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  • Cannot overload function

    - by anio
    So I've got a templatized class and I want to overload the behavior of a function when I have specific type, say char. For all other types, let them do their own thing. However, c++ won't let me overload the function. Why can't I overload this function? I really really do not want to do template specialization, because then I've got duplicate the entire class. Here is a toy example demonstrating the problem: http://codepad.org/eTgLG932 The same code posted here for your reading pleasure: #include <iostream> #include <cstdlib> #include <string> struct Bar { std::string blah() { return "blah"; } }; template <typename T> struct Foo { public: std::string doX() { return m_getY(my_t); } private: std::string m_getY(char* p_msg) { return std::string(p_msg); } std::string m_getY(T* p_msg) { return p_msg->blah(); } T my_t; }; int main(int, char**) { Foo<char> x; Foo<Bar> y; std::cout << "x " << x.doX() << std::endl; return EXIT_SUCCESS; } Thank you everyone for your suggestions. Two valid solutions have been presented. I can either specialize the doX method, or specialize m_getY() method. At the end of the day I prefer to keep my specializations private rather than public so I'm accepting Krill's answer.

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  • Custom button with property as StaticResource

    - by alin
    I am trying to achieve the following thing: use an svg image into a custom button. In order to do this I created a Custom button: public class MainButton : Button { static MainButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(MainButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(MainButton))); } public string Text { get { return (string)GetValue(TextProperty); } set { SetValue(TextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Text", typeof(string), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); public object Image { get { return (object)GetValue(ImageProperty); } set { SetValue(ImageProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ImageProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Image", typeof(object), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); } I took a svg file, opened it in inkscape and saved it as xaml file. I opened Themes.xaml and added the created xaml image as a ControlTemplate And the button style is: Style TargetType="{x:Type local:MainButton}" <StackPanel Canvas.Top="12" Canvas.Left="0" Canvas.ZIndex="2" Width="80"> <ContentControl x:Name="Img" Template="{StaticResource Home}" /> </StackPanel> <StackPanel x:Name="spText" Canvas.Top="45" Canvas.Left="1" Canvas.ZIndex="1" Width="80"> <TextBlock x:Name="Txt" Text="{Binding Path=(local:MainButton.Text), RelativeSource ={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType ={x:Type Button}}}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Foreground="White" FontSize="14"/> </StackPanel> ... As you can see I have hardcoded the StaticResource name I want to be able to have a binding with property Image on this Template, something like So that I can set the Image property of the button with the name of the StaticResource I want. For example, having beside "Home" image, another one "Back" I would have two buttons in MainWindow declared like this: Any advice is kindly taken. Thank you for your time.

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  • XSLT: replace an integer by a string

    - by binogure
    I have a little problem. A node in my XML may contains and integer, and i have to replace this integer by a string. Each number match with a string. For example i have: Integer - String 1 - TODO 2 - IN PROGRESS 3 - DONE 4 - ERROR 5 - ABORTED Original XML: <root> <status>1</status> </root> Converted XML: <root> <status>TODO</status> </root> So i want replace 1 by "TODO", 2 by "IN PROGRESS" ... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="/root/status"> <root> <status> <xsl:variable name="text" select="." /> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="contains($text, '1')"> <xsl:value-of select="'TODO'"/> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:value-of select="$text"/> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </status></root> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I'am asking if there is another way to do that.

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  • Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

    - by webtoad
    Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

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  • INSERT data from Textbox to Postgres SQL

    - by user1479013
    I just learn how to connect C# and PostgresSQL. I want to INSERT data from tb1(Textbox) and tb2 to database. But I don't know how to code My previous code is SELECT from database. this is my code private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { bool blnfound = false; NpgsqlConnection conn = new NpgsqlConnection("Server=127.0.0.1;Port=5432;User Id=postgres;Password=admin123;Database=Login"); conn.Open(); NpgsqlCommand cmd = new NpgsqlCommand("SELECT * FROM login WHERE name='" + tb1.Text + "' and password = '" + tb2.Text + "'",conn); NpgsqlDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (dr.Read()) { blnfound = true; Form2 f5 = new Form2(); f5.Show(); this.Hide(); } if (blnfound == false) { MessageBox.Show("Name or password is incorrect", "Message Box", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Exclamation, MessageBoxDefaultButton.Button1); dr.Close(); conn.Close(); } } So please help me the code.

