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  • Maven - Include dependent libs in jar without unpacking dependencies?

    - by Marcus
    We're trying to build a client jar that includes unpacked depenedent jar's. And the manifest should have class-path entries to the dependent jars. The snippet below works but the jars are unpacked - how can we stop the jars from being unpacked? <plugin> <artifactId>maven-assembly-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <descriptorRefs> <descriptorRef>jar-with-dependencies</descriptorRef> </descriptorRefs> <archive> <manifest> <addClasspath>true</addClasspath> </manifest> </archive> </configuration> <executions> <execution> <id>make-assembly</id> <phase>package</phase> <goals> <goal>single</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin>

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  • Question about passing data using intents

    - by Joe K 1973
    Hi everyone, I'm trying to modify the Notepad tutorial (the Notepadv3 solution) to take in a value into the NoteEdit class, given to by the Notepadv3 class. I've successfully used .putExtra in the OnListItemClick method to place the value into the NoteEdit class, but I'm struggling to do this for the createNote method; I'm getting a force close when I try to create a new note. I bet there's a simple solution, but I'm pretty new to Java & Android and would very much appreciate your help. Here's the code in question in the Notepadv3 class: private void createNote() { Intent i = new Intent(this, NoteEdit.class); i.putExtra("key", 1); startActivityForResult(i, ACTIVITY_CREATE); } @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); Intent i = new Intent(this, NoteEdit.class); i.putExtra(NotesDbAdapter.KEY_ROWID, id); i.putExtra("key", 1); startActivityForResult(i, ACTIVITY_EDIT); } @Override protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent intent) { super.onActivityResult(requestCode, resultCode, intent); fillData(); } And here's the receiving code in the NoteEdit class: mRowId = savedInstanceState != null ? savedInstanceState.getLong(NotesDbAdapter.KEY_ROWID) : null; if (mRowId == null) { Bundle extras = getIntent().getExtras(); mRowId = extras != null ? extras.getLong(NotesDbAdapter.KEY_ROWID) : null; value = extras.getInt("key"); } I'm fairly sure that (mRowId == null) is not true when I'm using the createNote method so therefore getExtras won't be called. One of my questions would be how can I make my NoteEdit class get this value when I use the createNote method? I'm new to this so sorry if this is a simple question for you all. Thanks, Joe

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  • PHP (CodeIgniter) Pass Object Through Session

    - by FranticPedantic
    I am using PHP5 and CodeIgniter and I am trying to implement a single-sign on feature with facebook (although I don't think that facebook is relevant to the question). I am somewhat of a novice with PHP and definitely one with CodeIgniter, so if you think my approach is just completely off telling me that would be helpful too. So here is in short what I am doing: //Controller 1 $this->load->plugin("facebook"); $facebook = new Facebook(array ( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, ) ); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); //works fine $this->session->set_userdata('facebook', serialize($facebook); Now I would like to grab that facebook object in a different controller. //Controller 2 $facebook = unserialize($this->session->userdata('facebook')); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); Produces the error: Call to undefined method getSession. So I look up more about serialization and think that maybe it just doesn't know what the facebook object's attributes are. So I add in a $this->load->plugin('facebook'); To controller 2 as well and I get a "Cannot redeclare class facebook." I am strongly suspecting that I am misunderstanding sessions here. Do I have to somehow tell PHP what kind of object it is? Thanks for the help.

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  • Serializing a DataType="time" field using XmlSerializer

    - by CraftyFella
    Hi, I'm getting an odd result when serializing a DateTime field using XmlSerializer. I have the following class: public class RecordExample { [XmlElement("TheTime", DataType = "time")] public DateTime TheTime { get; set; } [XmlElement("TheDate", DataType = "date")] public DateTime TheDate { get; set; } public static bool Serialize(Stream stream, object obj, Type objType, Encoding encoding) { try { using (var writer = XmlWriter.Create(stream, new XmlWriterSettings { Encoding = encoding })) { var xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(objType); if (writer != null) xmlSerializer.Serialize(writer, obj); } return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; } } } When i call the use the XmlSerializer with the following testing code: var obj = new RecordExample {TheDate = DateTime.Now.Date, TheTime = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 00, 00)}; var ms = new MemoryStream(); RecordExample.Serialize(ms, obj, typeof (RecordExample), Encoding.UTF8); txtSource2.Text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()); I get some strange results, here's the xml that is produced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RecordExample xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <TheTime>12:00:00.0000000+00:00</TheTime> <TheDate>2010-03-08</TheDate> </RecordExample> Any idea's how i can get the "TheTime" element to contain a time which looks more like this: <TheTime>12:00:00.0Z</TheTime> ...as that's what i was expecting? Thanks Dave

