Search Results

Search found 2144 results on 86 pages for 'programmatically'.

Page 75/86 | < Previous Page | 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82  | Next Page >

  • Heuristic to identify if a series of 4 bytes chunks of data are integers or floats

    - by flint
    What's the best heuristic I can use to identify whether a chunk of X 4-bytes are integers or floats? A human can do this easily, but I wanted to do it programmatically. I realize that since every combination of bits will result in a valid integer and (almost?) all of them will also result in a valid float, there is no way to know for sure. But I still would like to identify the most likely candidate (which will virtually always be correct; or at least, a human can do it). For example, let's take a series of 4-bytes raw data and print them as integers first and then as floats: 1 1.4013e-45 10 1.4013e-44 44 6.16571e-44 5000 7.00649e-42 1024 1.43493e-42 0 0 0 0 -5 -nan 11 1.54143e-44 Obviously they will be integers. Now, another example: 1065353216 1 1084227584 5 1085276160 5.5 1068149391 1.33333 1083179008 4.5 1120403456 100 0 0 -1110651699 -0.1 1195593728 50000 These will obviously be floats. PS: I'm using C++ but you can answer in any language, pseudo code or just in english.

    Read the article

  • Episerver Scheduled Job fails (scheduler service)

    - by Igor
    Our scheduled jobs started failing since yesterday with the following error message: CustomUpdate.Execute - System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(String username) at EPiServer.Security.PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(String username) The scheduled job uses anonymous execution and logs in programmatically using the following call: if (PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name == string.Empty) { PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal = PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(ApplicationSettings.ScheduledJobUsername); } I have put in some more logging around PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal call which is in Episerver.Security and noticed that PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal calls System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) and Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) returns an empty string array. There were no changes code wise or on the server (updates, etc). I checked that the user name used to run the task is in the database and has roles associated with it. I checked that applicationname is set up correctly and is associated with the user If i run the job manually using the same user it executes with no issues (i know there is a difference between running the job manually and using the scheduler) I also tried creating a new user, that didn’t work either. Has anyone come across the same or similar issue? Any thoughts how to resolve this issue?

    Read the article

  • How do I properly handle rotation of a UIScrollView containing UIImageViews?

    - by bpapa
    I'm developing an image viewer, much like the Photos App. It's a UIScrollView with paging enabled with images loaded from the internet, so I've adapted portions of the LazyTableImages sample. The Scroll View and each ImageView inside of it have all of their autoresize mask flags set. When I first observed how resizes were happening during rotation, it looked good, but once I started trying to interact with the scroll view, I realized that I also had to programmatically change the size of the contentView. I did that by implementing didRotateFromInterfaceOrientation: in my view controller. [self.scrollView setContentSize:CGSizeMake(numberOfImages * portraitWidth, [scrollView bounds].size.height)]; With interaction behaving properly, I then discovered that, if I was viewing the second photo and rotated, portions of both the 1st and 2nd photos would be shown on the screen. I needed to change the contentOffset as well. I've tried to fix this two ways - both by using the scrollRectToVisible:animated: method of UIScrollView, as well as trying to set the contentOffset property directly. And I've experimented by putting this code in implementations of both the "one-step" and "two-step" responses to changes in Orientation. For example: -(void)didAnimateFirstHalfOfRotationToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation { [self.scrollView setContentOffset:CGPointMake(currentlyViewedPhotoIndex * largeImageHeight,0) animated:YES]; In all cases though, it just looks janky as hell. Either I clearly see the scroll happen, or it just jumps. Uuuuuuuuuuugly! Is there a way to do this so that it behaves exactly like the Photos app does?