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  • Difference in behaviour (GCC and Visual C++)

    - by Prasoon Saurav
    Consider the following code. #include <stdio.h> #include <vector> #include <iostream> struct XYZ { int X,Y,Z; }; std::vector<XYZ> A; int rec(int idx) { int i = A.size(); A.push_back(XYZ()); if (idx >= 5) return i; A[i].X = rec(idx+1); return i; } int main(){ A.clear(); rec(0); puts("FINISH!"); } I couldn't figure out the reason why the code gives a segmentation fault on Linux (IDE used: Code::Blocks) whereas on Windows (IDE used: Visual C++) it doesn't. When I used Valgrind just to check what actually the problem was, I got this output. I got Invalid write of size 4 at four different places. Then why didn't the code crash when I used Visual C++? Am I missing something?

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  • jQuery autocomplete on multiple fields

    - by Onigoetz
    Hi all, Surprisingly, I didn't find any answers to my question. I want to make a form on jQuery with two fields. City Code. City Name. and when I enter a city code and go out of the field. I want an autocomplete on the city name. I Installed the jQuery Autocomplete plugin. and I have the following code : $(document).ready(function() { $("#field_localite").autocomplete('admin/ajax/npa', { extraParams: { npa: function() { return $("#field_npa").val(); } } }); $("#field_npa").blur(function() { $("#field_localite").search(); }); }); The problem is that the .search() method. doesnt launch the autocomplete. I'm looking for a method to trigger this autocomplete search on the field. do you know a way or a plugin able to do this search ? thanks in advance BTW : the PHP code behin is totally tested and works, it returns the data when doing the call.

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  • Determining if an unordered vector<T> has all unique elements

    - by Hooked
    Profiling my cpu-bound code has suggested I that spend a long time checking to see if a container contains completely unique elements. Assuming that I have some large container of unsorted elements (with < and = defined), I have two ideas on how this might be done: The first using a set: template <class T> bool is_unique(vector<T> X) { set<T> Y(X.begin(), X.end()); return X.size() == Y.size(); } The second looping over the elements: template <class T> bool is_unique2(vector<T> X) { typename vector<T>::iterator i,j; for(i=X.begin();i!=X.end();++i) { for(j=i+1;j!=X.end();++j) { if(*i == *j) return 0; } } return 1; } I've tested them the best I can, and from what I can gather from reading the documentation about STL, the answer is (as usual), it depends. I think that in the first case, if all the elements are unique it is very quick, but if there is a large degeneracy the operation seems to take O(N^2) time. For the nested iterator approach the opposite seems to be true, it is lighting fast if X[0]==X[1] but takes (understandably) O(N^2) time if all the elements are unique. Is there a better way to do this, perhaps a STL algorithm built for this very purpose? If not, are there any suggestions eek out a bit more efficiency?

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  • Resources and techniques/methods for SCJP preparation ?

    - by BenoitParis
    I am passing the SCJP 6 exam in a month. I have the "SCJP Sun Certified Programmer for Java 6 Exam 310-065" book. It seems great for the exam. But I want your advice on this. Getting the closest possible to 100% would be great. I have found a site that answered some of the questions you ask yourself when you go trough the book. Here is it : http://www.janeg.ca/java2.html As you can see it was written for Java 2 :/ I have written another specific question here on StackOverflow about the usefulness of JVM specification and Java compiler code for the SCJP. Will Update the results here. Here it is. Please share the resources you used in preparing the exam. Please also specify any resources that you think might help. Any type of resource is welcome: books, code, specs, sites, wikies, papers, online tests, grandmas... Please also share on any method/technique that helped you prepare the exam. Please also comment on the return you got from the resource and the method (for the learning process and for points in the exam) I'll begin: Book : "SCJP Sun Certified Programmer for Java 6 Exam 310-065". Seems like the official book for the preparation. Technique : Writing code in a text editor and compiling it with javac to test a question. NO IDEs! It helps you get a a straight answer to a question you have. It helps you pay attention to every word in the code (and this is very important in the SCJP) EDIT: Added dimension: Are there good, up-to-date online tests?

