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  • Determine target architecture of binary file in Linux (library or executable)

    - by Fernando Miguélez
    We have an issue related to a Java application running under a (rather old) FC3 on a Advantech POS board with a Via C3 processor. The java application has several compiled shared libs that are accessed via JNI. Via C3 processor is suppossed to be i686 compatible. Some time ago after installing Ubuntu 6.10 on a MiniItx board with the same processor I found out that the previous statement is not 100% true. The Ubuntu kernel hanged on startup due to the lack of some specific and optional instructions of the i686 set in the C3 processor. These instructions missing in C3 implementation of i686 set are used by default by GCC compiler when using i686 optimizations. The solution in this case was to go with a i386 compiled version of Ubuntu distribution. The base problem with the Java application is that the FC3 distribution was installed on the HD by cloning from an image of the HD of another PC, this time an Intel P4. Afterwards the distribution needed some hacking to have it running such as replacing some packages (such as the kernel one) with the i383 compiled version. The problem is that after working for a while the system completely hangs without a trace. I am afraid that some i686 code is left somewhere in the system and could be executed randomly at any time (for example after recovering from suspend mode or something like that). My question is: Is there any tool or way to find out at what specific architecture is an binary file (executable or library) aimed provided that "file" does not give so much information?

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  • How to authenticate multiple entry points in a facebook app?

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I am using an IFrame application with XFBML and the new Javascript API. I'd like to have a facebook application with multiple entry points. These will most likely represent different links coming from a fan page tab. I can do this quite easily if the pages don't require authentication - for instance I can create several pages under the app and if a new user comes I can send them to any page: http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/offers http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/game http://apps.facebook.com/myapp/products The problem is that if I need to have authentication then once the user is authenticated they get redirected to my default post-authorization url. Is there a way for a user that comes to /game to stay on /game after they are authenticated without redirecting. I thought I could do it with the AJAX login form - but I cannot find out how to do that in a Facebook IFrame application. I think the example using requirelogin only works for FBML. <a href="http://apps.facebook.com/mysmiley" requirelogin=1> Welcome to my app</a>. Is there a way to accomplish this with Facebook APIs - or will I have to do some kind of clever cookie handling?

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  • TextArea component is null on applicationComplete event

    - by Alan G.
    I have a weird issue (weird because it is specific to one component) with applicationComplete in a fairly simple application. All the UI components are declared in MXML. I can access them all in applicationComplete, but not a spark.components.TextArea component, named taStatus here; it is null in the handler. MXML looks sort of like this (there are lots of other components, but nothing special) <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="710" minHeight="640" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete(event)" width="710" height="640"> <mx:TabNavigator left="15" right="15" top="15" bottom="340" paddingTop="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="General" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:Label x="93" y="71" text="Label" id="lblTest"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="Status" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:TextArea id="taStatus" width="100%" height="100%" text="Startup." editable="false"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> <fx:Script source="main.as" /> </s:Application> Here is the handler in main.as protected function onApplicationComplete(event: FlexEvent) : void { lblTest.text = 'abc789'; // OK taStatus.text = 'abc789'; // Fail } TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. So taStatus is null... What is so special about this TextArea?

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  • Windows/C++: how to use a COM dll which is not registered

    - by Albert
    Hi, In our application, we need to use a COM dll (namely msdia100.dll) which was not registered in the system before. Earler, we have just called the DLL by calling its DllRegisterServer via this code: // Register DIA DLL required by Breakpad std::string diaLibPath = "msdia100"; HMODULE diaLib = LoadLibrary(diaLibPath.c_str()); if( diaLib == NULL ) { errors << "Cannot load DLL " << diaLibPath << endl; return; } typedef HRESULT ( __stdcall * regServer_t )(void); regServer_t regServer = (regServer_t)GetProcAddress(diaLib, "DllRegisterServer"); if( regServer == NULL ) { errors << "Cannot get method DllRegisterServer from " << diaLibPath << endl; FreeLibrary(diaLib); return; } if( regServer() != S_OK ) { errors << "Cannot call DllRegisterServer from " << diaLibPath << endl; } FreeLibrary(diaLib); This doesn't work anymore on Windows 7 (maybe also Vista, didn't tried) because to call this function, it needs Administrator privileges. All solutions to this problem I have found where about getting those Admin rights. That is no possible solution for us because our application must also work if the user is not able to get those Admin rights. It is also no solution for us to suddenly need an installer for our application which registeres this DLL. So, what possibilities are there? How can I use this DLL without Admin rights? Do I have to recode COM which works without the need to register a DLL first?

