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  • how to extract information from JSON using jQuery

    - by Richard Reddy
    Hi, I have a JSON response that is formatted from my C# WebMethod using the JavascriptSerializer Class. I currently get the following JSON back from my query: {"d":"[{\"Lat\":\"51.85036\",\"Long\":\"-8.48901\"},{\"Lat\":\"51.89857\",\"Long\":\"-8.47229\"}]"} I'm having an issue with my code below that I'm hoping someone might be able to shed some light on. I can't seem to get at the information out of the values returned to me. Ideally I would like to be able to read in the Lat and Long values for each row returned to me. Below is what I currently have: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "page.aspx/LoadWayPoints", data: "{'args': '" + $('numJourneys').val() + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { if (msg.d != '[]') { var lat = ""; var long = ""; $.each(msg.d, function () { lat = this['MapLatPosition']; long = this['MapLongPosition']; }); alert('lat =' + lat + ', long =' + long); } } }); I think the issue is something to do with how the JSON is formatted but I might be incorrect. Any help would be great. Thanks, Rich

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  • What is the correct high level schema.org microdata itemtype for a retail brand/company homepage?

    - by kpowz
    I'd like to hear which schema.org itemtype others would recommend using or have used in the case of completing a retail brand's company homepage microdata. Take for example TOMS's shoes: Example #1 - Using /Corporation as the high-level itemtype one can include a lot of great /Organization microdata, but nothing about the retail store. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Website> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Corporation> various microdata here probably including Product microdata </body> </html> NOTE: the only schema.org property specific to /Corporation is tickerSymbol & TOMS doesn't have one. Example #2 - This code would work if TOMS started their own channel of physical retail stores & each location had it's own homepage. However, for TOMS's.com, although accurate schematically & more descriptive at the face, this is incorrect microdata markup for TOMS.com, because /ShoeStore derives from /LocalBusiness - which must represent a physical place. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/Website'> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/ShoeStore'> a whole bunch of jabber here </body> </html> NOTE: Since TOMS is virtual & thus can't be a /Store this means you lose really cool properties like 'currenciesAccepted', 'paymentAccepted' & 'priceRange'. Is this just a 'sit and wait' situation until more schemas are approved for 'virtual places' or is there a validation-passing way to get the best of both worlds?

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  • java url connection, wait for data being sent through the outputstream

    - by Mateu
    I'm writting a java class that tests uploading speed connection to a server. I want to check how many data can be send in 5 seconds. I've written a class which creates a URL, creates a connection, and sends data trough the outPutStream. There is a loop where I writte data to the stream for 5 seconds. However I'm not able to see when data has been send (I writte data to the output stream, but data is not send yet). How can I wait untill data is really sent to the server? Here goes my code (which does not work): URL u = new URL(url) HttpURLConnection uc = (HttpURLConnection) u.openConnection(); uc.setDoOutput(true); uc.setDoInput(true); uc.setUseCaches(false); uc.setDefaultUseCaches(false); uc.setRequestMethod("POST"); uc.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "application/octet-stream"); uc.connect(); st.start(); // Send the request OutputStream os = uc.getOutputStream(); //This while is incorrect cause it does not wait for data beeing sent while (st.getElapsedTime() < miliSeconds) { os.write(buffer); os.flush(); st.addSize(buffer.length); } os.close(); Thanks

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  • Database schema for a library

    - by ABach
    Hi all - I'm designing a library management system for a department at my university and I wanted to enlist your eyes on my proposed schema. This post is primarily concerned with how we store multiple copies of each book; something about what I've designed rubs me the wrong way, and I'm hoping you all can point out better ways to tackle things. For dealing with users checking out books, I've devised three tables: book, customer, and book_copy. The relationships between these tables are as follows: Every book has many book_copies (to avoid duplicating the book's information while storing the fact that we have multiple copies of that book). Every user has many book_copies (the other end of the relationship) The tables themselves are designed like this: ------------------------------------------------ book ------------------------------------------------ + id + title + author + isbn + etc. ------------------------------------------------ ------------------------------------------------ customer ------------------------------------------------ + id + first_name + first_name + email + address + city + state + zip + etc. ------------------------------------------------ ------------------------------------------------ book_copy ------------------------------------------------ + id + book_id (FK to book) + customer_id (FK to customer) + checked_out + due_date + etc. ------------------------------------------------ Something about this seems incorrect (or at least inefficient to me) - the perfectionist in me feels like I'm not normalizing this data correctly. What say ye? Is there a better, more effective way to design this schema? Thanks!