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  • Tomcat does not pick up the class file - the JSP file is not displayed

    - by blueSky
    I have a Java code which is a controller for a jsp page, called: HomeController.java. Code is as follows: @Controller public class HomeController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/mypage") public String home() { System.out.println("HomeController: Passing through..."); return "home"; } } There is nothing especial in the jsp page: home.jsp. If I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/mypage I can view mypage and everything works fine. Also in the tomcat Dos page I can see the comment: HomeController: Passing through... As expected. Now under the same directory that I have HomeController.java, I've created another file called: LoginController.java. Following is the code: @Controller public class LoginController { protected final transient Log log = LogFactory.getLog(getClass()); @RequestMapping(value = "/loginpage") public String login() { System.out.println("LoginController: Passing through..."); return "login"; } } And under the same place which I have home.jsp, I've created login.jsp. Also under tomcat folders, LoginController.class exists under the same folder that HomeController.class exists and login.jsp exists under the same folder which home.jsp exists. But when I go to this url: http://localhost:8080/adcopyqueue/loginpage Nothing is displayed! I think tomcat does not pick up LoginController.class b/c on the tomcat Dos window, I do NOT see this comment: LoginController: Passing through... Instead I see following which I do not know what do they mean? [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:34) got manifest [ INFO] [http-8080-1 01:43:45] (AppInfo.java:populateAppInfo:36) manifest entrie s 8 The structure and the code for HomeController.java and LoginController.java plus the jsp files match. I have no idea why tomcat sees one of the files and not the other? Clean build did not help. Does anybody have any idea? Any help is greatly appraciated.

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  • Snow Leopard mounted directory changes permissions sporadically

    - by Galen
    I have a smb mounted directory: /Volumes/myshare This was mounted via Finder "Connect to Server..." with smb://myservername/myshare Everything good so far. However, when I try to access the directory via PHP (running under Apache), it fails with permission denied about 10% of the time. By this I mean that repeated accesses to my page sometimes result in a failure. My PHP page looks like: <?php $cmd = "ls -la /Volumes/ 2>&1"; exec($cmd, $execOut, $exitCode); echo "<PRE>EXIT CODE = $exitCode<BR/>"; foreach($execOut as $line) { echo "$line <BR/>"; } echo "</PRE>"; ?> When it succeeds it looks like: EXIT CODE = 0 total 40 drwxrwxrwt@ 4 root admin 136 Jun 14 12:34 . drwxrwxr-t 30 root admin 1088 Jun 4 13:09 .. drwx------ 1 galen staff 16384 Jun 14 09:28 myshare lrwxr-xr-x 1 root admin 1 Jun 11 16:05 galenhd - / When it fails it looks like: EXIT CODE = 1 ls: myshare: Permission denied total 8 drwxrwxrwt@ 4 root admin 136 Jun 14 12:34 . drwxrwxr-t 30 root admin 1088 Jun 4 13:09 .. lrwxr-xr-x 1 root admin 1 Jun 11 16:05 galenhd - / OTHER INFO: I'm working with the PHP (5.3.1), and Apache server that comes out of the box with Snow Leopard. Also, if I write a PHP script that loops and retries the "ls -la.." from the command-line, it doesn't seem to fail. Nothing is changing about the code and/or filesystem between succeeds and fails, so this appears to be a truly intermittent failure. This is driving me crazy. Anyone have any idea what might be going on? Thanks, Galen

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  • Semi-generic function

    - by Fredrik Ullner
    I have a bunch of overloaded functions that operate on certain data types such as int, double and strings. Most of these functions perform the same action, where only a specific set of data types are allowed. That means I cannot create a simple generic template function as I lose type safety (and potentially incurring a run-time problem for validation within the function). Is it possible to create a "semi-generic compile time type safe function"? If so, how? If not, is this something that will come up in C++0x? An (non-valid) idea; template <typename T, restrict: int, std::string > void foo(T bar); ... foo((int)0); // OK foo((std::string)"foobar"); // OK foo((double)0.0); // Compile Error Note: I realize I could create a class that has overloaded constructors and assignment operators and pass a variable of that class instead to the function.