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  • Google MapView doesn't work after signed the app.

    - by user164589
    Hi guys, I am facing to android application signing problem. My application contains Google MapView. When I compile the app and run on the emulator, MapView works fine. But signed the app, MapView doesn't work. I've get Google Map API. This works on the simulator. I could sign the app once 2 months ago. Then I've upgraded the app. Now I need to sign the app again. Actually I don't know why signed app's mapView doesn't work. How to fix it ? Please advice. I used following steps when sign the app: Run Eclipse. Select the project. Right Click - Android Tools - Export Signed Application Package - Then Filled forms. (In forms, Validity years: 200, and all passwords are same.) Can you suggest me ? Thanks in advance.

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  • Newbie: Render RGB to GTK widget -- howto?

    - by Billy Pilgrim
    Hi All, Big picture: I want to render an RGB image via GTK on a linux box. I'm a frustrated GTK newbie, so please forgive me. I assume that I should create a Drawable_area in which to render the image -- correct? Do I then have to create a graphics context attached to that area? How? my simple app (which doesn't even address the rgb issue yet is this: int main(int argc, char** argv) { GdkGC * gc = NULL; GtkWidget * window = NULL; GtkDrawingArea * dpage = NULL; GtkWidget * page = NULL; gtk_init( &argc, & argv ); window = gtk_window_new( GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL ); page = gtk_drawing_area_new( ); dpage = GTK_DRAWING_AREA( page ); gtk_widget_set_size_request( page, PAGE_WIDTH, PAGE_HEIGHT ); gc = gdk_gc_new( GTK_DRAWABLE( dpage ) ); gtk_widget_show( window ); gtk_main(); return (EXIT_SUCCESS); } my dpage is apparently not a 'drawable' (though it is a drawing area). I am confused as to a) how do I get/create the graphics context which is required in subsequent function calls? b) am I close to a solution, or am I so completely *#&@& wrong that there is no hope c) a baby steps tutorial. (I started with hello world as my base, so I got that far). any and all help appreciated. bp

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  • Managing shared product backlog items across multiple platforms

    - by MotoSV
    I am using TFS 2012 to develop a application that will be available as a website and a mobile application, i.e. Windows Phone, Android, etc. While I've been building up a list of features for this application I've noticed that a lot of them will be available across all platforms and I'm not to sure how to manage them within a product backlog. For example, there will be an option to sign in with a Facebook account and user will be able to do this on website and mobile applications. So my though was I would create a product backlog item "Sign in with Facebook account" and assign it to an area called "Website". I would then create another backlog item, with the same title, but this time assign it to an area called "Windows Phone". Therefore my backlog would have two items, both with the same title, but different areas. The idea is I could assign the "Sign in..." backlog item for the website to one sprint and then assign the "Sign in..." backlog item for Windows Phone to another sprint. Seeing as I'm new using Agile/Scrum would this be considered a viable way of managing a product backlog?