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  • Routing trouble for RESTful API - Rails

    - by aressidi
    I'm building out an API for web app that I've been working on for some time. I've started with the User model. The user portion of the API will allow remote clients to a) retrieve user data, b) update user information and c) create new users. I've gotten all of this to work, but it doesn't seem like its setup correctly. Here are my questions: Should the API endpoint be users or user? What's the best practice? I have to add the action to the end, which I would expect to be picked up instead by the request type so I don't have to specify it explicitly. How do I get my routes setup properly as not to have to include the method for protected actions? Let me give some examples: Get request for show - want it to work without the "show" curl -u rmbruno:blah http://app.local/api/users/show Put request for update - want it to work without the "update" curl -X put -F 'user[forum_notifications]=true' -u rmbruno:blah http://app.local/api/users/update Create - works with or without 'create' which is what I want for all these actions curl -X post -F 'user[login]=mamafatta' -F 'user[email][email protected]' -F 'user[password]=12345678' http://twye.local/api/users/ How do I structure routes to not require the action name? Isn't that the common way to to RESTful APIs? Here is my route for the API now: map.namespace :api do |route| route.resources :users route.resources :weight end I'm using restful authentication which is handling the http auth in curl. Any guidance on the routes issues and best practice on singular versus plural would be really helpful. Thanks! -A

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  • debugging scaffolding contingent upon degbugging boolean (java)

    - by David
    Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

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  • JTextField vs JComboBox behaviour in JTable

    - by Ash
    Okay, this is a hard one to explain but I'll try my best. I have a JTextField and a JComboBox in a JTable, whose getCellEditor method has been overriden as follows: public TableCellEditor getCellEditor( int row, int column ) { if ( column == 3 ) { // m_table is the JTable if ( m_table.getSelectedRowCount() == 1 ) { JComboBox choices = new JComboBox(); choices.setEditable( true ); choices.addItem( new String( "item 1" ) ); return new DefaultCellEditor( choices ); } return super.getCellEditor( row, column ); } Here are the behavioral differences (NOTE that from this point on, when I say JTextField or JComboBox, I mean the CELL in the JTable containing either component): When I click once on a JTextField, the cell is highlighted. Double clicking brings up the caret and I can input text. Whereas, with a JComboBox, single clicking brings up the caret to input text, as well as the combo drop down button. When I tab or use the arrow keys to navigate to a JTextField and then start typing, the characters I type automatically get entered into the cell. Whereas, when I navigate to a JComboBox the same way and then start typing, nothing happens apart from the combo drop down button appearing. None of the characters I type get entered unless I hit F2 first. So here's my question: What do I need to do have JComboBoxes behave exactly like JTextFields in the two instances described above? Please do not ask why I'm doing what I'm doing or suggest alternatives (it's the way it is and I need to do it this way) and yes, I've read the API for all components in question....the problem is, it's a swing API. Thanks in advance, Ash

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  • HTML checkbox field is being passed to PHP as checked even when it is not

    - by Ryan
    Hello all, First of all thanks in advance, this has been very frustrating and I'm hoping someone can see something I'm not, I am definitely no php expert. Well here' what is going on. I have a form where I have a checkbox for people to opt in to our newletter. The form element looks like this: <label for=newsletter accesskey=N class="checkbox">Signup for Cloverton's Newsletter</label> <input name="newsletter" type="checkbox" id="newsletter" value="Yes" style="width:20px;" /> That is then submitted to a php file with this code: if (isset($_POST['newsletter']) && $_POST['newsletter'] == 'Yes'){ echo "newletter yes"; $newsletter = 1; }else{ echo "newsletter no"; $newsletter = 0; } $newsletter is then inserted into a database field. The issue is that whether the box is checked or not it is being sent to php as true, so every entry is receiving the newsletter. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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  • View Models (ViewData), UserControls/Partials and Global variables - best practice?