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  • Delphi: How to avoid EIntOverflow underflow when subtracting?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Microsoft already says, in the documentation for GetTickCount, that you could never compare tick counts to check if an interval has passed. e.g.: Incorrect (pseudo-code): DWORD endTime = GetTickCount + 10000; //10 s from now ... if (GetTickCount > endTime) break; The above code is bad because it is suceptable to rollover of the tick counter. For example, assume that the clock is near the end of it's range: endTime = 0xfffffe00 + 10000 = 0x00002510; //9,488 decimal Then you perform your check: if (GetTickCount > endTime) Which is satisfied immediatly, since GetTickCount is larger than endTime: if (0xfffffe01 > 0x00002510) The solution Instead you should always subtract the two time intervals: DWORD startTime = GetTickCount; ... if (GetTickCount - startTime) > 10000 //if it's been 10 seconds break; Looking at the same math: if (GetTickCount - startTime) > 10000 if (0xfffffe01 - 0xfffffe00) > 10000 if (1 > 10000) Which is all well and good in C/C++, where the compiler behaves a certain way. But what about Delphi? But when i perform the same math in Delphi, with overflow checking on ({Q+}, {$OVERFLOWCHECKS ON}), the subtraction of the two tick counts generates an EIntOverflow exception when the TickCount rolls over: if (0x00000100 - 0xffffff00) > 10000 0x00000100 - 0xffffff00 = 0x00000200 What is the intended solution for this problem? Edit: i've tried to temporarily turn off OVERFLOWCHECKS: {$OVERFLOWCHECKS OFF}] delta = GetTickCount - startTime; {$OVERFLOWCHECKS ON} But the subtraction still throws an EIntOverflow exception. Is there a better solution, involving casts and larger intermediate variable types?

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  • Sorcery/Capybara: Cannon log in with :js => true

    - by PlankTon
    I've been using capybara for a while, but I'm new to sorcery. I have a very odd problem whereby if I run the specs without Capybara's :js = true functionality I can log in fine, but if I try to specify :js = true on a spec, username/password cannot be found. Here's the authentication macro: module AuthenticationMacros def sign_in user = FactoryGirl.create(:user) user.activate! visit new_sessions_path fill_in 'Email Address', :with => user.email fill_in 'Password', :with => 'foobar' click_button 'Sign In' user end end Which is called in specs like this: feature "project setup" do include AuthenticationMacros background do sign_in end scenario "creating a project" do "my spec here" end The above code works fine. However, IF I change the scenario spec from (in this case) scenario "adding questions to a project" do to scenario "adding questions to a project", :js => true do login fails with an 'incorrect username/password' combination. Literally the only change is that :js = true. I'm using the default capybara javascript driver. (Loads up Firefox) Any ideas what could be going on here? I'm completely stumped. I'm using Capybara 2.0.1, Sorcery 0.7.13. There is no javascript on the sign in page and save_and_open_page before clicking 'sign in' confirms that the correct details are entered into the username/password fields. Any suggestions really appreciated - I'm at a loss.

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  • Cross domain ajax POST ie7 with jquery

    - by DickieBoy
    been having trouble with this script, ive managed to get it working in ie8, works on chrome fine. initilize: function(){ $('#my_form').submit(function(){ if ($.browser.msie && window.XDomainRequest) { var data = $('#my_form').serialize(); xdr=new XDomainRequest(); function after_xhr_load() { response = $.parseJSON(xdr.responseText); if(response.number =="incorrect format"){ $('#errors').html('error'); } else { $('#errors').html('worked'); } } xdr.onload = after_xhr_load; xdr.open("POST",$('#my_form').attr('action')+".json"); xdr.send(data); } else { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: $('#my_form').attr('action')+".json", data: $('#my_form').serialize(), dataType: "json", complete: function(data) { if(data.statusText =="OK"){ $('#errors').html('error'); } if(data.statusText =="Created"){ response = $.parseJSON(data.responseText); $('#errors').html('Here is your code:' +response.code); } } }); } return false; }); } I understand that ie7 does not have the XDomainRequest() object. How can I replicate this in ie7. Thanks, in advance