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  • Using Dispose on a Singleton to Cleanup Resources

    - by ImperialLion
    The question I have might be more to do with semantics than with the actual use of IDisposable. I am working on implementing a singleton class that is in charge of managing a database instance that is created during the execution of the application. When the application closes this database should be deleted. Right now I have this delete being handled by a Cleanup() method of the singleton that the application calls when it is closing. As I was writing the documentation for Cleanup() it struck me that I was describing what a Dispose() method should be used for i.e. cleaning up resources. I had originally not implemented IDisposable because it seemed out of place in my singleton, because I didn't want anything to dispose the singleton itself. There isn't currently, but in the future might be a reason that this Cleanup() might be called but the singleton should will need to still exist. I think I can include GC.SuppressFinalize(this); in the Dispose method to make this feasible. My question therefore is multi-parted: 1) Is implementing IDisposable on a singleton fundamentally a bad idea? 2) Am I just mixing semantics here by having a Cleanup() instead of a Dispose() and since I'm disposing resources I really should use a dispose? 3) Will implementing 'Dispose()' with GC.SuppressFinalize(this); make it so my singleton is not actually destroyed in the case I want it to live after a call to clean-up the database.

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  • LINQ to SQL: Reusable expression for property?

    - by coenvdwel
    Pardon me for being unable to phrase the title more exact. Basically, I have three LINQ objects linked to tables. One is Product, the other is Company and the last is a mapping table Mapping to store what Company sells which products and by which ID this Company refers to this Product. I am now retrieving a list of products as follows: var options = new DataLoadOptions(); options.LoadWith<Product>(p => p.Mappings); context.LoadOptions = options; var products = ( from p in context.Products select new { ProductID = p.ProductID, //BackendProductID = p.BackendProductID, BackendProductID = (p.Mappings.Count == 0) ? "None" : (p.Mappings.Count > 1) ? "Multiple" : p.Mappings.First().BackendProductID, Description = p.Description } ).ToList(); This does a single query retrieving the information I want. But I want to be able to move the logic behind the BackendProductID into the LINQ object so I can use the commented line instead of the annoyingly nested ternary operator statements for neatness and re-usability. So I added the following property to the Product object: public string BackendProductID { get { if (Mappings.Count == 0) return "None"; if (Mappings.Count > 1) return "Multiple"; return Mappings.First().BackendProductID; } } The list is still the same, but it now does a query for every single Product to get it's BackendProductID. The code is neater and re-usable, but the performance now is terrible. What I need is some kind of Expression or Delegate but I couldn't get my head around writing one. It always ended up querying for every single product, still. Any help would be appreciated!

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  • WPF and LINQ/SQL - how and where to keep track of changes?

    - by Groky
    I have a WPF application built using the MVVM pattern: My Models come from LINQ to SQL. I use the Repository Pattern to abstract away the DataContext. My ViewModels have a reference to a Model. Setting a property on the ViewModel causes that value to be written through to the Model. As you can see, my data is stored in my Model, and changes are therefore tracked by my DataContext. However, in this question I read: The guidelines from the MSDN documentation on the DataContext class are what I would recommend following: In general, a DataContext instance is designed to last for one "unit of work" however your application defines that term. A DataContext is lightweight and is not expensive to create. A typical LINQ to SQL application creates DataContext instances at method scope or as a member of short-lived classes that represent a logical set of related database operations. How do you track your changes? In your DataContext? In your ViewModel? Elsewhere?

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • Mail Rule to Run Applescript Not Working?

    - by William Andy Hainline
    Question for my fellow AppleScripters. I have the following script which runs just fine if you run it in AppleScript Editor or Script Debugger, but that won't run at all if you try to run it from a Mail rule. The script is correctly placed in ~/Library/Application Scripts/com.apple.mail, and shows up in the "Run AppleScript" menu in the Mail rule, but simply refuses to work when new mail arrives. on perform_mail_action(info) tell application "Mail" set theMessages to |SelectedMessages| of info repeat with thisMessage in theMessages set AppleScript's text item delimiters to {""} set thisSender to sender of thisMessage as string set quotepos to offset of "\"" in thisSender if (quotepos is not 0) then set thisSender to (text items (quotepos + 1) through -1) ¬ of thisSender as string set quotepos to offset of "\"" in thisSender if (quotepos is not 0) then set thisSender to (text items 1 through (quotepos - 1)) ¬ of thisSender as string end if else set atpos to offset of "@" in thisSender if (atpos is not 0) then set thisSender to (text items 1 through (atpos - 1)) ¬ of thisSender as string end if set brkpos to offset of "<" in thisSender if (brkpos is not 0) then set thisSender to (text items (brkpos + 1) through -1) ¬ of thisSender as string end if end if tell application "Finder" to say "Mail from " & thisSender end repeat end tell end perform_mail_action Any ideas?