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  • Regarding the ViewModel

    - by mizipzor
    Im struggling to understand the ViewModel part of the MVVM pattern. My current approach is to have a class, with no logic whatsoever (important), except that it implements INotifyPropertyChanged. The class is just a collection of properties, a struct if you like, describing an as small part of the data as possible. I consider this my Model. Most of the WPF code I write are settings dialogs that configure said Model. The code-behind of the dialog exposes a property which returns an instance of the Model. In the XAML code I bind to subproperties of that property, thereby binding directly to the Model's properties. Which works quite well since it implements the INotifyPropertyChanged. I consider this settings dialog the View. However, I havent really been able to figure out what in all this is the ViewModel. The articles Ive read suggests that the ViewModel should tie the View and the Model together, providing the logic the Model lacks but is still to complex to go directly into the View. Is this correct? Would, in my example, the code-behind of the settings dialog be considered the ViewModel? I just feel a bit lost and would like my peers to debunk some of my assumptions. Am I completely off track here?

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  • How to use the FindControl function to find a dynamically generated control?

    - by Abe Miessler
    I have a PlaceHolder control inside of a ListView that I am using to render controls from my code behind. The code below adds the controls: TextBox tb = new TextBox(); tb.Text = quest.Value; tb.ID = quest.ShortName.Replace(" ", ""); ((PlaceHolder)e.Item.FindControl("ph_QuestionInput")).Controls.Add(tb); I am using the following code to retrieve the values that have been entered into the TextBox: foreach (ListViewDataItem di in lv_Questions.Items) { int QuestionId = Convert.ToInt32(((HiddenField)di.FindControl("hf_QuestionId")).Value); Question quest = dc.Questions.Single(q => q.QuestionId == QuestionId); TextBox tb = ((TextBox)di.FindControl(quest.ShortName.Replace(" ",""))); //tb is always null! } But it never finds the control. I've looked at the source code for the page and the control i want has the id: ctl00_cphContentMiddle_lv_Questions_ctrl0_Numberofacres For some reason when I look at the controls in the ListViewDataItem it has the ClientID: ctl00_cphContentMiddle_lv_Questions_ctrl0_ctl00 Why would it be changing Numberofacres to ctl00? Is there any way to work around this? UPDATE: Just to clarify, I am databinding my ListView in the Page_Init event. I then create the controls in the ItemBound event for my ListView. But based on what @Womp and MSDN are saying the controls won't actually be created until after the Load event (which is after the Page_Init event) and therefore are not in ViewState? Does this sound correct? If so am I just SOL when it comes to retrieving the values in my dynamic controls from my OnClick event?

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  • Is this the intention behavior in JComboBox? How I can avoid this behavior?

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    I realize that if you are having a same selection in JComboBox, using up/down arrow key, will not help you to navigate the selection around. How I can avoid this behavior? See the below screen shoot /* * To change this template, choose Tools | Templates * and open the template in the editor. */ /* * NewJFrame.java * * Created on May 8, 2010, 7:46:28 PM */ package javaapplication26; /** * * @author yccheok */ public class NewJFrame extends javax.swing.JFrame { /** Creates new form NewJFrame */ public NewJFrame() { initComponents(); /* If you are having 3 same strings here. Using, up/down arrow key, * will not move the selection around. */ this.jComboBox1.addItem("Intel"); this.jComboBox1.addItem("Intel"); this.jComboBox1.addItem("Intel"); } /** This method is called from within the constructor to * initialize the form. * WARNING: Do NOT modify this code. The content of this method is * always regenerated by the Form Editor. */ @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") // <editor-fold defaultstate="collapsed" desc="Generated Code"> private void initComponents() { jComboBox1 = new javax.swing.JComboBox(); setDefaultCloseOperation(javax.swing.WindowConstants.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); jComboBox1.setEditable(true); javax.swing.GroupLayout layout = new javax.swing.GroupLayout(getContentPane()); getContentPane().setLayout(layout); layout.setHorizontalGroup( layout.createParallelGroup(javax.swing.GroupLayout.Alignment.LEADING) .addGroup(layout.createSequentialGroup() .addGap(105, 105, 105) .addComponent(jComboBox1, javax.swing.GroupLayout.PREFERRED_SIZE, 158, javax.swing.GroupLayout.PREFERRED_SIZE) .addContainerGap(137, Short.MAX_VALUE)) ); layout.setVerticalGroup( layout.createParallelGroup(javax.swing.GroupLayout.Alignment.LEADING) .addGroup(layout.createSequentialGroup() .addGap(63, 63, 63) .addComponent(jComboBox1, javax.swing.GroupLayout.PREFERRED_SIZE, javax.swing.GroupLayout.DEFAULT_SIZE, javax.swing.GroupLayout.PREFERRED_SIZE) .addContainerGap(217, Short.MAX_VALUE)) ); pack(); }// </editor-fold> /** * @param args the command line arguments */ public static void main(String args[]) { java.awt.EventQueue.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { new NewJFrame().setVisible(true); } }); } // Variables declaration - do not modify private javax.swing.JComboBox jComboBox1; // End of variables declaration }

