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• Can TFS workspaces be used without being tied to a specific machine?

  - by GWLlosa

  So I've got a situation where we have a project with 10 developers. Each developer, when they come in for the day, is randomly issued a machine to use for development that day. The machine names are different, say DEV01 - DEV10. At the time that they are issued to the developers, the machines are identical, and no changes the developers make during the day are persisted on the machines (source code changes are stored in TFS, not locally). These are of course actually virtual machines, but that's not really relevant to the point at hand. The problem is that each morning, the developers run into 3 issues: 1) The machine that they are assigned may not be the same machine they were last assigned to. For example, DevMan A might have used DEV04 yesterday, and received DEV06 today. His workspace definitions are now tied to DEV06; he must create a new workspace, or migrate the old workspace to DEV04. 2) The machine that they are assigned may have been in use yesterday, and some of the mappings may conflict. For example, DevMan A might have DEV04 today, and wish to create a workspace mapping the project folder to "C:\MyProj\Solution". However, DevMan B had DEV04 yesterday, and he used the same project folder. TFS now complains. 3) This may be the first time they are on a given machine. They now need to recreate for this machine all of their source-control mappings for the new machine. All of these issues can be resolved in a straightforward fashion on a case-by-case basis, but it does sap some productivity from the morning. We'd much prefer if the TFS workspace definitions could be 'relaxed', such that they did not include the machine name in the definition somehow. Barring that, if anyone is aware of a solution to the above problems that can run automatically, or with limited user intervention, that would also be ideal.

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• Suffix if statement

  - by Aardschok

  I was looking for a way to add a suffix to jointchain in Maya. The jointchain has specific naming so I create a list with the names they need to be. The first chain has "_1" as suffix, result: R_Clavicle_1|R_UpperArm_1|R_UnderArm_1|R_Wrist_1 When I create the second this is the result: R_Clavicle_2|R_UpperArm_1|R_UnderArm_1|R_Wrist_1 The code: DRClavPos = cmds.xform ('DRClavicle', q=True, ws=True, t=True) DRUpArmPos = cmds.xform ('DRUpperArm', q=True, ws=True, t=True) DRUnArmPos = cmds.xform ('DRUnderArm', q=True, ws=True, t=True) DRWristPos = cmds.xform ('DRWrist', q=True, ws=True, t=True), cmds.xform('DRWrist', q=True, os=True, ro=True) suffix = 1 jntsA = cmds.ls(type="joint", long=True) while True: jntname = ["R_Clavicle_"+str(suffix),"R_UpperArm_"+str(suffix),"R_UnderArm_"+str(suffix),"R_Wrist_"+str(suffix)] if jntname not in jntsA: cmds.select (d=True) cmds.joint ( p=(DRClavPos)) cmds.joint ( p=(DRUpArmPos)) cmds.joint ( 'joint1', e=True, zso=True, oj='xyz', radius=0.5, n=jntname[0]) cmds.joint ( p=(DRUnArmPos)) cmds.joint ( 'joint2', e=True, zso=True, oj='xyz', radius=0.5, n=jntname[1]) cmds.joint ( p=(DRWristPos[0])) cmds.joint ( 'joint3', e=True, zso=True, oj='xyz', radius=0.5, n=jntname[2]) cmds.rename ('joint4', jntname[3]) cmds.select ( cl=True) break else: suffix + 1 I tried adding +1 in jntname which resulted in a good second chain but the third chain had "_2" after R_Clavicle_3 The code, in my eyes should work. Can anybody point me in the correct direction :)

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• Matlab GUI: How to Save the Results of Functions (states of application)

  - by niko

  Hi, I would like to create an animation which enables the user to go backward and forward through the steps of simulation. An animation has to simulate the iterative process of channel decoding (a receiver receives a block of bits, performs an operation and then checks if the block corresponds to parity rules. If the block doesn't correspond the operation is performed again and the process finally ends when the code corresponds to a given rules). I have written the functions which perform the decoding process and return a m x n x i matrix where m x n is the block of data and i is the iteration index. So if it takes 3 iterations to decode the data the function returns a m x n x 3 matrix with each step is stired. In the GUI (.fig file) I put a "decode" button which runs the method for decoding and there are buttons "back" and "forward" which have to enable the user to switch between the data of recorded steps. I have stored the "decodedData" matrix and currentStep value as a global variable so by clicking "forward" and "next" buttons the indices have to change and point to appropriate step states. When I tried to debug the application the method returned the decoded data but when I tried to click "back" and "next" the decoded data appeared not to be declared. Does anyone know how is it possible to access (or store) the results of the functions in order to enable the described logic which I want to implement in Matlab GUI?