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  • No GPS Update retrieved? Problem in Code?

    - by poeschlorn
    Hello mates, I've got a serious problem with my GPS on my Nexus One: I wrote a kind of hello world with GPS, but the Toast that should be displayed isn't :( I don't know what I'm doing wrong...maybe you could help me getting this work. Here's my code: package gps.test; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.location.Location; import android.location.LocationListener; import android.location.LocationManager; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.Toast; public class GPS extends Activity { private LocationManager lm; private LocationListener locationListener; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // ---use the LocationManager class to obtain GPS locations--- lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); locationListener = new MyLocationListener(); lm.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 100, 1, locationListener); } private class MyLocationListener implements LocationListener { @Override public void onLocationChanged(Location loc) { if (loc != null) { Toast.makeText( getBaseContext(), "Location changed : Lat: " + loc.getLatitude() + " Lng: " + loc.getLongitude(), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } @Override public void onProviderDisabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onProviderEnabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onStatusChanged(String provider, int status, Bundle extras) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } } Theoretically there should be a new toast every 100 milliseconds, shouldn't it? Or at least, when I change my position by one meter!? I've no idea why it doesn't. I must admit I'm new to the topic, maybe I've missed something? It would be great if you could give me a hint :) nice greetings, poeschlorn

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  • Entity Framework - Many to Many Subquery

    - by Jorin
    I asked a question about this previously but my database structure has changed, and while it made other things simpler, now this part is more complicated. Here is the previous question. At the time, my EF Context had a UsersProjects object because there were other properties. Now that I've simplified that table, it is just the keys, so all my EF context knows about is Users and Projects and the M2M relationship between them. There is no more UsersProjects as far as EF knows. So my goal is to say "show me all the users who are working on projects with me." in SQL, this would go something like: SELECT * FROM Users INNER JOIN UsersProjects ON Users.ID=UsersProjects.UserID WHERE ProjectID IN (SELECT ProjectID FROM UsersProjects WHERE UserID=@UserID) and I started in EF with something like this: var myProjects = (from p in edmx.Projects where p.Users.Contains(edmx.Users.FirstOrDefault(u => u.Email == UserEmail)) orderby p.Name select p).ToList(); var associatedUsers = (from u in edmx.Users where myProjects.Contains(?????????) //where myProjects.Any(????????) select u); The trick is finding what to put in the ????????. Anyone help here?

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  • Multithreading A Function in VB.Net

    - by Ben
    I am trying to multi thread my application so as it is visible while it is executing the process, this is what I have so far: Private Sub SendPOST(ByVal URL As String) Try Dim DataBytes As Byte() = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes("") Dim Request As HttpWebRequest = TryCast(WebRequest.Create(URL.Trim & "/webdav/"), HttpWebRequest) Request.Method = "POST" Request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Request.ContentLength = DataBytes.Length Request.Timeout = 1000 Request.ReadWriteTimeout = 1000 Dim PostData As Stream = Request.GetRequestStream() PostData.Write(DataBytes, 0, DataBytes.Length) Dim Response As WebResponse = Request.GetResponse() Dim ResponseStream As Stream = Response.GetResponseStream() Dim StreamReader As New IO.StreamReader(ResponseStream) Dim Text As String = StreamReader.ReadToEnd() PostData.Close() Catch ex As Exception If ex.ToString.Contains("401") Then TextBox2.Text = TextBox2.Text & URL & "/webdav/" & vbNewLine End If End Try End Sub Public Sub G0() Dim siteSplit() As String = TextBox1.Text.Split(vbNewLine) For i = 0 To siteSplit.Count - 1 Try If siteSplit(i).Contains("http://") Then SendPOST(siteSplit(i).Trim) Else SendPOST("http://" & siteSplit(i).Trim) End If Catch ex As Exception End Try Next End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load Dim t As Thread t = New Thread(AddressOf Me.G0) t.Start() End Sub However, the 'G0' sub code is not being executed at all, and I need to multi thread the 'SendPOST' as that is what slows the application.