    - by elado
    Hi I'm trying to figure out a good way to have 'global' members (such as CurrentUser, Theme etc.) in all of my partials as well as in my views. I don't want to have a logic class that can return this data (like BL.CurrentUser) I do think it needs to be a part of the Model in my views So I tried inheriting from BaseViewData with these members. In my controllers, in this way or another (a filter or base method in my BaseController), I create an instance of the inheriting class and pass it as a view data. Everything's perfect till this point, cause then I have my view data available on the main View with the base members. But what about partials? If I have a simple partial that needs to display a blog post then it looks like this: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" Inherits="ViewUserControl<Post>" %> and simple code to render this partial in my view (that its model.Posts is IEnumerable<Post>): <%foreach (Post p in this.Model.Posts) {%> <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",p); %> <%}%> Since the partial's Model isn't BaseViewData, I don't have access to those properties. Hence, I tried to make a class named PostViewData which inherits from BaseViewData, but then my containing views will have a code to actually create the PostViewData in them in order to pass it to the partial: <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",new PostViewData { Post=p,CurrentUser=Model.CurrentUser,... }); %> Or I could use a copy constructor <%Html.RenderPartial("Post",new PostViewData(Model) { Post=p }); %> I just wonder if there's any other way to implement this before I move on. Any suggestions? Thanks!

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  • XSD any element

    - by ofer shwartz
    HI! I'm trying to create a list that some of the elements are defined and some are not, without priority to order. I tried it this way, with an any element: <?xml version="1.0"?> <xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xs:complexType name="object" mixed="true"> <xs:choice> <xs:element name="value" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:integer"> <xs:enumeration value="1"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> <xs:any namespace="##any" processContents="skip"/> </xs:choice> </xs:complexType> <xs:element name="object" type="object"/> </xs:schema> And it tells me this error: :0:0: error: complex type 'object' violates the unique particle attribution rule in its components 'value' and '##any' Can someone help me out solve the problem? Ofer

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  • Updating MS Access Database from Datagridview

    - by Peter Roche
    I am trying to update an ms access database from a datagridview. The datagridview is populated on a button click and the database is updated when any cell is modified. The code example I have been using populates on form load and uses the cellendedit event. private OleDbConnection connection = null; private OleDbDataAdapter dataadapter = null; private DataSet ds = null; private void Form2_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string connetionString = "Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source='C:\\Users\\Peter\\Documents\\Visual Studio 2010\\Projects\\StockIT\\StockIT\\bin\\Debug\\StockManagement.accdb';Persist Security Info=True;Jet OLEDB:Database Password="; string sql = "SELECT * FROM StockCount"; connection = new OleDbConnection(connetionString); dataadapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(sql, connection); ds = new DataSet(); connection.Open(); dataadapter.Fill(ds, "Stock"); connection.Close(); dataGridView1.DataSource = ds; dataGridView1.DataMember = "Stock"; } private void addUpadateButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { } private void dataGridView1_CellEndEdit(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { try { dataadapter.Update(ds,"Stock"); } catch (Exception exceptionObj) { MessageBox.Show(exceptionObj.Message.ToString()); } } The error I receive is Update requires a valid UpdateCommand when passed DataRow collection with modified rows. I'm not sure where this command needs to go and how to reference the cell to update the value in the database.

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  • How do I sign requests reliably for the Last.fm api in C#?