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• iOS 7: Best way to implement an textview that presents previous input but is easy to clear

  - by Frank R.

  I'm porting a Mac app to the iPhone and I've run into an unexpected problem. On the Mac there's a text field that is automatically pre-selected (= first responder) when a dialog shows up. The text field shows the text you entered in the field the last time and the text is pre-selected so that if you just start typing it gets cleared away. If you want to edit the existing text instead you just hit the forwards or backwards arrow. On the iPhone this behavior seems very hard to implement. The text view shows up with the old text and I can even get it to pre-select but whatever I do the result is not quite right. When I use [aTextView setMarkedText: myText selectedRange: newRange]; the text does show up as marked and if I just start typing the old text goes away. However there's no equivalent to the cursor keys on iOS, so I cannot NOT erase the text.. which is hardly the point. What kind of iOS idiom would be appropriate for giving the option to either edit or overwrite existing text? Best regards, Frank

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• std::vector elements initializing

  - by Chameleon

  std::vector<int> v1(1000); std::vector<std::vector<int>> v2(1000); std::vector<std::vector<int>::const_iterator> v3(1000); How elements of these 3 vectors initialized? About int, I test it and I saw that all elements become 0. Is this standard? I believed that primitives remain undefined. I create a vector with 300000000 elements, give non-zero values, delete it and recreate it, to avoid OS memory clear for data safety. Elements of recreated vector were 0 too. What about iterator? Is there a initial value (0) for default constructor or initial value remains undefined? When I check this, iterators point to 0, but this can be OS When I create a special object to track constructors, I saw that for first object, vector run the default constructor and for all others it run the copy constructor. Is this standard? Is there a way to completely avoid initialization of elements? Or I must create my own vector? (Oh my God, I always say NOT ANOTHER VECTOR IMPLEMENTATION) I ask because I use ultra huge sparse matrices with parallel processing, so I cannot use push_back() and of course I don't want useless initialization, when later I will change the value.

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• The way cores, processes, and threads work exactly?

  - by unknownthreat

  I need a bit of an advice for understanding how this whole procedure work exactly. If I am incorrect in any part described below, please correct me. In a single core CPU, it runs each process in the OS, jumping around from one process to another to utilize the best of itself. A process can also have many threads, in which the CPU core runs through these threads when it is running on the respective process. Now, on a multiple core CPU, Do the cores run in every process together, or can the cores run separately in different processes at one particular point of time? For instance, you have program A running two threads, can a duo core CPU run both threads of this program? I think the answer should be yes if we are using something like OpenMP. But while the cores are running in this OpenMP-embedded process, can one of the core simply switch to other process? For programs that are created for single core, when running at 100%, why the CPU utilization of each core are distributed? (ex. A duo core CPU of 80% and 20%. The utilization percentage of all cores always add up to 100% for this case.) Do the cores try help each other run each thread of each process in some ways? Frankly, I'm not sure how this works exactly. Any advice is appreciated.

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• Intercepting mouse events using a global hook. Stop an action from happening.

