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  • Delete action on a user management system [migrated]

    - by šljaker
    I'm working on User Management System in ASP.NET MVC3. Administrator/Editor can search, insert, update and delete other users from the system. What should I do when admin/editor clicks on Delete user link? Should I redirect him to new yes/no confirmation page or display some jquery popup window? Should I then redirect him to the home page and display message The user has been successfully deleted from the system, or simple redirection should be just fine?

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  • BlackBerry 10 en images (3/9) : BlackBerry Balance, une session Pro et une session privée hermétiquement séparées

    BlackBerry 10 en images (1/9) : BlackBerry Flow RIM dévoile les nouveautés au compte-goutte et promet de très grosses surprises Deux jours après les annonces officielles du PDG de RIM, la filiale Française nous a conviés à une démonstration pour nous dévoiler « en vrai » quelques nouveautés supplémentaires de son prochain BlackBerry 10. « Son plus gros lancement de tous les temps », selon David Derrida, le responsable produit. Les voici en images au moment où le code est officiellement gelé. BlackBerry Flow C'est la nouvelle manière d'interagir avec l'OS. ...

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  • Unable to get defined path in 'source' type on AIX node

    - by haris
    hi all, I am trying to create a set of users on my AIX node and trying to get their authorized_keys which are already hosted on my server with name like, 'myuser_id_dsa.pub'. Currently i am managing 2 nodes (1. SLES 2. AIX). I defined the 'source' file paths in 2 separate contexts in fileserver.conf; [AIX] path myfiles/users/ssh/ allow *.another.mydomain.com [SLES] path myfiles/users/keys/ssh/ allow *.mydomain.com but when I run puppet then it ended successfully on my SLES node but encountered failure on AIX; with following err; /* Could not describe /AIX/myuser_id_rsa.pub: Fileserver module 'AIX' not mounted*/ in my code i have defined the 'source' with $filserver variable as: case $operatingsystem { "AIX": { $fileserver = "AIX" } default: { $fileserver = "SLES" } } file { "${home}/${username}/.ssh/authorized_keys": source = "puppet:///$fileserver/${username}_is_dsa.pub", ... ... } why AIX is not able to get the source path from my fileserver.conf while SLES is running absolutely fine? and how can I do it? I have to run similar configuration across different servers so I can only deal it with case statement. looking forward for your help Thanks

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  • Virtualmin & git integration

    - by weby3456
    I've installed virtualmin on my VPS to manage my websites. It's working perfect and as expected nearly a year now. Recently I wanted to add some features to one of my sites, and I need git integration. I've correctly installed git & gitweb on my server, and I can create repositories and watch them under http://sub.domain.com/git/gitweb.cgi Here is the current relevant directory tree: /home/user/domains/sub.domain.com/public_html/git/ drwxr-sr-x user user . drwxr-x--- user user .. -rw-r--r-- user user git-favicon.png -rw-r--r-- user user git-logo.png -rwxr-xr-x user user gitweb.cgi -rw-r--r-- user user gitweb.css drwxrwx--- apache user reponame.git /home/user/domains/sub.domain.com/public_html/git/reponame.git/ drwxrwx--- apache user . drwxr-sr-x user user .. drwxrwx--- apache user branches -rwxrwx--- apache user config -rwxrwx--- user user description -rwxrwx--- apache user HEAD drwxrwx--- apache user hooks drwxrwx--- apache user info drwxrwx--- apache user objects drwxrwx--- apache user refs But I have some questions: When I'm visiting http://sub.domain.com/git/gitweb.cgi, the owner is listed as 'Apache'. why? how can I change that? Usually, to create a new git repository, I'll do something like: $ mkdir proj $ cd proj $ git init Initialized empty Git repository in /home/user/proj/.git/ // here I'm creating the files or copy them from somewhere else $ git add *.php $ git add README $ git commit -m 'initial version' But after creating the repository in virtualmin, I can find a new dir named 'reponame.git' but not the '.git' dir. When I'm trying to run any git command (e.g. git status) I'm receiving "fatal: This operation must be run in a work tree". How can I work with that repository? Currently I need to explicitly grant access for users to be able to view the repositories via gitweb. How can I make certain repositories public?