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  • Compiling a C++ application on Windows 7, but execute it on Win2003 Server

    - by dabs
    I have a C++ application (quite complex, multiple projects) in Visual Studio 2008, that produces a single dll. Recently I switched to Windows 7, but had previously been compiling under Windows XP. Suddenly the dll in question cannot be loaded by another application, i.e. on a machine running Windows 2003 Server. I've been trying various things: I've installed the VC9.0 redistributable package on the server Also copied various .dll's from that package to the application folder The project is of course compiled in release mode When I run depends.exe on the client machine, I do get the following error: "Error: The Side-by-Side configuration information for "my_dll.dll" contains errors. This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem (14001). Warning: At least one module has an unresolved import due to a missing export function in a delay-load dependent module." and the icon for shlwapi.dll has a red overlay icon. This didn't happen when I was compiling under WinXP, so I'm guessing that there really is no problem with the .dll's on the client machine, but somewhere there is a reference to that particular version of some dll. Does anyone know what would be the best way to resolve this? Regards, Daníel

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  • Linq to SQL - Failing to update

    - by Isaac
    Hello, I'm having some troubles with updating linq to sql entities. For some reason, I can update every single field of my item entity besides name. Here are two simple tests I wrote: [TestMethod] public void TestUpdateName( ) { using ( var context = new SimoneDataContext( ) ) { Item item = context.Items.First( ); if ( item != null ) { item.Name = "My New Name"; context.SubmitChanges( ); } } } [TestMethod] public void TestUpdateMPN( ) { using ( var context = new SimoneDataContext( ) ) { Item item = context.Items.First( ); if ( item != null ) { item.MPN = "My New MPN"; context.SubmitChanges( ); } } } Unfortunately, TestUpdateName() fails with the following error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'.. And here's the outputted SQL: UPDATE [dbo].[Items] SET WHERE ([Id] = @p0) AND ([CategoryId] = @p1) AND ([MPN] = @p2) AND ([Height] = @p3) AND ([Width] = @p4) AND ([Weight] = @p5) AND ([Length] = @p6) AND ([AdministrativeCost] = @p7) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- @p1: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- @p2: Input VarChar (Size = 10; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [My New MPN] -- @p3: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [30.000] -- @p4: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [10.000] -- @p5: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [40.000] -- @p6: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [30.000] -- @p7: Input Money (Size = 0; Prec = 19; Scale = 4) [350.0000] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.4926 As you can see, no update is being generated (SET is empty ...) I have no clue why is this happening. And already in advance ... YES, the table Item has a PK (Id). Thank you in advance!

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  • Determine whether app is communicating with APNS sandbox or production environment

    - by goldierox
    I have push notifications set up in my app. I'm trying to determine whether the device token I've received from APNS in the application:didRegisterForRemoteNotificationsWithDeviceToken: method came from the sandbox or development environment. If I can distinguish which environment initialized the token, I'll be able to tell my server to which environment to send the push notification. I've tried using the DEBUG macro to determine this, but I've seen some strange behavior with this and don't trust it to be 100% correct. #ifdef DEBUG BOOL isProd = YES; #else BOOL isProd = NO; #endif Ideally, I'd be able to examine the aps-environment entitlement (value is Development or Production) in code, but I'm not sure if this is even possible. What's the proper way to determine whether your app is communicating with the APNS sandbox or production environments? I'm assuming that the server needs to know this in the first place. Please correct me if this is assumption is incorrect. Edited: Apple's documentation on Provider Communication with APNS details the difference between communicating with the sandbox and production. However, the documentation doesn't give information on how to be consistent with registering the token (from the iOS client app) and communicating with the server.