  - by fMinkel

  I'm attempting to intercept and interrupt mouse events. Lets say I wanted to disable the right mouse button down event, or even the mouse move event. I haven't been able to figure out the interrupting part. I am using the (I assume pretty widely used) following code for Global Hooking of the mouse. Private Structure MSLLHOOKSTRUCT Public pt As Point Public mouseData As Int32 Public flags As Int32 Public time As Int32 Public extra As IntPtr End Structure Private _mouseHook As IntPtr Private Const WH_MOUSE_LL As Int32 = 14 Private Delegate Function MouseHookDelegate(ByVal nCode As Int32, ByVal wParam As IntPtr, ByRef lParam As MSLLHOOKSTRUCT) As Int32 <MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.FunctionPtr)> Private _mouseProc As MouseHookDelegate Private Declare Function SetWindowsHookExW Lib "user32.dll" (ByVal idHook As Int32, ByVal HookProc As MouseHookDelegate, ByVal hInstance As IntPtr, ByVal wParam As Int32) As IntPtr Private Declare Function UnhookWindowsHookEx Lib "user32.dll" (ByVal hook As IntPtr) As Boolean Private Declare Function CallNextHookEx Lib "user32.dll" (ByVal idHook As Int32, ByVal nCode As Int32, ByVal wParam As IntPtr, ByRef lParam As MSLLHOOKSTRUCT) As Int32 Private Declare Function GetCurrentThreadId Lib "kernel32.dll" () As Integer Private Declare Function GetModuleHandleW Lib "kernel32.dll" (ByVal fakezero As IntPtr) As IntPtr Public Function HookMouse() As Boolean Debug.Print("Mouse Hooked") If _mouseHook = IntPtr.Zero Then _mouseProc = New MouseHookDelegate(AddressOf MouseHookProc) _mouseHook = SetWindowsHookExW(WH_MOUSE_LL, _mouseProc, GetModuleHandleW(IntPtr.Zero), 0) End If Return _mouseHook <> IntPtr.Zero End Function Public Sub UnHookMouse() Debug.Print("Mouse UnHooked") If _mouseHook = IntPtr.Zero Then Return UnhookWindowsHookEx(_mouseHook) _mouseHook = IntPtr.Zero End Sub Private Function MouseHookProc(ByVal nCode As Int32, ByVal wParam As IntPtr, ByRef lParam As MSLLHOOKSTRUCT) As Int32 'Debug.Print("Message = {0}, x={1}, y={2}", wParam.ToInt32, lParam.pt.X, lParam.pt.Y) If wParam.ToInt32 = 513 Then '''interrupt the left mouse button event here, but don't know what to return to do so. End If Return CallNextHookEx(WH_MOUSE_LL, nCode, wParam, lParam) End Function

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• Basic SWIG C++ use for Java

  - by duckworthd

  I've programmed a couple years in both C++ and Java, but I've finally come to a point where I need to bring a little unification between the two -- ideally, using SWIG. I've written a tiny and fairly pointless little class called Example: #include <stdio.h> class Example { public: Example(); ~Example(); int test(); }; #include "example.h" Example::Example() { printf("Example constructor called\n"); } Example::~Example() { printf("Example destructor called\n"); } int Example::test() { printf("Holy sh*t, I work!\n"); return 42; } And a corresponding interface file: /* File: example.i */ %module test %{ #include "example.h" %} %include "example.h" Now I have questions. Firstly, when I want to actually run SWIG initially, am I supposed to use the example_wrap.c (from swig -java example.i) or example_wrap.cxx (from swig -c++ example.i) file when recompiling with my original example.cpp? Or perhaps both? I tried both and the latter seemed most likely, but when I recompile as so: g++ example.cpp example_wrap.cxx -I/usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun-.../include/ I get a host of errors regarding TcL of all things, asking me for the tcl.h header. I can't even wrap my mind around why it wants that much less needs it, and as such have found myself where I don't even know how to begin using SWIG.

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• RadioButtonGroup with each RadioButton added in components?

  - by futureal

  Hi, Working in Flex 3, I have a series of components being rendered on a canvas, each of which should represent a single potential selection, ideally in a RadioButtonGroup. So in my parent canvas I am defining the RadioButtonGroup, and each component provides a single RadioButton. However, this doesn't seem to work. Suppose there is a component called aComponent defined as such: <mx:Canvas ...> ... <mx:RadioButton id="someButton" groupName="myRadioButtonGroup" ... /> </mx:Canvas> The outer canvas: <mx:Canvas ...> ... <mx:Script> public function doesSomething():void { var myComponent:aComponent = new aComponent(); outerCanvas.addChild(myComponent); } </mx:Script> ... <mx:RadioButtonGroup id="myRadioButtonGroup" /> </mx:Canvas> So my guess was that at this point if, say, four of these components were added, the radio buttons would behave in mutually exclusive fashion and I'd be able to access myRadioButtonGroup.selectedValue to get the current selection. However, it doesn't seem to work that way. Is what I'm trying to do even possible, or have I maybe just missed something? Thanks!