    Read the article

  • Is there a good tutorial for figuring out what a website is doing so your program can do the same th

    - by brian d foy
    Is there a good guide or tutorial for people who need to programmatically interact with dynamic websites? There's been a rash of Perl questions about that lately, and I haven't found a good resource to point people toward. I'm asking not because I need one but because I don't want to waste my time writing it if it already exists. Although I'm most interested in Perl, the extra tools and techniques are mostly the same. Typically, I see see these problems in people's questions: Handling, setting, and saving cookies Finding and interacting with forms Handling JavaScript inside your user-agent especially things like onLoad, onSumbit, and Ajax Using HTTP sniffer tools Using Web developer plugins in interactive browsers Interacting with DOM, screen scraping, etc. If there's no good tutorial, I'll add it to my list of things to do (unless someone else wants to do it :). Along the way, if you don't have a suggestion for an existing tutorial, please suggest the things that you think should be in a new one, including links, your favorite tools, and your own user-agent development experiences. I don't care about the particular language you use.

    Read the article

  • Make WebStart Java desktop application to start on system startup on Windows and Mac

    - by parxier
    I developed small cross-platform (Windows and Mac) SWT desktop application. It is distributed with WebStart. So far so good, everything works. I've got a new requirement to make my app start on system startup (with no user interaction). What is the best way to accomplish that? In JNLP file I've got this: <shortcut online="false"> <desktop/> <menu submenu="CompanyName"/> </shortcut> On Windows WebStart creates a desktop link [app_name].lnk and it points to javaws.exe and then some Java cache file as a parameter with funny name like ..\Sun\Java\Deployment\cache\6.0\4\2c0a6a781-213476. I can possibly programmatically find that link on user's machine by name... erm... and then copy it into user's Startup folder. I can see a problem here though as user can disable WebStart desktop shortcut creation option all together. On Mac WebStart pops up a dialog to prompt user for the location where to create an [app_name].app (user is allowed to change link name there!) file that launches an application. On Mac I don't event know where the Startup folder is located (and it seems to be much more complex there). Is there Java library out there that abstracts start app on system startup concept on different platforms as SWT does for GUI abstraction?

    Read the article

  • How can I call from my PC through my cisco ip phone?

    - by Enjoy coding
    Hi gurus, I am trying to call a telephone number fro my PC through my ip phone once my application completes its work. So I am searching for a way to access my ip phone from my PC. Please correct me if I am wrong or missing the obvious. On my PC in office selecting a phone in Microsoft office communicator and making calls from PC through my Cisco IP Phone is disabled. Is there any way i can programmatically call a external phone or mobile number from my PC as my ip phone is connected to my PC. I tried out etQuickDial and Make/Drop calls. But I am not able to find the appropriate way or setup to make calls. I also googled for any libraries and i saw some TAPI but was not able to get correct way. Please help me out with this. My cisco ip phone is 7940. My environment is Windows XP. Please let me know if you need more details. No problems with me even if you propose a solution involving coding or a non coding way of downloading and installing any applications. Thanks in advance. If you dont want me to post it here and If I need to put it in super user or server fault or some where else please direct me appropriately. I did not use any of these two before so I posted this question here.

    Read the article

  • Custom CheckBoxList in ASP.NET

    - by Rick
    Since ASP.NET's CheckBoxList control does not allow itself to be validated with one of the standard validation controls (i.e., RequiredFieldValidator), I would like to create a UserControl that I can use in my project whenever I need a checkbox list that requires one or more boxes to be checked. The standard CheckBoxList can be dragged onto a page, and then you can manually add <asp:ListItem> controls if you want. Is there any way I can create a UserControl that lets me manually (in the markup, not programmatically) insert ListItems from my page in a similar manner? In other words, can I insert a UserControl onto a page, and then from the Designer view of the Page (i.e., not the designer view of the UserControl), can I manually add my ListItems like so: <uc1:RequiredCheckBoxList> <asp:ListItem Text="A" value="B"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="X" value="Y"></asp:ListItem> </uc1:RequiredCheckBoxList> If a UserControl is not the appropriate choice for the end result I'm looking for, I'm open to other suggestions. Please note that I am aware of the CustomValidator control (which is how I plan to validate within my UserControl). It's just a pain to write the same basic code each time I need one of these required checkbox lists, which is why I want to create a re-usable control.