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  • Question about the benefit of using an ORM

    - by johnny
    I want to use an ORM for learning purposes and am try nhibernate. I am using the tutorial and then I have a real project. I can go the "old way" or use an ORM. I'm not sure I totally understand the benefit. On the one hand I can create my abstractions in code such that I can change my databases and be database independent. On the other it seems that if I actually change the database columns I have to change all my code. Why wouldn't I have my application without the ORM, change my database and change my code, instead of changing my database, orm, and code? Is it that they database structure doesn't change that much? I believe there are real benefits because ORMs are used by so many. I'm just not sure I get it yet. Thank you. EDIT: In the tutorial they have many files that are used to make the ORM work http://www.hibernate.org/362.html In the event of an application change, it seems like a lot of extra work just to say that I have "proper" abstraction layers. Because I'm new at it it doesn't look that easy to maintain and again seems like extra work, not less.

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  • What is the rationale to not allow overloading of C++ conversions operator with non-member function

    - by Vicente Botet Escriba
    C++0x has added explicit conversion operators, but they must always be defined as members of the Source class. The same applies to the assignment operator, it must be defined on the Target class. When the Source and Target classes of the needed conversion are independent of each other, neither the Source can define a conversion operator, neither the Target can define a constructor from a Source. Usually we get it by defining a specific function such as Target ConvertToTarget(Source& v); If C++0x allowed to overload conversion operator by non member functions we could for example define the conversion implicitly or explicitly between unrelated types. template < typename To, typename From > operator To(const From& val); For example we could specialize the conversion from chrono::time_point to posix_time::ptime as follows template < class Clock, class Duration> operator boost::posix_time::ptime( const boost::chrono::time_point<Clock, Duration>& from) { using namespace boost; typedef chrono::time_point<Clock, Duration> time_point_t; typedef chrono::nanoseconds duration_t; typedef duration_t::rep rep_t; rep_t d = chrono::duration_cast<duration_t>( from.time_since_epoch()).count(); rep_t sec = d/1000000000; rep_t nsec = d%1000000000; return posix_time::from_time_t(0)+ posix_time::seconds(static_cast<long>(sec))+ posix_time::nanoseconds(nsec); } And use the conversion as any other conversion. For a more complete description of the problem, see here or on my Boost.Conversion library.. So the question is: What is the rationale to non allow overloading of C++ conversions operator with non-member functions?

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  • Why is this Javascript that writes out a Google Ad not displaying properly on the iPhone?

    - by Dave M G
    I have this Javacsript code that checks to see if there is a DIV named "google-ad", and if there is, it writes in a the necessary code to display the Google Ad. This works great in browsers like Firefox, Chrome, Safari on Mac, and Android. However, when I bundle this code with Adobe's Phonegap Build, and deploy it to iPhones, it behaves strangely. It launches a browser window displaying just the Google Ad alone. In order to keep using my app, every time I change a page and a new Google Ad is loaded, I have to close the browser window to get back to the app. Why is this code launching browser windows outside of my Phonegap app on iPhone? if(document.getElementById("google-ad") && document.getElementById("google-ad") !== null && document.getElementById("google-ad") !== "undefined") { if(userStatus.status == 0) { document.getElementById("centre").style.padding = "137px 0 12px 0"; document.getElementById("header-container").style.margin = "-138px 0 0 0"; document.getElementById("header-container").style.height = "132px"; document.getElementById("header-username").style.top = "52px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.height = "50px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.width = "320px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.backgroundColor = "#f0ebff"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.display = "block"; window["google_ad_client"] = 'ca-pub-0000000000000000'; window["google_ad_slot"] = "00000000"; window["google_ad_width"] = 320; window["google_ad_height"] = 50; window.adcontainer = document.getElementById('google-ad'); window.adhtml = ''; function mywrite(html) { adhtml += html; adcontainer.innerHTML = adhtml; }; document.write_ = document.write; document.write = mywrite; script = document.createElement('script'); script.src='http://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/show_ads.js'; script.type='text/javascript'; document.body.appendChild(script); }