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  • Is there a Symfony callback at the termination of a session?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have an application that is authenticating against an external server in a filter. In that filter, I'm trying to set a couple of session attributes on the user by using Symfony's setAttribute() method: $this->getContext()->getUser()->setAttribute( 'myAttribute', 'myValue' ); What I'm finding is that, if I dump $_SESSION immediately after setting the attribute. On the other hand, if I call getAttribute( 'myAttribute' ), I get back exactly what I put in. All along, I've assumed that reading/writing to user attributes was synonymous with reading/writing to the session, but that seems to be an incorrect assumption. Is there a timing issue? I'm not getting any non-object errors, so it seems that the user is fully initialized. Where is the disconnect here? Thanks. UPDATE The reason this was happening is because I had some code in myUser::shutdown() that cleared out a bunch of stuff. Because myUser is loosely equivalent to $_SESSION (at least with respect to attributes), I assumed that the shutdown() method would be called at the end of each session. It's not. It seems to get called at the close of each request which is why my attributes never seemed to get set. Now, though, I'm left wondering whether there's a session closing callback. Anyone know?

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  • Making a Function-Activated Link Appear Without Having to Refresh Browser

    - by John
    Hello, I'm trying to use the code below to make the <a href='http://www...com/.../footervote.php'>Vote</a> link appear if a user logs in and a user shows up in the function getEditorsList(). The vote link only appears if the browser is refreshed. Any idea how I could make the vote link appear without having to refresh the browser? Thanks in advance, John index.php: <?php require_once "header.php"; //content include "login.php"; // more content require_once "footer.php"; ?> In header.php: <?php error_reporting(0); session_start(); require_once ('db_connect.inc.php'); require_once ("function.inc.php"); $seed="0dAfghRqSTgx"; $domain = "...com"; $editors = getEditorsList(); foreach($editors as $editor) { $editorids[] = $editor['loginid']; } if(in_array($_SESSION['loginid'], $editorids)) { echo "<div class='footervote'><a href='http://www...com/.../footervote.php'>Vote</a></div>"; } ?> login.php: <?php if (!isLoggedIn()) { if (isset($_POST['cmdlogin'])) { if (checkLogin($_POST['username'], $_POST['password'])) { show_userbox(); } else { echo "Incorrect Login information !"; show_loginform(); } } else { show_loginform(); } } else { show_userbox(); } ?>

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  • SQL problem - select accross multiple tables (user groups)

    - by morpheous
    I have a db schema which looks something like this: create table user (id int, name varchar(32)); create table group (id int, name varchar(32)); create table group_member (foobar_id int, user_id int, flag int); I want to write a query that allows me to so the following: Given a valid user id (UID), fetch the ids of all users that are in the same group as the specified user id (UID) AND have group_member.flag=3. Rather than just have the SQL. I want to learn how to think like a Db programmer. As a coder, SQL is my weakest link (since I am far more comfortable with imperative languages than declarative ones) - but I want to change that. Anyway here are the steps I have identified as necessary to break down the task. I would be grateful if some SQL guru can demonstrate the simple SQL statements - i.e. atomic SQL statements, one for each of the identified subtasks below, and then finally, how I can combine those statements to make the ONE statement that implements the required functionality. Here goes (assume specified user_id [UID] = 1): //Subtask #1. Fetch list of all groups of which I am a member Select group.id from user inner join group_member where user.id=group_member.user_id and user.id=1 //Subtask #2 Fetch a list of all members who are members of the groups I am a member of (i.e. groups in subtask #1) Not sure about this ... select user.id from user, group_member gm1, group_member gm2, ... [Stuck] //Subtask #3 Get list of users that satisfy criteria group_member.flag=3 Select user.id from user inner join group_member where user.id=group_member.user_id and user.id=1 and group_member.flag=3 Once I have the SQL for subtask2, I'd then like to see how the complete SQL statement is built from these subtasks (you dont have to use the SQL in the subtask, it just a way of explaining the steps involved - also, my SQL may be incorrect/inefficient, if so, please feel free to correct it, and point out what was wrong with it). Thanks

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  • PHP - dynamic page via subdomain

    - by Phil Jackson
    Hi, im creating profile pages based on a subdomains using the wildcard DNS setting. Problem being, if the subdomain is incorrect, I want it to redirect to the same page but without the subdomain infront ie; if ( preg_match('/^(www\.)?([^.]+)\.domainname\.co.uk$/', $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'], $match)) { $DISPLAY_NAME = $match[2]; $query = "SELECT * FROM `" . ACCOUNT_TABLE . "` WHERE DISPLAY_NAME = '$DISPLAY_NAME' AND ACCOUNT_TYPE = 'premium_account'"; $q = mysql_query( $query, $CON ) or die( "_error_" . mysql_error() ); if( mysql_num_rows( $q ) != 0 ) { }else{ mysql_close( $CON ); header("location: http://www.domainname.co.uk"); exit; } } I get a browser error: Firefox has detected that the server is redirecting the request for this address in a way that will never complete. I think its because when using header("location: http://www.domainname.co.uk"); it still puts the sub domain infront i.e. ; header("location: http://www.sub.domainname.co.uk"); Does anyone know how to sort this and/or what is the problem. Regards, Phil

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  • XML File as Excel file.