    Read the article

  • Using Word COM objects in .NET, InlineShapes not copied from template to document

    - by Keith
    Using .NET and the Word Interop I am programmatically creating a new Word doc from a template (.dot) file. There are a few ways to do this but I've chosen to use the AttachedTemplate property, as such: Dim oWord As New Word.Application() oWord.Visible = False Dim oDocuments As Word.Documents = oWord.Documents Dim oDoc As Word.Document = oDocuments.Add() oDoc.AttachedTemplate = sTemplatePath oDoc.UpdateStyles() (I'm choosing the AttachedTemplate means of doing this over the Documents.Add() method because of a memory leak issue I discovered when using Documents.Add() to open from templates.) This works fine EXCEPT when there is an image (represented as an InlineShape) in the template footer. In that case the image does not appear in the resulting document. Specifically the image should appear in the oDoc.Sections.Item(1).Footers.Item(WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary).Range.InlineShapes collection but it does not. This is not a problem when using Documents.Add(), however as I said that method is not an option for me. Is there an extra step I have to take to get the images from the template? I already discovered that when using AttachedTemplate I have to explicitly call UpdateStyles() (as you can see in my code snippet) to apply the template styles to the document, whereas that is done automatically when using Documents.Add(). Or maybe there's some crazy workaround? Your help is much appreciated! :)

    Read the article

  • check status application pool iis7 with csharp (access-denied)

    - by jack
    I need to monitor the status of an application in the applications pool of IIS 7 from an other machine on the same domain. My monitoring application must be in C# and running as a Windows service. On my server, I create a user with administration rights and I execute the command aspnet_regiis -ga machine\username wich worked succesfully. My problem is when I try to access the application pool i still get COMExcepttion "Access denied". What did i do wrong or wich step did i miss? I used code from http://patelshailesh.com/index.php/create-a-website-application-pool-programmatically-using-csharp as example. int status = 0; string ipAddress = "10.20.2.13"; string username = "username"; string password = "password"; try { DirectoryEntry de = new DirectoryEntry(string.Format("IIS://{0}/W3SVC/AppPools/MyAppPoolName", ipAddress), username, password); //the exception is thron here. status = (int)de.InvokeGet("AppPoolState"); switch (status) { case 2: //Runnig break; case 4: //Stopped break; default: break; } } catch (Exception ex) { }

    Read the article

  • CKEditor instance in a jQuery dialog

    - by Gazillion
    Hey, I am using jQuery to open a dialog window with a textarea transformed into an instance of CKEditor. I'm using the jQuery adapter provided by the CKEditor team but when the dialog window opens up I cannot interact with the editor (it's created but "null" is written in the content space and I can't click on anything or modify the content). This bug report seems to say that by using a patch provided the issue is fixed but it doesn't seem to be working for me... Here's my code (maybe I did something wrong programmatically): HTML: <div id="ad_div" title="Analyse documentaire"> <textarea id="ad_content" name="ad_content"></textarea> </div> My includes (Everything is included correctly but maybe it's an including order issue?): <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/ckeditor/ckeditor.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="includes/jquery/css/custom-theme/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/jquery/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/jquery/js/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/jquery/plugins/dialog-patch.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/ckeditor/adapters/jquery.js"></script> Javascript: $('#ad_content').ckeditor(); /* snip */ $('#ad_div').dialog( { modal: true, resizable: false, draggable: false, position: ['center','center'], width: 600, height: 500, hide: 'slide', show: 'slide', closeOnEscape: true, autoOpen: false }); $('.analyse_cell').click(function(){ $('#ad_div').dialog('open'); });

    Read the article

  • How to figure out what error my Java Eclipse project has?