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  • Can I get the IE debugger to break into long-running javascript

    - by Brian Deacon
    I have a page that has a byzantine amount of javascript running. In IE only, and only version 8, I get a long-script warning that I can reliably reproduce. I suspect it is event handlers triggering themselves in an infinite loop. The Developer Tools are limping horribly under the weight of the script running, but I do seem to be able to get the log to tell me what line of script it was executing when I aborted, but it is inevitably some of the deep plumbing of the ExtJS code we use, and I can't tell where it is in my stack of code. A way of seeing the call stack would work, but preferably I'd like to be able to just break into the debugger when I get the long script warning so I can just step through the stack. There is a similar question posted, but the answers given were for a not-the-right-tool, or the not terribly helpful advice to eliminate half my code at a time on a binary hunt for the infinite loop. If my code were simple enough that I could do that, it probably wouldn't have gotten the infinite loop in the first place. If I could reproduce the problem in firebug, I'd probably be a lot happier too.

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  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

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  • What corresponds to the Unity 'registration name' in the unity configuration section?

    - by unanswered
    When registering and resolving types in a Unity Container using code you can use 'Registration Names' to disambiguate your references that derive from an interface or base class hierarchy. The 'registration name' text would be provided as a parameter to the register and resolve methods: myContainer.RegisterType<IMyService, CustomerService>("Customers"); and MyServiceBase result = myContainer.Resolve<MyServiceBase>("Customers"); However when I register types in the configuration files I do not see where the 'registration name' can be assigned I register an Interface: <typeAlias alias="IEnlistmentNotification" type="System.Transactions.IEnlistmentNotification, System.Transactions, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" /> Then two types that I happen to know implement that interface: <typeAlias alias="PlaylistManager" type="Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers.PlaylistManager, Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> <typeAlias alias="FlexAleManager" type="Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers.FlexAleManager, Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> Then I provide mappings between the interface and the two types: <type type="IEnlistmentNotification" mapTo="FlexAleManager"><lifetime type="singleton"/></type> <type type="IEnlistmentNotification" mapTo="PlaylistManager"><lifetime type="singleton"/></type> That seems to correspond to this code: myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, FlexAleManager>(); myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, PlaylistManager>(); but clearly what I need is a disambiguating config entry that corresponds to this code: myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, FlexAleManager>("Flex"); myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, PlaylistManager>("Play"); Then when I get into my code I could do this: IEnlistmentNotification flex = myContainer.Resolve<IEnlistmentNotification>("Flex"); IEnlistmentNotification play = myContainer.Resolve<IEnlistmentNotification>("Play"); See what I mean? Thanks, Kimball

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  • How can I send GET data to multiple URLs at the same time using cURL?

    - by Rob
    My apologies, I've actually asked this question multiple times, but never quite understood the answers. Here is my current code: while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //load the urls and send GET data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 2); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_exec($ch); //Execute the cURL curl_close($ch); //Close it off } //end while loop What I'm doing here, is taking URLs from a MySQL Database ($resultSet['url']), appending some extra variables to it, just some GET data ($fullcurl), and simply requesting the pages. This starts the script running on those pages, and that's all that this script needs to do, is start those scripts. It doesn't need to return any output. Just the load the page long enough for the script to start. However, currently it's loading each URL (currently 11) one at a time. I need to load all of them simultaneously. I understand I need to use curl_multi_*, but I haven't the slightest idea on how cURL functions work, so I don't know how to change my code to use curl_multi_* in a while loop. So my questions are: How can I change this code to load all of the URLs simultaneously? Please explain it and not just give me code. I want to know what each individual function does exactly. Will curl_multi_exec even work in a while loop, since the while loop is just sending each row one at a time? And of course, any references, guides, tutorials about cURL functions would be nice, as well. Preferably not so much from php.net, as while it does a good job of giving me the syntax, its just a little dry and not so good with the explanations.