    - by Arda Xi
    I'm trying to implement authorization through Last.fm. I'm submitting my arguments as a Dictionary to make the signing easier. This is the code I'm using to sign my calls: public static string SignCall(Dictionary<string, string> args) { IOrderedEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, string>> sortedArgs = args.OrderBy(arg => arg.Key); string signature = sortedArgs.Select(pair => pair.Key + pair.Value). Aggregate((first, second) => first + second); return MD5(signature + SecretKey); } I've checked the output in the debugger, it's exactly how it should be, however, I'm still getting WebExceptions every time I try. Here's my code I use to generate the URL in case it'll help: public static string GetSignedURI(Dictionary<string, string> args, bool get) { var stringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); if (get) stringBuilder.Append("http://ws.audioscrobbler.com/2.0/?"); foreach (var kvp in args) stringBuilder.AppendFormat("{0}={1}&", kvp.Key, kvp.Value); stringBuilder.Append("api_sig="+SignCall(args)); return stringBuilder.ToString(); } And sample usage to get a SessionKey: var args = new Dictionary<string, string> { {"method", "auth.getSession"}, {"api_key", ApiKey}, {"token", token} }; string url = GetSignedURI(args, true); EDIT: Oh, and the code references an MD5 function implemented like this: public static string MD5(string toHash) { byte[] textBytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(toHash); var cryptHandler = new System.Security.Cryptography.MD5CryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] hash = cryptHandler.ComputeHash(textBytes); return hash.Aggregate("", (current, a) => current + a.ToString("x2")); }

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  • Jquery UI Dialog - when opened IE7 Browser moves instantly to the bottom of the page

    - by Truegilly
    Hello, i have been working on a new .net MVC site and have integrated some of the awesome jquery UI components. ive been testing it in IE8, FF, opera and Chrome and all looks well. Once I test in IE7, surprisingly its the dialogs that are causing a problem. basically what’s happening is that one you user clicks to open a dialog the page will scroll immediately to the bottom of the page. This is especially bad if the page is quite long. this only happens in IE7 (and probably 6 but im not even going there!). I have spend a few hours reading forums and it seems im not the only one. I have created a dirty hack which im not keen on but it does work. onclick="SignIn(); <% if(ModelHelperClass.CheckForOldIEVersion() == true) Response.Write("window.scrollTo(0, 0);"); %> return false;"> has anyone else had this issue and resolved it without resorting to dirty hacks ? im using jquery-ui-1.8.custom.min.js and jquery-1.4.2.min.js any help is most appreciated Truegilly

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  • Help Modifying Generic REST Helper PHP Example Code to Support XML DOM

    - by Jennifer Baker
    Hi! I found this example PHP source code at HTTP POST from PHP, without cURL I need some help modifying the example PHP source to support XML DOM for manipulating a REST API. I thought that if I update the CASE statement for the XML section below from $r = simplexml_load_string($res); to $r = new DOMDocument(); $r->load($res); that it would work but it doesn't. :( Any help would be appreciated. function rest_helper($url, $params = null, $verb = 'GET', $format = 'xml') { $cparams = array( 'http' => array( 'method' => $verb, 'ignore_errors' => true ) ); if ($params !== null) { $params = http_build_query($params); if ($verb == 'POST') { $cparams['http']['content'] = $params; } else { $url .= '?' . $params; } } $context = stream_context_create($cparams); $fp = fopen($url, 'rb', false, $context); if (!$fp) { $res = false; } else { // If you're trying to troubleshoot problems, try uncommenting the // next two lines; it will show you the HTTP response headers across // all the redirects: // $meta = stream_get_meta_data($fp); // var_dump($meta['wrapper_data']); $res = stream_get_contents($fp); } if ($res === false) { throw new Exception("$verb $url failed: $php_errormsg"); } switch ($format) { case 'json': $r = json_decode($res); if ($r === null) { throw new Exception("failed to decode $res as json"); } return $r; case 'xml': $r = simplexml_load_string($res); if ($r === null) { throw new Exception("failed to decode $res as xml"); } return $r; } return $res; }

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  • How to set connection string dynamically in NHibernate