    - by Greg Mattes
    I've created a Java project from existing source with an Ant build script in Eclipse. I cannot run my project because Eclipse tells me that there is at least one error in it. Now, I know that the project runs fine on the command line, so I suspect an Eclipse configuration error. As far as I can tell, the only feedback that I have from Eclipse is a little red X on my project in the Package Explorer window and dialog window when I try to run the project says there are errors in the project This is all wonderful, but what is the error? Is there a "show me the next error" button somewhere? In the past, on other Eclipse projects, I've notice other little red X's on folders containing source files with errors, the little red X's appear on the source files as well. I scanned (manually) through all of the source files and I haven't found any other red X's (again, where is the "next error" button?). If I select the "Proceed" button I am greeted with a java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError for my main class, which makes me suspect a classpath issue. I've checked the classpath, and I'm fairly certain that it's correct. Is there a way to see the exact jvm command line that Eclipse is invoking? I realize that it might be invoking the JVM programmatically, and not on a "real" command line. In any case, is there a way, other than the run configuration dialog, to see what is actually happening when I hit the "Proceed" button?

    Read the article

  • Programming Technique: How to create a simple card game

    - by Shyam
    Hi, As I am learning the Ruby language, I am getting closer to actual programming. So I was thinking of creating a simple card game. My question isn't Ruby orientated, but I do know want to learn how to solve this problem with a genuine OOP approach. In my card game I want to have four players. Using a standard deck with 52 cards, no jokers/wildcards. In the game I won't use the Ace as a dual card, it is always the highest card. So, the programming problems I wonder about are the following: How can I sort/randomize the deck of cards? There are four types, each having 13 values. Eventually there can be only unique values, so picking random values could generate duplicates. How can I implement a simple AI? As there are tons of card games, someone would have figured this part out already, so references would be great. I am a truly Ruby nuby, and my goal here is to learn to solve problems, so pseudo code would be great, just to understand how to solve the problem programmatically. I apologize for my grammar and writing style if it's unclear, for it is not my native language. Also pointers to sites where such challenges are explained, would be a great resource! Thank you for your comments, answers and feedback!

    Read the article

  • UIScrollView notifications

    - by ryyst
    Hi, I'm coding an app that works much like Apple's Weather.app: There's a UIPageControl at the bottom and a UIScrollView in the middle of the screen. In my code, I implemented the - (void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)scrollView method to figure out when the user did move to a new page. If they move to a new page, I load the adjacent pages' data, as to make further page-switching faster. (In one of Apple's examples, the - (void)scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)sender is used, but that causes my app to shortly hang when loading a new page, so it's not suitable.) That code works very well. I'm using scrollRectToVisible:: to programmatically scroll inside the scrollview when the user clicks the UIPageControl. The problem is that the scrollRectToVisible: doesn't post a notification to the UIScrollViewDelegate when it's done scrolling - so the code responsible for loading adjacent pages never get's called when using the UIPageControl. Is there any way to make the UIScrollView notify its delegate when it gets called by the scrollRectToVisible: method? Or will I have to use threads in order to prevent my app from freezing? Thanks! -- Ry

    Read the article

  • iPhone:Tabbar hides when pushing from TableView to UIViewController

    - by user187532
    Hello all, I have four Tab bar items in a Tab bar which is being bottom of the view where i have the TableView. I am adding Tab bar and items programmatically (Refer below code) not through I.B. Click on first three Tab bar items, will show the data in the same TableView itself. But clicking on last Tab bar items will push to another UIViewcontroller and show the data there. The problem here is, when i push to the viewController when clicking on last Tab bar item, main "Tab bar" is getting removed. Tab bar code: UITabBar *tabBar = [[UITabBar alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 376, 320, 44)]; item1 = [[UITabBarItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"First Tab" image:[UIImage imageNamed:@"first.png"] tag:0]; item2 = [[UITabBarItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Second Tab" image:[UIImage imageNamed:@"second.png"] tag:1]; item3 = [[UITabBarItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Third Tab" image:[UIImage imageNamed:@"third.png"] tag:2]; item4 = [[UITabBarItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Fourth Tab" image:[UIImage imageNamed:@"fourth.png"] tag:3]; item5 = [[UITabBarItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Fifth Tab" image:[UIImage imageNamed:@"fifth.png"] tag:4]; NSArray *items = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: item1,item2,item3,item4, item5, nil]; [tabBar setItems:items animated:NO]; [tabBar setSelectedItem:item1]; tabBar.delegate=self; [self.view addSubview:tabBar]; Push controller code clicking from last Tab bar item: myViewController = [ [MyViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MyView" bundle:nil]; myViewController.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed=NO; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:myViewController animated:NO]; I am not seeing bottom Tab bar when i push my current TableView to myViewController. I am seeing full screen view there. I want to see bottom Tab bar always when every tab item clicked. What might be the problem here? Could someone who come across this issue, please share your suggestion to me? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Force Oracle error on fetch