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• Application Code Redesign to reduce no. of Database Hits from Performance Perspective

  - by Rachel

  Scenario I want to parse a large CSV file and inserts data into the database, csv file has approximately 100K rows of data. Currently I am using fgetcsv to parse through the file row by row and insert data into Database and so right now I am hitting database for each line of data present in csv file so currently database hit count is 100K which is not good from performance point of view. Current Code: public function initiateInserts() { //Open Large CSV File(min 100K rows) for parsing. $this->fin = fopen($file,'r') or die('Cannot open file'); //Parsing Large CSV file to get data and initiate insertion into schema. while (($data=fgetcsv($this->fin,5000,";"))!==FALSE) { $query = "INSERT INTO dt_table (id, code, connectid, connectcode) VALUES (:id, :code, :connectid, :connectcode)"; $stmt = $this->prepare($query); // Then, for each line : bind the parameters $stmt->bindValue(':id', $data[0], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':code', $data[1], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectid', $data[2], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectcode', $data[3], PDO::PARAM_INT); // Execute the statement $stmt->execute(); $this->checkForErrors($stmt); } } I am looking for a way wherein instead of hitting Database for every row of data, I can prepare the query and than hit it once and populate Database with the inserts. Any Suggestions !!! Note: This is the exact sample code that I am using but CSV file has more no. of field and not only id, code, connectid and connectcode but I wanted to make sure that I am able to explain the logic and so have used this sample code here. Thanks !!!

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• Git rebase and semi-tracked per-developer config files.

  - by dougkiwi

  This is my first SO question and I'm new-ish to Git as well. Background: I am supposed to be the version control guru for Git in my group of about 8 developers. As I don't have a lot of Git experience, this is exciting. I decided we need a shared repository that would be the authoritative master for the production code and the main meeting-point for the development code. As we work for a corporation, we really do need to show an authoritive source for the production code at least. I have instructed the developers to pull-rebase when pulling from the shared repository, then push the commits that they want to share. We have been running into problems with a particular type of file. One of these files, which I currently assume is typical of the problem, is called web.config. We want a version-controlled master web.config for devs to clone, but each dev may make minor edits to this file that they wish to locally save but not share. The problem is this: how do I tell git not to consider local changes or commits to this file to be relevent for rebasing and pushing? Gitignore does not seem to solve the problem, but maybe that's because I put web.config into .gitignore too late? In some simple situations we have stacked local changes, rebased, pushed, and popped the stack, but that doesn't seem to work all of the time. I haven't picked up the pattern quite yet. The published documentation on pull --rebase tends to deal with simplier situations. Or do I have the wrong idea entirely? Are we misusing Git? Dougkiwi

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• Why does this javascript code have an infinite loop?

  - by asdas

  optionElements is a 2d array. Each element has an array of length 2. These are an integer number and an element. I have a select list called linkbox, and i want to add all of the elements to the select list. The order I want them to go in is important, and is determined by the number each element has. It should be smallest to highest. So think of it like this: optionElements is: [ [5, <option>], [3, <option], [4, <option], [1, <option], [2, <option]] and it would add them to link box in order of those numbers. BUT that is not what happens. It is an infinite loop after the first time. I added the x constraint just to stop it from freezing my browser but you can ignore it. var b; var smallest; var samllestIndex; var x = 0; while(optionElements.length > 0 && ++x < 100) { smallestIndex = 0; smallest = optionElements[0][0]; b = 0; while( ++b < optionElements.length) { if(optionElements[b][0] > smallest) { smallestIndex = b; smallest = optionElements[b][0]; } } linkbox.appendChild(optionElements[smallestIndex][1]); optionElements.unshift(optionElements[smallestIndex]); } can someone point out to me where my problem is?

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• Rails routing of a controller's functions query

  - by Jty.tan

  So I've got a Users controller, and it has (amongst others) a function called details. The idea is that a user can go to localhost:3000/user/:user_id/details and be able to view the details of :user_id. For example, I have a user called "tester". When I go to the uri: http://localhost:3000/users/tester/details I'd want the details function to be called up, to render the details view, and to display the information for the user tester. But instead I get an error saying that No action responded to tester. Actions: change_password, create, current_user, details, forgot_password, index, login_required, new, redirect_to_stored, show, and update_attributes And I understand that to basically mean that if I wanted to access details, I should really be using http://localhost:3000/users/details Except that that isn't really working either... .< That is instead bringing me to http://localhost:3000/users/details/registries (which is the default path that I'd stipulated for anybody trying to view users/:user_id, so again, that's working the way I wanted it to) Point is: Can anybody help and tell me how I can go about getting users/:user_id/details to work the way I want it to and display the details of :user_id? Thanks!