    - by jcreddy
    Hi I want assign connection string for NHibernate using following code and getting exception (bold). log4net.Config.DOMConfigurator.Configure(); Configuration config = new Configuration(); IDictionary props = new Hashtable(); props["hibernate.connection.provider"] = "NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider"; props["hibernate.dialect"] = "NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2000Dialect"; props["hibernate.connection.driver_class"] = "NHibernate.Driver.SqlClientDriver"; props["hibernate.connection.connection_string"] = @"Integrated Security=SSPI;Persist Security Info=False;Initial Catalog=Sample;Data Source=HYDHTC92318D\SQLEXPRESS"; props["hibernate.connection.current_session_context_class"] = "web"; props["hibernate.connection.show_sql"] = "true"; props["hibernate.connection.proxyfactoryfactory.factory_class"] = "NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle"; foreach (DictionaryEntry de in props) { config.SetProperty(de.Key.ToString(), de.Value.ToString()); } config.AddAssembly("nhibernator"); factory = config.BuildSessionFactory(); session = factory.OpenSession(); The ProxyFactoryFactory was not configured. Initialize 'proxyfactory.factory_class' property of the session-factory configuration section with one of the available NHibernate.ByteCode providers. Example: NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu Example: NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle Please let me know the solution. Regards JCReddy

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  • RichFaces a4j:support parameter passing

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello I have a number of rich:inplaceInput tags in RichFaces which represent numbers in an array. The validator allows integers only. When a user clicks in an input and changes a value, how can I get the bean to sort the array given the new number and reRender the list of rich:inplaceInput tags so that they're in numerical order? EG <a4j:region> <rich:dataTable value="#{MyBacking.config}" var="feed" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" border="0" columns="5" id="Admin"> ... <a4j:repeat... <a4j:region id="MsgCon"> <rich:inplaceInput value="#{h.id}" validator="#{MyBacking.validateID}" id="andID" showControls="true"> <a4j:support event="onviewactivated" action="#{MyBacking.sort}" reRender="Admin" /> </rich:inplaceInput> </a4j:region> </a4j:repeat> </data:Table> </a4j:region> Note I do NOT want to use dataTable sort functions. The table is complicated and I've specified id="Admin" (ie the whole table) to reRender as I've not found a way to send more localised values to the backing bean through the inplaceInput. This question is about how to use a4j:support action attribute to call the sort method so that when the reRender rerenders the component, it outputs the list in sorted order. I have the sort method working ok when I click a button to sort, but I want to have the list sorted automatically as soon as a new valid value is entered into the inplaceInput component. Thanks

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  • Can iPad/iPhone Touch Points be Wrong Due to Calibration?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I have an iPad application that uses the whole screen (that is, UIStatusBarHidden is set true in the Info.plist file). The main window's frame is set to (0, 0, 768, 1024), as is the main view in that frame. The main view has multitouch enabled. The view has code to handle touches: - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for (UITouch *touch in touches) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:nil]; NSLog(@"touchesMoved at location %@", NSStringFromCGPoint(location)); } } When I run the app in the simulator, it works pretty much as expected. As I move the mouse from one edge of the screen to the other, reported X values go from 0 to 767. Reported Y values go from 20 to 1023, but it is a known issue that the simulator doesn't report touches in the top 20 pixels of the screen, even when there is no status bar. Here's what's weird: When I run the app on an actual iPad, the X values go from 0 to 767 as expected, but reported Y values go from -6 to 1017. The fact that it seems to work properly on the simulator leads me to suspect that real devices' touchscreens are not perfectly calibrated, and mine is simply reporting values six pixels too low. Can anyone verify that this is the case? Otherwise, is there anything else that could account for the Y values being six pixels off from what I expect? (In a few days, I should have a second iPad, so I can test this with another device and compare the results.)

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  • help on ejb stateless datagram and message driven beans

    - by Kemmal
    i have a client thats sending a message to the ejbserver using UDP, i want the server(stateless bean) to echo back this message to the client but i cant seem to do this. or can i implement the same logic by using JMS? please help and enlighten. this is just a test, in the end i want a midp to be sending the message to the ejb using datagrams. here is my code. @Stateless public class SessionFacadeBean implements SessionFacadeRemote { public SessionFacadeBean() { } public static void main(String[] args) { DatagramSocket aSocket = null; byte[] buffer = null; try { while(true) { DatagramPacket request = new DatagramPacket(buffer, buffer.length); aSocket.receive(request); DatagramPacket reply = new DatagramPacket(request.getData(), request.getLength(), request.getAddress(), request.getPort()); aSocket.send(reply); } } catch (SocketException e) { System.out.println("Socket: " + e.getMessage()); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("IO: " + e.getMessage()); } finally { if(aSocket != null) aSocket.close(); } } } and the client: public static void main(String[] args) { DatagramSocket aSocket = null; try { aSocket = new DatagramSocket(); byte [] m = "Test message!".getBytes(); InetAddress aHost = InetAddress.getByName("localhost"); int serverPort = 6789; DatagramPacket request = new DatagramPacket(m, m.length, aHost, serverPort); aSocket.send(request); byte[] buffer = new byte[1000]; DatagramPacket reply = new DatagramPacket(buffer, buffer.length); aSocket.receive(reply); System.out.println("Reply: " + new String(reply.getData())); } catch (SocketException e) { System.out.println("Socket: " + e.getMessage()); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("IO: " + e.getMessage()); } finally { if(aSocket != null) aSocket.close(); } } please help.