    - by Dan
    I am trying to debug a strange behavior in my application. In order to do so, I need to reproduce a scenario where an SQL SELECT query will throw an error, but only while actually fetching from the cursor, not while executing the query itself. Can this be done? Any error will do, but ORA-01722: invalid number seems like the obvious one to try. I created a table with the follwing: KEYCOL INTEGER PRIMARY KEY OTHERCOL VARCHAR2(100) I then created a few hundred rows with unique values for the primary key and the value l for the othercol. I then ran a SELECT * query, picked a row somewhere in the middle, and updated it to the string abcd. I ran the query SELECT KEYCOL, TO_NUMBER(OTHERCOL) FROM SOMETABLE hoping to get some rows of good data an then an error later. But I keep getting ORA-01722: invalid number on the execute step itself. I have gotten this behavior programmatically using ADO (with server-side cursor) and JDBC, as well as from PL/SQL Developer. How can I get the result I'm looking for? thanks Edit - meant to add, when using ADO, I am only calling Command.Execute. I am not creating or opening a Recordset.

    Read the article

  • onComplete for Ajax.Request sometimes does not hide the load animation in Prototype

    - by TenJack
    I have a Ajax.Request in which I use onLoading and onComplete to show and hide a load animation gif. The problem is that every 10 clicks or so, the load animation fails to hide and just stays there animating even though the ajax request has returned successfully. I have a number of div elements that each has its own respective load animation and an onclick with the Ajax.Request that looks like this: <div id="word_block_<%= word_obj.word %>" class="word_block" > <%= image_tag("ajax-loader_word_block.gif", :id => "load_animation_#{word_obj.word}", :style => 'display:none') %> <a href="#" onclick="new Ajax.Request('/test/ajax_load', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onLoading:function() { Element.show('load_animation_<%= word_obj.word %>')}, onComplete:function(){ Element.hide('load_animation_<%= word_obj.word %>')}}); return false;">Click Here</a> </div> Does it look like anything could be wrong with this? Maybe I should try removing the inline onclick and add an onclick programmatically with javascript? I really have no idea why this keeps happening. I am using the prototype library with ruby on rails.

    Read the article

  • IIS7 GrantByDefault

    - by jonot
    I have an application (written in c#) that allow me to set IIS to allow or deny access to a website from all ip addresses. The application works fine for IIS6 however it does not work with IIS 7 (even with IIS 6 WMI Compatibility installed). heres the code (basically) Type typ = this.Entry.Properties[IIsWebDirectoryProperty.IPSecurity][0].GetType(); var securityProp = this.Entry.Properties[IIsWebDirectoryProperty.IPSecurity][0]; typ.InvokeMember("GrantByDefault", BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.SetProperty, null, securityProp, new object[] { IPSecurity.GrantByDefault }); this.Entry.CommitChanges(); I have checked the metabase for both IIS6 and IIS7 using the metabase explorer and the only diffecnce I can see is that the "IPSecurity" property does not appear in IIS7 until you also add a an allow or deny IP address, through IIS Manager. Whats really got me stumped is that even when I edit the feature setting to Deny access in the IIS Manager there is no change to the metabase or to the web.config in the site root! So how/where is this property being set and read from? And how can I set and read value of this property programmatically?