    - by FrustratedWithFormsDesigner
    I have a number of reports that I run against my database that need to eventually go to the end-users as Excel spreadsheets. Initially, I was creating text reports, but the steps to convert the text to a spreadsheet were a bit cumbersome. There were too many steps to import text to the spreadsheet, and multi-line text rows were imported as individual rows in Excel (which was incorrect). Currently, I am generating simple XML saving the file with an ".xls" extension. This works better, but there is still the problem of Excel prompting the user with an XML import dialogue every time they open the file, and then having to save a new file if they add notes or change the layout to the file (which they almost certainly will be doing). Sample "xls" file: <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <report_rows> <row> <NAME>Test Data</NAME> <COUNT>345</COUNT> </row> <!-- many more row elements... --> </report_rows> Is there any way to add markup to the file to hint to Excel how it should import and handle the file? Ideally, the end user should be able to open and save the file like any othe spreadsheet they create directly from Excel. Is this even possible? UPDATE: We are running Office 2003 here. UPDATE: The XML is generated from a sqlplus script, no option to use C#/.NET here.

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  • How do you perform arithmetic calculations on symbols in Scheme/Lisp?

    - by kunjaan
    I need to perform calculations with a symbol. I need to convert the time which is of hh:mm form to the minutes passed. ;; (get-minutes symbol)->number ;; convert the time in hh:mm to minutes ;; (get-minutes 6:19)-> 6* 60 + 19 (define (get-minutes time) (let* ((a-time (string->list (symbol->string time))) (hour (first a-time)) (minutes (third a-time))) (+ (* hour 60) minutes))) This is an incorrect code, I get a character after all that conversion and cannot perform a correct calculation. Do you guys have any suggestions? I cant change the input type. Context: The input is a flight schedule so I cannot alter the data structure. ;; ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Edit: Figured out an ugly solution. Please suggest something better. (define (get-minutes time) (let* ((a-time (symbol->string time)) (hour (string->number (substring a-time 0 1))) (minutes (string->number (substring a-time 2 4)))) (+ (* hour 60) minutes)))

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  • jQuery preventing RedirectToAction from working?

    - by DaveDev
    I'm trying to redirect the user if they login successfully but the code I have on my page seems to be preventing the redirection from working. If I remove the jQuery below the redirection works. Can somebody tell me tell me if there's something I'm doing wrong? Thanks I have the following Action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { var myErrors = new Dictionary<string, string>(); try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Group", new {page = (int?)null}); } else { return Json("Username or password seems to be incorrect"); } } else { foreach (KeyValuePair<string, ModelState> keyValuePair in ViewData.ModelState) { if (keyValuePair.Value.Errors.Count > 0) { List<string> errors = new List<string>(); myErrors.Add(keyValuePair.Key, keyValuePair.Value.Errors[0].ErrorMessage); } } return Json(myErrors); } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } } and the following code on my page: <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#SaveSuccess").hide(); $("#btnLogin").click(function() { $("form").submit(function(event) { var formData = $(this).serialize(); $.post($(this).attr("action"), formData, function(res) { ShowErrors(res); if (res == true) { $("#SaveSuccess").text("Saved"); } else { $("#divError").html(res); } $("#SaveSuccess").fadeIn(100); }, "json"); return false; }); }); }); </script>

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  • MVC2 Json request not actually hitting the controller