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  • How to get a fully transparent backbuffer in directx 9 without vista Desktop Window Manager

    - by flawlesslyfaulted
    I currently have an activex control that initiates a media (video/audio) framework another development group in my company developed and I am providing a window handle to that code. That handle is being used by their rendering plugin in the pipeline that uses Direct3d for rendering the video using that handle. I have seperate LPDIRECT3D9EX and LPDIRECT3DDEVICE9EX pointers that I initialize in my activex control. I am trying to clear a backbuffer to transparent and then use directx drawing primatives to draw on that backbuffer producing a transparent window with my drawing primatives over the streaming video on the directx surface below. It appears that clearing a device backbuffer with full alpha transparency is ignored by directx. d3ddev->Clear(0, NULL, D3DCLEAR_TARGET, D3DCOLOR_RGBA(0, 0, 1, 0 /*full alpha*/), 1.0f, 0); I can see the object I draw but they are drawn on top of a backbuffer that has the RGB color specified without the alpha value. The project linked (http://www.codeproject.com/KB/directx/umvistad3d.aspx) to in the stackoverflow question below does what I want but requires vista's Desktop Window Manager and won't work for XP. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/148275/how-do-i-draw-transparent-directx-content-in-a-transparent-window I have tried with D3DRS_ALPHABLENDENABLE true with configured blend with no avail. I have also tried to have pixels with full alpha values not rendered using D3DRS_ALPHATESTENABLE, D3DRS_ALPHAREF, and D3DRS_ALPHAFUNC setup but this doesn't work either. I have tried using ColorFill with alpha after retrieving the backbuffer with GetBackBuffer but this doesn't work either. (again only RGB is used) Finally I have tried creating a texture, selecting a surface, colorfilling that surface with a fully transparent alpha value, then loading that surface onto the backbuffer but only the RGB values appear to be used. I have checked the capabilities using the DXCapsViewer.exe and the D3DFMT_A8R8G8B8 backbuffer format that I am using for the backbuffer is valid so it can't be that. Has anyone gotten a transparent backbuffer in directx to work in XP?

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  • What am I doing wrong with my Shoes program?

    - by dmonroe4919
    #Shoes.app(:title => "Collinear Points", :width => 450, :height => 350) do def calculate math.sqrt(((@[email protected]_f)**2)+((@[email protected]_f)**2)+((@[email protected]_f)**2)) end def compute math.sqrt(((@[email protected]_f)**2)+((@[email protected]_f)**2)+((@[email protected]_f)**2)) end def capture math.sqrt(((@[email protected]_f)**2)+((@[email protected]_f)**2)+((@[email protected]_f)**2)) end stack(:width => '100%', :margin => 20) do para('Calculate Collinear Points') para(' x y z') end flow(:width => '100%' ) do para('Point A: ') @alphax = edit_line(:width => 100, height => 35) {@collinear.text = calculate} @alphay = edit_line(:width => 100, height => 35) {@collinear.text = calculate} @alphaz = edit_line(:width => 100, height => 35) {@collinear.text = calculate} end flow(:width => '100%' ) do para('Point B: ') @betax = edit_line(:width => 100, height => 35) {@collinear.text = compute} @betay = edit_line(:width => 100, height => 35) {@collinear.text = compute} @betaz = edit_line(:width => 100, height => 35) {@collinear.text = compute} end flow(:width => '100%' ) do para('Point C: ') @gammax = edit_line(:width => 100, height => 35) {@collinear.text = capture} @gammay = edit_line(:width => 100, height => 35) {@collinear.text = capture} @gammaz = edit_line(:width => 100, height => 35) {@collinear.text = capture} end button("Configure") @button.click do c = calculate+compute=capture case c when c=true alert("Points are collinear, equation is ") when c=false alert("Points are non-collinear") end end

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  • WCF: Using multiple bindings for a single service.