    Read the article

  • Get Mechanize to handle cookies from an arbitrary POST (to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ progra

    - by Horace Loeb
    I want to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ programmatically. My first idea was to use Mechanize to submit the login form: However, it turns out that this isn't even a real form. Instead, when you click "Log in" some javascript grabs the values of the fields, creates a new form dynamically, and submits it. "Log in" button HTML: <button onclick="handleLogin(); return false;" class="btnBlue" id="myTMobile-login"><span>Log in</span></button> The handleLogin() function: function handleLogin() { if (ValidateMsisdnPassword()) { // client-side form validation logic var a = document.createElement("FORM"); a.name = "form1"; a.method = "POST"; a.action = mytmoUrl; // defined elsewhere as https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx var c = document.createElement("INPUT"); c.type = "HIDDEN"; c.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-phone").value; // the value of the phone number input field c.name = "txtMSISDN"; a.appendChild(c); var b = document.createElement("INPUT"); b.type = "HIDDEN"; b.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-password").value; // the value of the password input field b.name = "txtPassword"; a.appendChild(b); document.body.appendChild(a); a.submit(); return true } else { return false } } I could simulate this form submission by POSTing the form data to https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx with Net::HTTP#post_form, but I don't know how to get the resultant cookie into Mechanize so I can continue to scrape the UI available when I'm logged in. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Client unable to authenticate when connecting to WCF service

    - by davecoulter
    I have a WCF service hosted in a Windows service. The application is an intranet app, and I have programmatically set the bindings on both the service and the client as: NetTcpBinding aBinding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.Transport); aBinding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = TcpClientCredentialType.Windows; aBinding.Security.Transport.ProtectionLevel = System.Net.Security.ProtectionLevel.EncryptAndSign; Both the service and client have endpoints configured with SPNs: EndpointAddress = new EndpointAddress(uri, EndpointIdentity.CreateSpnIdentity("Service1")); As far as I know, I have setup the bindings correctly-- and I am usually able to connect to the service just fine. I did however run into a case where on a server running Windows Server 2003 R2, x64, SP2 I get the following exception immediately when the client tries to connect: INNEREXCEPTION -- Exception Message: InvalidCredentialException: Either the target name is incorrect or the server has rejected the client credentials. Stack Trace: at System.Net.Security.NegoState.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult lazyResult) at System.Net.Security.NegotiateStream.AuthenticateAsClient(NetworkCredential credential, String targetName, ProtectionLevel requiredProtectionLevel, TokenImpersonationLevel allowedImpersonationLevel) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.WindowsStreamSecurityUpgradeProvider.WindowsStreamSecurityUpgradeInitiator.OnInitiateUpgrade(Stream stream, SecurityMessageProperty& remoteSecurity) I get the exception when I try to connect to the service from another machine in the domain, but if I connect to the service on the same machine running the service it works fine. The hosting service itself is running as a domain user account-- but I have tried running the service as a Local System and Network Service to no avail. I have checked the Local Security Policies for the server and didn't see anything amiss (i.e. 'Access this computer from the network' includes 'Everyone'). Anyone have an idea of what could resolve this? I am wondering if I need to do something in Active Directory with respect to the service's SPN? I have read some about using setspn.exe to register or refresh SPNs, but I haven't needed to do this before. Why would this be working with other configurations but not the one above?