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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  • Best practices for encrypting continuous/small UDP data

    - by temp
    Hello everyone, I am having an application where I have to send several small data per second through the network using UDP. The application need to send the data in real-time (no waiting). I want to encrypt these data and insure that what I am doing is as secure as possible. Since I am using UDP, there is no way to use SSL/TLS, so I have to encrypt each packet alone since the protocol is connectionless/unreliable/unregulated. Right now, I am using a 128-bit key derived from a passphrase from the user, and AES in CBC mode (PBE using AES-CBC). I decided to use a random salt with the passphrase to derive the 128-bit key (prevent dictionary attack on the passphrase), and of course use IVs (to prevent statistical analysis for packets). However I am concerned about few things: Each packet contains small amount of data (like a couple of integer values per packet) which will make the encrypted packets vulnerable to known-plaintext attacks (which will result in making it easier to crack the key). Also, since the encryption key is derived from a passphrase, this will make the key space way less (I know the salt will help, but I have to send the salt through the network once and anyone can get it). Given these two things, anyone can sniff and store the sent data, and try to crack the key. Although this process might take some time, once the key is cracked all the stored data will be decrypted, which will be a real problem for my application. So my question is, what is the best practices for sending/encrypting continuous small data using a connectionless protocol (UDP)? Is my way the best way to do it? ...flowed? ...Overkill? ... Please note that I am not asking for a 100% secure solution, as there is no such thing. Cheers

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  • Developping an online music store

    - by Simon
    We need to develop an application to sell music online. No need to specify that all will be done quite legally and in so doing, we have to plan an interface to pay artists. However, we are confronted with a question: What is the best way to store music on the server? Should we save it on server's disk from a HTTP fileupload? Should we save via FTP or would it be wiser to save it in the database? No need to say that we need it to be the most safiest as possible. So maybe an https is required here. But, we what you think is the best way? Maybe other idea? Because in all HTTP case, upload songs (for administration) is quite long and boring, but easly linkable to a song that admin create in his web application comparativly to an FTP application to upload song on server and then list directory in admin part to link the correct uploaded song to the song informations in database. I know that its maybe not quite clear, it's because i'm french but tell me and I will try to explain part that you don't understand.

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  • Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

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  • How can i fetch the large image from url

    - by Kutbi
    i used below code to fetch the image from url.but its not working for large image.. i missing something to add for that type of image to fetch. imgView = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.ImageView01); imgView.setImageBitmap(loadBitmap("http://www.360technosoft.com/mx4.jpg")); //imgView.setImageBitmap(loadBitmap("http://sugardaddydiaries.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/12/how_do_i_get_sugar_daddy.jpg")); //setImageDrawable("http://sugardaddydiaries.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/12/holding-money-copy.jpg"); //Drawable drawable = LoadImageFromWebOperations("http://www.androidpeople.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/03/android.png"); //imgView.setImageDrawable(drawable); /* try { ImageView i = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.ImageView01); Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeStream((InputStream)new URL("http://sugardaddydiaries.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/12/holding-money-copy.jpg").getContent()); i.setImageBitmap(bitmap); } catch (MalformedURLException e) { System.out.println("hello"); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("hello"); }*/ } protected Drawable ImageOperations(Context context, String string, String string2) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub try { InputStream is = (InputStream) this.fetch(string); Drawable d = Drawable.createFromStream(is, "src"); return d; } catch (MalformedURLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); return null; } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); return null; } }

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  • Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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  • How to globalize ASP.NET MVC views (decimal separators in particular)?