    - by Lijo
    Hi, I have a WCF service (in 3.0) which is running fine with wsHttpBinding. I want to add netTcpBinding binding also to the same service. But the challenge that I am facing is in adding behaviorConfiguration. How should I modify the following code to enable the service for both the bindings? Please help… <service name="Lijo.Samples.WeatherService" behaviorConfiguration="WeatherServiceBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8000/ServiceModelSamples/FreeServiceWorld"/> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:8052/ServiceModelSamples/FreeServiceWorld"/> <!-- added new baseaddress for TCP--> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="Lijo.Samples.IWeather" /> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="Lijo.Samples.IWeather" /> <!-- added new end point--> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="WeatherServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="False"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> Please see the following to see further details http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2887588/wcf-using-windows-service Thanks Lijo

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  • C# WPF abnormal CPU usage for animation

    - by 0xDEAD BEEF
    I am developing WPF application and client reports extreamly high CPU usage (90%) (whereas i am unable to repeat that behavior). I have traced bootleneck down to these lines. It is simple glowing animation for small single led control (blinking led). What could be reason for this simple annimation taking up SO huge CPU resources? <Trigger Property="State"> <Trigger.Value> <local:BlinkingLedStatus>Blinking</local:BlinkingLedStatus> </Trigger.Value> <Trigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard Name="beginStoryBoard"> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetName="glow" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Opacity" AutoReverse="True" From="0.0" To="1.0" Duration="0:0:0.5" RepeatBehavior="Forever"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </Trigger.EnterActions> <Trigger.ExitActions> <StopStoryboard BeginStoryboardName="beginStoryBoard"/> </Trigger.ExitActions> </Trigger>

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC / Publish

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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  • Javascript: "Dangling" Reference to DOM element?

    - by Channel72
    It seems that in Javascript, if you have a reference to some DOM element, and then modify the DOM by adding additional elements to document.body, your DOM reference becomes invalidated. Consider the following code: <html> <head> <script type = "text/javascript"> function work() { var foo = document.getElementById("foo"); alert(foo == document.getElementById("foo")); document.body.innerHTML += "<div>blah blah</div>"; alert(foo == document.getElementById("foo")); } </script> </head> <body> <div id = "foo" onclick='work()'>Foo</div> </body> </html> When you click on the DIV, this alerts "true", and then "false." So in other words, after modifying document.body, the reference to the DIV element is no longer valid. This behavior is the same on Firefox and MSIE. Some questions: Why does this occur? Is this behavior specified by the ECMAScript standard, or is this a browser-specific issue? Note: there's another question posted on stackoverflow that seems to be referring to the same issue, but neither the question nor the answers are very clear.

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  • Using JQuery with dynamically added controls (MVC)

    - by Mario
    I have a set of radio buttons that are dynamically generated (via JSON call): StringBuilder sbEligAll = new StringBuilder(); sbEligAll.Append("<div id='currentselectiondepartment'>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrent' value='0' /><label for='radCurrent'>Current</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFuture' value='1' /><label for='radFuture'>Future</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radCurrentAll' value='2' /><label for='radCurrentAll'>Current All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append(" <input type='radio' name='selectalldepartment' id='radFutureAll' value='3' /><label for='radFutureAll'>Future All</label>"); sbEligAll.Append("</div>"); Then: return Json(new { TableList = sbElig.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); Is there a way to get jQuery to be able to interact with these? For example: $("input[name=selectalldepartment]").change(function() { var str = $('input[name=selectalldepartment]:checked').val(); $(".radiolist[value='" + str + "']").attr("checked", true); }); I've tried everything I know how to do, but the jQuery just doesnt fire. (I've added alerts to the jQuery code to see if it actually gets called, and it does not). Any thoughts?! Thanks!

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