    Read the article

  • Word 2007 COM - Can't directly access a page when word is set to invisible

    - by Robbie
    I'm using Word 2007 via COM from PHP 5.2 Apache 2.0 on a windows machine. The goal is to programmatically render jpeg thumbnails from each page in a Word document. The following code works correctly if you set $word-Visible to 1: try { $word = new COM('word.application'); $word->Visible = 0; $word->Documents->Open("C:\\test.doc"); echo "Number of pages: " . $word->ActiveDocument->ActiveWindow->ActivePane->Pages->Count() . "</br>"; $i = 1; foreach ($word->ActiveDocument->ActiveWindow->ActivePane->Pages as $page) { echo "Page number: $i </br>"; $i++; } //get the EMF image of the page $data = $word->ActiveDocument->ActiveWindow->ActivePane->Pages->Item(3)->EnhMetaFileBits; $word->ActiveDocument->Close(); $word->Quit(); } catch (Exception $e) { echo "Exception: " .$e->getMessage(); } The test document I'm using contains 35 pages. The code will display the correct number of pages but the for each loop only loops over 1 page. I can only directly access page 1 and 2 in the Pages-Item() collection. If I try to access another page I get the exception: "The requested member of the collection does not exist." If I set the $word-Visible property to 1 I do get all the pages in the foreach loop and I can access any page directly. Everything is working as expected if Word is set to be visible. Even stranger is the fact that if I set Word to be invisible and I don't have the foreach loop I can only access page 1 instead of page 1 and 2 if I do the for each loop. Any pointers on how I can access all the pages in the document and keeping word invisible?

    Read the article

  • Best practices on using URIs as parameter value in REST calls.

    - by dafmetal
    I am designing a REST API where some resources can be filtered through query parameters. In some cases, these filter values would be resources from the same REST API. This makes for longish and pretty unreadable URIs. While this is not too much of a problem in itself because the URIs are meant to be created and manipulated programmatically, it makes for some painful debugging. I was thinking of allowing shortcuts to URIs used as filter values and I wonder if this is allowed according to the REST architecture and if there are any best practices. For example: I have a resource that gets me Java classes. Then the following request would give me all Java classes: GET http://example.org/api/v1/class Suppose I want all subclasses of the Collection Java class, then I would use the following request: GET http://example.org/api/v1/class?has-supertype=http://example.org/api/v1/class/collection That request would return me Vector, ArrayList and all other subclasses of the Collection Java class. That URI is quite long though. I could already shorten it by allowing hs as an alias for has-supertype. This would give me: GET http://example.org/api/v1/class?hs=http://example.org/api/v1/class/collection Another way to allow shorter URIs would be to allow aliases for URI prefixes. For example, I could define class as an alias for the URI prefix http://example.org/api/v1/class/. Which would give me the following possibility: GET http://example.org/api/v1/class?hs=class:collection Another possibility would be to remove the class alias entirely and always prefix the parameter value with http://example.org/api/v1/class/ as this is the only thing I would support. This would turn the request for all subtypes of Collection into: GET http://example.org/api/v1/class?hs=collection Do these "simplifications" of the original request URI still conform to the principles of a REST architecture? Or did I just go off the deep end?

    Read the article

  • adding one time options to items

    - by rap-uvic
    Hello, I'm building an Event Registration site. For any given event, we'll have a handful of items to choose from. I have a table for these items. For each event we might have special options for users. For example, for one of the events new users get to buy an item which is not available to other users. This may not apply to all the events. For other events we might have some other restriction on items. I will obviously be checking this programmatically on application side. I would like to though, set up a column containing flag in the items table. But I don't find it feasible because this condition may only apply to one particular event. I don't want all the future items to have this column. What is a good approach to take in such a situation? Should I create a special "restrictions" table and just do a join? How would I handle this on the application side?

    Read the article

  • Getting DirectoryNotFoundException when trying to Connect to Device with CoreCon API