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  • Omit return type in C++0x

    - by Clinton
    I've recently found myself using the following macro with gcc 4.5 in C++0x mode: #define RETURN(x) -> decltype(x) { return x; } And writing functions like this: template <class T> auto f(T&& x) RETURN (( g(h(std::forward<T>(x))) )) I've been doing this to avoid the inconvenience having to effectively write the function body twice, and having keep changes in the body and the return type in sync (which in my opinion is a disaster waiting to happen). The problem is that this technique only works on one line functions. So when I have something like this (convoluted example): template <class T> auto f(T&& x) -> ... { auto y1 = f(x); auto y2 = h(y1, g1(x)); auto y3 = h(y1, g2(x)); if (y1) { ++y3; } return h2(y2, y3); } Then I have to put something horrible in the return type. Furthermore, whenever I update the function, I'll need to change the return type, and if I don't change it correctly, I'll get a compile error if I'm lucky, or a runtime bug in the worse case. Having to copy and paste changes to two locations and keep them in sync I feel is not good practice. And I can't think of a situation where I'd want an implicit cast on return instead of an explicit cast. Surely there is a way to ask the compiler to deduce this information. What is the point of the compiler keeping it a secret? I thought C++0x was designed so such duplication would not be required.

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  • Problem with circular definition in Scheme

    - by user8472
    I am currently working through SICP using Guile as my primary language for the exercises. I have found a strange behavior while implementing the exercises in chapter 3.5. I have reproduced this behavior using Guile 1.4, Guile 1.8.6 and Guile 1.8.7 on a variety of platforms and am certain it is not specific to my setup. This code works fine (and computes e): (define y (integral (delay dy) 1 0.001)) (define dy (stream-map (lambda (x) x) y)) (stream-ref y 1000) The following code should give an identical result: (define (solve f y0 dt) (define y (integral (delay dy) y0 dt)) (define dy (stream-map f y)) y) (solve (lambda (x) x) 1 0.001) But it yields the error message: standard input:7:14: While evaluating arguments to stream-map in expression (stream-map f y): standard input:7:14: Unbound variable: y ABORT: (unbound-variable) So when embedded in a procedure definition, the (define y ...) does not work, whereas outside the procedure in the global environment at the REPL it works fine. What am I doing wrong here? I can post the auxiliary code (i.e., the definitions of integral, stream-map etc.) if necessary, too. With the exception of the system-dependent code for cons-stream, they are all in the book. My own implementation of cons-stream for Guile is as follows: (define-macro (cons-stream a b) `(cons ,a (delay ,b)))

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  • error while updating a database in ASP.NET

    - by Viredae
    I am having trouble updating an SQL database, the problem is not that it doesn't update at all, but that particular parameters are being updated while the others are not. here is the code for updating the parameters: string EditRequest = "UPDATE Requests SET Description = @Desc, BJustif = @Justif, Priority = @Priority, Requested_System = @Requested, Request_Status = @Stat WHERE"; EditRequest += " Req_ID=@ID"; SqlConnection Submit_conn = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DBConn"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand Submit_comm = new SqlCommand(EditRequest, Submit_conn); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", Request.QueryString["reqid"]); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Desc", DescBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Justif", JustifBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Priority", PriorityList.SelectedValue); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Requested", RelatedBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Stat", 1); Submit_conn.Open(); Submit_comm.ExecuteNonQuery(); Submit_comm.Dispose(); Submit_comm = null; Submit_conn.Close(); get_Description(); Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "Refresh", "ReloadPage();", true); this function is called by a button on a pop-up form which shows the parameters content that is being changed in a text box which is also used to submit the changes back to the database, but when I press submit, the parameters which are displayed on the form don't change, I can't find any problem wit the code, even though I've compared it to similar code which is working fine. In case you need to, here is one of the text boxes I'm using to display and edit the content: <asp:TextBox ID="JustifBox" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" Width="250" Height="50"></asp:TextBox> What exactly is wrong with the code?

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