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• Using Enum in Hibernate causes select followed by an update statement

  - by Leonardo

  Hi all, I have a mapped entity wich has an enum property. By loking at log file, whenever I run a select statement on such entity, the result is an immediately following update. For example if my result set contains 100 records, then I have: [INFO org... select...] [INFO org... update... where id=?] [INFO org... update... where id=?] .... repeated 100 times If I mark the property as update=false the problem disappear. The enum is assigned trough an enum converter class, which I copied from a well known book. So I don't know if I just copy and paste the code. Here it is how is declared on hbm file. <typedef class="mypackage.HbnEnumConverter" name="the_type"> <param name="enumClassname">mypackage.TheType</param> </typedef> Can you point out a direction to investigate this ? Beside, what are the consequences of having update=false on hibernate field ? thanks

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• typeahead.js remote with subset matching

  - by rebelde

  Instead of returning to the server after each additional letter is typed, I want it to only go to the server once, get all matching words, and filter the downloaded data after that. We are having trouble making this work. We are successfully using "remote" to wait until two letters are typed, but we can't get it to stop going to the server as additional letters are typed. Steps: 1. After two letters are typed, retrieve all matching words that start with those two letters. 2. When a third and additional letters are typed, don't go to the server again, just filter from the previous list that was sent. An example: "mo" is typed in. All 100 words that start with "mo" are returned. (Only 10 are shown.) "mor" - now with a third letter, we don't go back to the server. We just find the 20 words that match from within the previous set of words. Can anybody make this work? In real life (using YUI2), we do this and then go back to the server if somebody types in a space after the word. At that point, we know to retrieve additional words. Thanks!

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• Navigation Controller not Pushing/Popping View Controllers

  - by senfo

  I'm working on a view-based iPhone app that has the following flow: search - (list | map) - details To accomplish the transitions between views, I have a UINavigationController, with the search view controller being the root. After a user performs a search, I transition to a view with a segmented control, which acts as a tab to switch between the list and map functionality (per a suggestion from a related question I had). This view contains a UIViewController, which allows me to switch between the list/map view when a user taps the segmented control. I'm fine up until this point. As you can see from the above mentioned flow, I would like to provide the ability to transition into a details view. Each row of my table in the list view contains a details disclosure button for allowing the user to drill down into a details view. The problem is, when I try to push the details view onto the navigation stack, nothing happens. Below is the delegate method (from my list view controller) to handle the details disclosure button being tapped. I've set up break points, so I know the code is running. The navigation controller simply doesn't want to push the detailsController onto the stack (my guess is that I don't have a pointer to the correct UINavigationController). - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView accessoryButtonTappedForRowWithIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (detailController == nil) { detailController = [[DetailsViewController alloc] init]; } [self.navigationController pushViewController:detailController animated:YES]; } Assuming I was probably missing a pointer to the navigation controller, I exposed a UINavigation property on my list and map views (navigationController is readonly) and initialized them with a pointer to the navigation controller from my SwitchViewController (the view responsible for switching between list/map views when a user changes the value of the segmented control). Unfortunately, this did not solve the problem. Am I on the right track? If so, how do I see to it that my view has a pointer to the correct navigation controller? Should I add a delegate, which allows me to call a function in the SwitchViewController that transitions into the details view (this seems messy)?

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• Ruby on Rails login using legacy user database

  - by ricsmania

  Hello, I have a Rails application that connects to a legacy database (Oracle) and displays some information from a particular user. Right now the user is passed as a URL parameter, but this has obvious security issues because users should only be able to see their own data. To solve that, I want to implement a user login, and I did some research and came across 2 components for that, restful_authentication and authlogic. The problem is that I need to use an existing user/password database instead of creating a new one, which is the common way to use those components. The password is encrypted by a custom Oracle package, but let's assume it is stored as plain text to make things simpler. I only need very basic functionality, which is login a user and keep them logged in forever until logout. No changes to the database will be made by this application, so there's no need for sign up, e-mail activation, reset password, etc. Can someone point me in the right direction on how to do that? Is any of those 2 components a good solution? If not, what would be recommended? Thanks!