    - by ageektrapped
    I'm trying to use the CoreCon API in Visual Studio 2008 to programmatically launch device emulators. When I call device.Connect(), I inexplicably get a DirectoryNotFoundException. I get it if I try it in PowerShell or in C# Console Application. Here's the code I'm using: static void Main(string[] args) { DatastoreManager dm = new DatastoreManager(1033); Collection<Platform> platforms = dm.GetPlatforms(); foreach (var p in platforms) { Console.WriteLine("{0} {1}", p.Name, p.Id); } Platform platform = platforms[3]; Console.WriteLine("Selected {0}", platform.Name); Device device = platform.GetDevices()[0]; device.Connect(); Console.WriteLine("Device Connected"); SystemInfo info = device.GetSystemInfo(); Console.WriteLine("System OS Version:{0}.{1}.{2}", info.OSMajor, info.OSMinor, info.OSBuildNo); Console.ReadLine(); } My question: Does anyone know why I'm getting this error? I'm running this on WinXP 32-bit, plain jane Visual Studio 2008 Pro. I imagine it's some config issue since I can't do it from a Console app or PowerShell. Here's the stack trace as requested: System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundException was unhandled Message="The system cannot find the path specified.\r\n" Source="Device Connection Manager" StackTrace: at Microsoft.VisualStudio.DeviceConnectivity.Interop.ConManServerClass.ConnectDevice() at Microsoft.SmartDevice.Connectivity.Device.Connect() at ConsoleApplication1.Program.Main(String[] args) in C:\Documents and Settings\Thomas\Local Settings\Application Data\Temporary Projects\ConsoleApplication1\Program.cs:line 23 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException:

    Read the article

  • Django Template tag, generating template block tag

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Currently a bit stuck, wondering if anyone can assist. I am using django-adminfiles. Which is a near little application. I want to use it to insert images into posts/articles/pages for a site i am building. How django-adminfiles works is it inserts a placeholder i.e <<< ImageFile and this gets rendered using a django template. It also has the feature of inserting custom options i.e (Insert Medium Image) , i figured i would used this to automatically resize images and include it in the post (similar to how WP does it). Django-adminfiles makes use of sorl.thumbnail app to generate thumbnails. So i have tried testing generating thumbnails: The current template that is used to render the inserted image is: {% spaceless %} <img src="{{ upload.upload.url }}" width="{{ upload.width }}" height="{{ upload.height }}" class="{{ options.class }}" class="{{ options.size }}" alt="{% if options.alt %}{{ options.alt }}{% else %}{{ upload.title }}{% endif %}" /> {% endspaceless %} I tried modifying this to: {% load thumbnail %} {% spaceless %} <img src="{% thumbnail upload.upload.url 200x50 %}" width="{{ upload.width }}" height="{{ upload.height }}" class="{{ options.class }}" class="{{ options.size }}" alt="{% if options.alt %}{{ options.alt }}{% else %}{{ upload.title }}{% endif %}" /> {% endspaceless %} I get the error: Exception Value: Caught an exception while rendering: Source file: '/media/uploads/DSC_0014.jpg' does not exist. I figured the thumbnail needs the absolute path so tried putting that in the template, and that works. i.e this works: {% thumbnail '/Users/me/media/uploads/DSC_0014.jpg' 200x50 %} So basically i need to generate the absolute path to the file give the relative path (to web root). You could do this by passing the MEDIA_ROOT setting to the template, but the reason i want to do a template tag is to programmatically set the image size.

    Read the article

  • Subscription website architecture questions + SQL Server & .NET

    - by chopps
    Hey Guys, I have a few questions about the architecture of a subscription service I am about to embark on and I am looking for some feedback on how best to set it up. I won’t have a large amount of customers as Basecamp, maybe a few hundred and was wondering what would be a solid architecture for setting up the customer sites. I’m running SQL Server and .NET on a dedicated machine. Should create a new database for each customer as to have control and isolation of data or keep them all in one database? I am also thinking of creating a sub-domain for each customer as well so modifications can be made to each site as needed. The customer URLs would look like this: https://customer1.foobar.com https://customer2.foobar.com I am going to have the ability to ‘plug-in’ reports that will be uploaded to the site so each customer can customize as needed. Off the top of my head this necessitates having each sub domain on its own code-base for the uploading of these reports. So on the main site the customer would sign up for their new subscription and I would programmatically create a new directory for the customer from the main code base and then create a sub domain pointing to the new directory for the customer and then finally their database. Does this sound about right? Am I on the right track? How do other such sites accomplish the same thing? Thanks for letting me bend your ear for a bit on this.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82  | Next Page >