    - by SlackerCoder
    I have a JSON request, but it seems that it is not hitting the controller. Here's the jQuery code: $("#ddlAdminLogsSelectLog").change(function() { globalLogSelection = $("#ddlAdminLogsSelectLog").val(); alert(globalLogSelection); $.getJSON("/Administrative/AdminLogsChangeLogSelection", { NewSelection: globalLogSelection }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { globalCurrentPage = 1; } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do Something } }); }); The alert is there to show me if it actually fired the change event, which it does. Heres the method in the controller: public ActionResult AdminLogsChangeLogSelection(String NewSelection) { String sMessage = String.Empty; StringBuilder sbDataReturn = new StringBuilder(); try { if (NewSelection.Equals("Application Log")) { int i = 0; } else if (NewSelection.Equals("Email Log")) { int l = 0; } } catch (Exception e) { //Do Something sMessage = "Error"; } return Json(new { Message = sMessage, DataReturn = sbDataReturn.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } I have a bunch of Json requests in my application, and it seems to only happen in this area. This is a separate area (I have 6 "areas" in the app, 5 of which work fine with JSON requests). This controller is named "AdministrativeController", if that matters. Does anything jump out anyone as being incorrect or why the request would not pass to the server side?

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  • Project Euler, Problem 10 java solution now working

    - by Dennis S
    Hi, I'm trying to find the sum of the prime numbers < 2'000'000. This is my solution in java but I can't seem get the correct answer. Please give some input on what could be wrong and general advice on the code is appreciated. Printing 'sum' gives: 1308111344, which is incorrect. /* The sum of the primes below 10 is 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 = 17. Find the sum of all the primes below two million. */ class Helper{ public void run(){ Integer sum = 0; for(int i = 2; i < 2000000; i++){ if(isPrime(i)) sum += i; } System.out.println(sum); } private boolean isPrime(int nr){ if(nr == 2) return true; else if(nr == 1) return false; if(nr % 2 == 0) return false; for(int i = 3; i < Math.sqrt(nr); i += 2){ if(nr % i == 0) return false; } return true; } } class Problem{ public static void main(String[] args){ Helper p = new Helper(); p.run(); } }

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  • How to draw shadows that don't suck?

    - by mystify
    A CAShapeLayer uses a CGPathRef to draw it's stuff. So I have a star path, and I want a smooth drop shadow with a radius of about 15 units. Probably there is some nice functionality in some new iPhone OS versions, but I need to do it myself for a old aged version of 3.0 (which most people still use). I tried to do some REALLY nasty stuff: I created a for-loop and sequentially created like 15 of those paths, transform-scaling them step by step to become bigger. Then assigning them to a new created CAShapeLayer and decreasing it's alpha a little bit on every iteration. Not only that this scaling is mathematically incorrect and sucks (it should happen relative to the outline!), the shadow is not rounded and looks really ugly. That's why nice soft shadows have a radius. The tips of a star shouldn't appear totally sharp after a shadow size of 15 units. They should be soft like cream. But in my ugly solution they're just as s harp as the star itself, since all I do is scale the star 15 times and decrease it's alpha 15 times. Ugly. I wonder how the big guys do it? If you had an arbitrary path, and that path must throw a shadow, how does the algorithm to do that work? Probably the path would have to be expanded like 30 times, point-by-point relative to the tangent of the outline away from the filled part, and just by 0.5 units to have a nice blending. Before I re-invent the wheel, maybe someone has a handy example or link?

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  • SVG text parameter changing on conversion to image uri : random dy on tspan element

    - by Kitex
    Sorry that I could not compile jsfiddle because it's jsf application hosted locally and code is dependent on data from jsf application. Although I have arrange part of it and part if it as snippet here. Now Everything's correct in Firefox. Suddenly when I open it in chrome something happened. The text on raphael paper suddenly gets scattered in the paper. It's not where it's meant to be. This happens when I convert svg to image and again generate svg. Everything works fine in Firefox. There is chagne id dy of tspan dy=3.09499999 dy=432.0949999999999 Why is there this change in dy although x and y are same? SVG Correct: The fiddle is here. SVG Incorrect: The fiddle is here. function printMap(){ var svg = $('#map').html().replace(/>\s+/g, ">").replace(/\s+</g, "<"); // strips off all spaces between tags canvg('cvs', svg, { ignoreMouse: true, ignoreAnimation: true }); var canvas = document.getElementById('cvs'); var img = canvas.toDataURL("image/png"); $("#resImg").attr("src",img); $("#resImg").css("display",'block'); //$("resImg").css("display",'none'); $("#map").css("display",'none'); // location.href = img; } Before: Text are above the object: After: Texts are scattered:

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  • Only want "Required field" error to appear ONCE in ASP.NET Validation Summary

    - by PapillonUK
    I have a form with several fields with a RequiredFieldValidator on them. If any of these fields are not filled in I only want the message "Please enter the items marked with an asterisk" to appear once in the ValidationSummary control and an asterisk to appear next to each field. I have done this using the method here. i.e. by setting Text to "*" and ValidationSummary.HeaderText to my message. Great, but no cigar as I also have other fields with other validators e.g. a RegEx for an Email field. This means that if all the required fields are entered but the email is incorrect, the ValidationSummary with "Please enter the items marked with an asterisk" will appear along with the message for the invalid email. Crap! I then tried using a ValidationGroup called "ReqField" and have a one ValidationSummary for this group (with my HeaderText) and another for the other validators, but alas, my Submit button only allows one ValidationGroup to be triggered upon the click event. Does anyone have any ideas as to how I can get this to work? Thanks in adavnce.

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  • Safari and Chrome back button changes hidden and submit values in forms

    - by OverClocked
    The following problem happens on both Safari and Chrome, so probably a WebKit issue. Page A: a page that requires you to login to see, contains a form that has a type=submit button, with name=submit, and value=a Page B: some other page Page C: ask user to login page, contains a form with a type=submit button, with name=submit and value=c User visits page A, then page B. Then idles and the user's login session times out. User hits back button to go back to page A. Browser redirects user to page C. On Safari and Chrome, when C is rendered, the form on page C has the type=submit button, name=submit, but value shows up as "a". If you reload while on page C, "c" appears as the value of the name=submit button. The same problem appears with type=hidden input fields; when user hits back button, their values are also changed to some other value from some other form. Also, this problem also shows up w/o the redirect, with just submit then back. In this case the previous page renders with incorrect values for hidden and submit CGI variables. So far the only fix I can come up with is use Javascript to reset the type=hidden and type=submit variable values, after page C loads, to make sure the values are correct. But that's not clean and universally applicable. Short of WebKit fixing this error, has anyone ran into a better workaround? Thanks.

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  • Debugging instance of another thread altering my data

    - by Mick
    I have a huge global array of structures. Some regions of the array are tied to individual threads and those threads can modify their regions of the array without having to use critical sections. But there is one special region of the array which all threads may have access to. The code that accesses these parts of the array needs to carefully use critical sections (each array element has its own critical section) to prevent any possibility of two threads writing to the structure simultaneously. Now I have a mysterious bug I am trying to chase, it is occurring unpredictably and very infrequently. It seems that one of the structures is being filled with some incorrect number. One obvious explanation is that another thread has accidentally been allowed to set this number when it should be excluded from doing so. Unfortunately it seems close to impossible to track this bug. The array element in which the bad data appears is different each time. What I would love to be able to do is set some kind of trap for the bug as follows: I would enter a critical section for array element N, then I know that no other thread should be able to touch the data, then (until I exit the critical section) set some kind of flag to a debugging tool saying "if any other thread attempts to change the data here please break and show me the offending patch of source code"... but I suspect no such tool exists... or does it? Or is there some completely different debugging methodology that I should be employing.

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  • jquery fail to retrieve accurate data from sibling field.

    - by i need help
    wonder what's wrong <table id=tblDomainVersion> <tr> <td>Version</td> <td>No of sites</td> </tr> <tr> <td class=clsversion>1.25</td> <td><a id=expanddomain>3 sites</a><span id=spanshowall></span></td> </tr> <tr> <td class=clsversion>1.37</td> <td><a id=expanddomain>7 sites</a><span id=spanshowall></span></td> </tr> </table> $('#expanddomain').click(function() { //the siblings result incorrect //select first row will work //select second row will no response var versionforselected= $('#expanddomain').parent().siblings("td.clsversion").text(); alert(versionforselected); $.ajax({ url: "ajaxquery.php", type: "POST", data: 'version='+versionforselected, timeout: 900000, success: function(output) { output= jQuery.trim(output); $('#spanshowall').html(output); }, }); });

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