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• managing classes when everything is relative to a user in nhibernate (orm)

  - by Schotime

  Firstly I have three entities. Users, Roles, Items A user can have multiple Roles. An item gets assigned to one or more roles. Therefore a user will have access to a distinct set of items. Now there is a few ways I can see this working. There is a Collection on Users which has Roles via a many-to-many assoc. Then each Role in this collection will have its own collection of Items. So for each user I would have to get the User (using nhib and fetch the roles and items with it) then either do a selectMany on the Items in each Role to get all the Items for the user or do a couple of foreach's to port the data to a view or dto model. Create a db trigger to automatically insert into another table that just has the relationship between user and items so that on my User entity I only have a Items collections which has all the items assigned to me. Some other way that i can't think of yet, because I'm new to nHibernate. Now i know that the trigger doesn't feel right but I'm not sure how to do this. We also have some hierarchy later where a user may be in charge of a group of users. If anyone could shed some light on how they go about these scenarios in nhibernate or another orm that would be great, or point be in a direction. I know that in the past you would have to enter all combinations into a table so that the query worked, but when you know sql its not too bad. If you need any other info then let me know. Cheers

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• Calling arrays from other methods in a different class

  - by Jake H

  Hello, I need help dealing with an array in my java program. in my first class, "test", I set 4 variables and then send them to my other class (test2). arr[i] = new test2(id, fname, lname, case); at that point, variables are set and then I want to return those variables. So in the test2 class, I have a method that strictly returns one of those variables public int getId(){ return id; } I understand this is a little stupid, but professor gets what professor wants I guess. What I want to do now is in my main method in "test" I want to retrieve that variable and sort the array based on that int. Unfortunately, I have to create my own sort function, but I think this would work for what I want to do. for(j = 0; j < arr.length; j++){ int indexMin =j; for(i = j; i < arr.length;i++){ if(arr[i] < arr[indexMin]){ indexMin = i; } } int tmp = arr[j]; arr[j] = arr[indexMin]; arr[indexMin] = tmp; } I appreciate any help anyone could provide. Thank you

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• Drupal module for complex hours of operation / office hours

  - by Eronarn

  Background: I am building a website in Drupal that links together a wide variety of social service providers for the purposes of discovery, collaboration, and all that good stuff. The goal is to make a website that is simple to browse for consumers of these services and simple to update for providers of these services. The beta has been very well received, but I want to switch to a different information schema before the site goes live. Specific question: I am looking for a module (or other solution) that... Stores this data in Drupal (i.e., no GCal) Supports a wide variety of repeats Is intuitive for people editing the node (no Cron-style interfaces, please!) I have looked into several modules on drupal.org and none seem to meet all of these criteria. I've also searched here, and while this question is similar: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2794149/drupal-create-a-node-with-employee-working-hours my needs are too complex for the offered solution. Some of these providers have "hours" such as "the third Wednesday of every month", or "open during Winter months", or separate hotline & office hours. Likewise, the Date Repeat module doesn't cut it as stands currently. I'm comfortable hacking what I need into an existing module - I just don't want to duplicate effort! If you have a suggestion on what module might be a good starting point, I'd appreciate that input, too. Thanks. <3

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• How to use RewriteBase in .htaccess to rewrite img tags?

  - by Eileen

  I guess I don't understand RewriteBase. I have a (drupal) site built on my dev server and everything works perfectly. I created a fake URL for it in my own apache and hosts file, so I get to my local version with "local-examplesite.com". Eventually it will live at www.examplesite.com, but I want to put up a draft with a temp URL at my hosting company like so: 123.45.67.89/~examplesite . I set the RewriteBase in .htaccess to /~examplesite . All the pages work fine, and all the navigation links go to the right places. But none of my images work! They are of the format src="/sites/default/images/blah.png", and so the tags are getting rendered as src="http://123.45.67.89/sites/default/images/blah.png", instead of src="http://123.45.67.89/~examplesite/sites/default/images/blah.png". Is there any way I can get the site to point to right images? I thought that's what rewritebase was for, but after reading up a bit I guess it is for URLs only (the ones that get rewritten, natch).

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• Is there a way for -webkit-animtion-timing-function to apply to the entire animation instead of each keyframe?