    - by Pawel Krakowiak
    I'm working with the NerdDinner sample application and arrived at the section which deals with the Virtual Earth map. The application stores some values for the longitude and latitude. Unfortunately on my system floating point numbers are stored with a comma as the decimal separator, not a dot like in the US. So if I have a latitude of 47.64 it's retrieved and displayed as 47,64. Because that value is passed in a function call to the Virtual Earth API it fails at that point (e.g. JavaScript API expects 47.64, -122.13, but gets 47,64, -122,13). I need to make sure that the application always uses dots. In a WebForms app I would have a common class which overrides the System.Web.UI.Page.InitializeCulture() method and I would be inheriting my pages from that class. I am not sure about how to do the same with MVC. Do I need a customized ViewPage or something? Is there an easy way to solve this? Examples?

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  • Unmanaged Process in Mono

    - by Residuum
    I want to start a quite expensive process (jackd) from a Mono application, and do not need full access to the process from the application itself. As the process is so expensive in terms of CPU usage, a Glib.IdleHandler for polling the process will not work, as it is never executed, and the GUI becomes unresponsive. Is there any way to have the cake and eating it at the same time in Mono? EDIT: I only need to be able to start and stop the process from Mono, I do not need information about the state of the process or if it has exited, as my application will register itself as a client to jackd, basically I need a "replacement" for bash's jackd &>/dev/null 2>&1 & for the System.Diagnostics.Process ;). Here is what I have so far for starting and stopping the process: public void StartJackd() { _jackd = new Process (); _jackd.StartInfo = _jackdStartup; if (_jackd.Start ()) { _jackd.EnableRaisingEvents = true; _jackd.Exited += JackdExited; } } public void StopJackd() { if (_jackd != null && !_jackd.HasExited) { _jackd.CloseMainWindow (); } } And somewhere else I have this code for registering the IdleHandler: GLib.Idle.Add(new GLib.IdleHandler(UpdateJackdConnections)); This handler will fire all the time, while the process is not running, but never, when jackd is running.

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  • How to change CSS color values in real-time off a javascript slider?

    - by bflora
    I'm making a page where the user gets a javascript slider that goes from 0 to 100 and can use it to set the opacity of a div on the page. I want the opacity of that div to change in real-time as they work the slider. I've not done this before. What's the best approach? There cursor in the slider displays the slider's current value as you move it. It seems to be that I just need to find a way to display that value in any arbitrary other place on the page so I can display it in the style settings for the div. The .js file that generates the slider has a line that (I think) is setting the current value in the cursor: $(this).children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); TO get this changing number to display somewhere else at the same time, do I just need to add a div somewhere and then add a line like this? $("#newDivId").children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); That seems like it would give me the number showing up in a div. How then would I get it into a form I could put into the style settings for a div? If this was a php variable, I would do something like this, style="opacity:<?php print $value ?>;" What would be the .js equivalent?

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  • Drag Drop copy file

    - by Graham Warrender
    I've perhaps done something marginally stupid, but can't see what it is!! string pegasusKey = @"HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Pegasus\"; string opera2ServerPath = @"Server VFP\"; string opera3ServerPath = @"O3 Client VFP\"; string opera2InstallationPath = null; string opera3InstallationPath = null; //Gets the opera Installtion paths and reads to the string opera*InstallationPath opera2InstallationPath = (string)Registry.GetValue(pegasusKey + opera2ServerPath + "System", "PathToServerDynamic", null); opera3InstallationPath = (string)Registry.GetValue(pegasusKey + opera3ServerPath + "System", "PathToServerDynamic", null); string Filesource = null; string[] FileList = (string[])e.Data.GetData(DataFormats.FileDrop, false); foreach (string File in FileList) Filesource = File; label.Text = Filesource; if (System.IO.Directory.Exists(opera3InstallationPath)) { System.IO.File.Copy(Filesource, opera3InstallationPath); MessageBox.Show("File Copied from" + Filesource + "\n to" + opera3InstallationPath); } else { MessageBox.Show("Directory Doesn't Exist"); } The user drags the file onto the window, I then get the installation path of an application which is then used as the destination for the source file.. When the application is runs, it throws the error directory not found. But surely if the directory doesn't exists is should step into the else statement? a simple application that is becoming a headache!!

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