Publisher:" + "*" + publisher + "*"); } }

    Read the article

  • C# graphics flickering

    - by David
    Hello, I am working on kind of drawing program but I have a problem with flickering while moving a mouse cursor while drawing a rubberband line. I hope you can help me to remove that flickering of line, here is the code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace GraphicsTest { public partial class Form1 : Form { int xFirst, yFirst; Bitmap bm = new Bitmap(1000, 1000); Graphics bmG; Graphics xG; Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Black, 1); bool draw = false; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { bmG = Graphics.FromImage(bm); xG = this.CreateGraphics(); bmG.Clear(Color.White); } private void Form1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { xFirst = e.X; yFirst = e.Y; draw = true; } private void Form1_MouseUp(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { bmG.DrawLine(pen, xFirst, yFirst, e.X, e.Y); draw = false; xG.DrawImage(bm, 0, 0); } private void Form1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (draw) { xG.DrawImage(bm, 0, 0); xG.DrawLine(pen, xFirst, yFirst, e.X, e.Y); } } private void Form1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { xG.DrawImage(bm, 0, 0); } } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750 751 752 753 754  | Next Page >