  - by Ken Sykora

  I'm a bit new to animation, so forgive me if I'm missing a huge concept here. I need to animate an arrow that is pointing to a point on a curve, let's just say it's a cubic curve for the sake of this post. The arrow moves along the curve's line, always pointing a few pixels below it. So what I did, is I setup keyframes along the curve's line using CSS3: @-webkit-keyframes ftch { 0% { opacity: 0; left: -10px; bottom: 12px; } 25% { opacity: 0.25; left: 56.5px; bottom: -7px; } 50% { opacity: 0.5; left: 143px; bottom: -20px; } 75% { opacity: 0.75; left: 209.5px; bottom: -24.5px; } 100% { opacity: 1; left: 266px; bottom: -26px; } } However, when I run this animation using -webkit-animation-timing-function: ease-in, it applies that easing to each individual keyframe, which is definitely not what I want. I want the easing to apply to the entire animation. Is there a different way that I should be doing this? Is there some property to apply the easing to the entire sequence rather than each keyframe?

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• Screenscraping and reverse engineering health based web tool

  - by ArbInv

  Hi There is a publicly available free tool which has been built to help people understand the impact of various risk factors on their health / life expectancy. I am interested in understanding the data that sits behind the tool. To get this out it would require putting in a range of different socio-demographic factors and analyzing the resulting outputs. This would need to be done across many thousand different individual profiles. The tool was probably built on some standard BI platorm. I have no interest in how the tool was built but do want to get to the data within it. The site has a Terms of Use Agreement which includes: Not copying, distribute, adapt, create derivative works of, translate, or otherwise modify the said tool Not decompile, disassemble, reverse assemble, or otherwise reverse engineer the tool. The said institution retains all rights, title and interest in and to the Tool, and any and all modifications thereof, including all copyright, copyright registrations, trade secrets, trademarks, goodwill and confidential and proprietary information related thereto. Would i be in effect breaking the law if i were to point a screen scraping tool which downloaded the data that sits behind the tool in question?? Any advice welcomed? THANKS

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• What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

  - by Daniel DiPaolo

  We developers are in a unique position when it comes to the ability to not only be skeptical about the capabilities provided by open source software, but to actively analyze the code since it is freely available. In fact, one may even argue that open source software developers have a social responsibility to do so to contribute to the community. But at what point do you as a developer say, "I better take a look at what this is doing before I trust using it" for any given thing? Is it a matter of trusting code with your personal information? Does it depend on the source you're getting it from? What spurred this question on was a post on Hacker News to a javascript bookmarklet that supposedly tells you how "exposed" your information on Facebook is as well as recommending some fixes. I thought for a second "I'd rather not start blindly running this code over all my (fairly locked down) Facebook information so let me check it out". The bookmarklet is simple enough, but it calls another javascript function which at the time (but not anymore) was highly compressed and undecipherable. That's when I said "nope, not gonna do it". So even though I could have verified the original uncompressed javascript from the Github site and even saved a local copy to verify and then run without hitting their server, I wasn't going to. It's several thousand lines and I'm not a total javascript guru to begin with. Yet, folks are using it anyway. Even (supposedly) bright developers. What makes them trust the script? Did they all scrutinize it line by line? Do they know the guy personally and trust him not to do anything bad? Do they just take his word? What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

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• Transfering a set with a Wildcarded Generic to a List in Java

  - by Daniel Bingham

  I have a data type that contains a set and a method that expects List<? extends MyClass>. The data type has Set<? extends MyClass>. I need to be able to move the stuff out of the set and into the List. The order it goes into the list doesn't matter, it just needs to start keeping track of it so that it can be reordered when displayed. Suffice to say that changing the Set into a List in the data type is out of the question here. This seems pretty easy at first. Create a new method that takes a Set instead of a List, changes it into a list and then passes it on to the old method that just took a list. The problem comes in changing the set to a list. public void setData(Set<? extends MyClass> data) { List<? extends Myclass> newData = ArrayList< /* What goes here? */ >(); for(ConcordaEntityBean o : data) { newData.add(o); } setData(newData); } Obviously, I can't instantiate an ArrayList with a wildcard, it chokes. I don't know the type at that point. Is there some way to pull the type out of data and pass it to ArrayList? Can I just instantiate it with MyClass? Is there some other way to do this?

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