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  • Timeout settings for Remote Desktop Sessions to lock

    - by atroon
    Our office uses a Windows 2003 server to provide access to an accounting application. Recently I was asked to increase the amount of time it takes for the session to lock itself and require the entry of the user's password to resume. That seems to be about ten minutes, at present. I am familiar with group policy and have tweaked those settings to scavenge sessions (and thereby licenses) from sessions that have been disconnected (by the user closing the mstsc.exe client or by a network issue). That's simple and straightforward. But I can't find anything in GP to allow a longer time period before the RDP client window goes black and then, when clicked upon, requires a username and password to resume the session. I must admit this would be nice personally as well, since most of my time is spent documenting the application and/or monitoring its database, so I usually have a window open to the terminal server along with the rest of the staff in the accounting center, but I interact with it very little. I usually enter my password 10-15 times per workday, but I'm pretty good at it by now. ;) So, can this timeout period be adjusted, or are we out of luck?

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  • Where clause on joined table used for user defined key/value pairs

    - by Steve Wright
    Our application allows administrators to add “User Properties” in order for them to be able to tailor the system to match their own HR systems. For example, if your company has departments, you can define “Departments” in the Properties table and then add values that correspond to “Departments” such as “Jewelry”, “Electronics” etc… You are then able to assign a department to users. Here is the schema: In this schema, a User can have only one UserPropertyValue per Property, but doesn’t have to have a value for the property. I am trying to build a query that will be used in SSRS 2005 and also have it use the PropertyValues as the filter for users. My query looks like this: SELECT UserLogin, FirstName, LastName FROM Users U LEFT OUTER JOIN UserPropertyValues UPV ON U.ID = UPV.UserID WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (1, 5) When I run this, if the user has ANY of the property values, they are returned. What I would like to have is where this query will return users that have values BY PROPERTY. So if PropertyValueID = 1 is of Department (Jewelry), and PropertyValueID = 5 is of EmploymentType (Full Time), I want to return all users that are in Department Jewelry that are EmployeeType of Full Time, can this be done? Here's a full data example: User A has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User B has Department(Electronics value = 2) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User C has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmployementType(PartTime value = 6) My query should only return User A using the above query UPDATE: I should state that this query is used as a dataset in SSRS, so the parameter passed to the query will be @PropertyIDs and it is defined as a multi-value parameter in SSRS. WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (@PropertyIDs)

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  • Why does defined(X) not work in a preprocessor definition without a space?

    - by Devin
    A preprocessor definition that includes defined(X) will never evaluate to true, but (defined X) will. This occurs in MSVC9; I have not tested other preprocessors. A simple example: #define FEATURE0 1 #define FEATURE1 0 #define FEATURE2 1 #define FEATURE3 (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined(FEATURE2))) #define FEATURE4 (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined FEATURE2)) #define FEATURE5 (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined (FEATURE2))) #if FEATURE3 #pragma message("FEATURE3 Enabled") #elif (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined(FEATURE2))) #pragma message("FEATURE3 Enabled (Fallback)") #endif #if FEATURE4 #pragma message("FEATURE4 Enabled") #elif (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined FEATURE2)) #pragma message("FEATURE4 Enabled (Fallback)") #endif #if FEATURE5 #pragma message("FEATURE5 Enabled") #elif (FEATURE0 && !FEATURE1 && (defined (FEATURE2))) #pragma message("FEATURE5 Enabled (Fallback)") #endif The output from the compiler is: 1FEATURE3 Enabled (Fallback) 1FEATURE4 Enabled 1FEATURE5 Enabled Working cases: defined (X), defined( X ), and defined X. Broken case: defined(X) Why is defined evaluated differently when part of a definition, as in the #if cases in the example, compared to direct evaluation, as in the #elif cases in the example?

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  • NHibernate, transactions and TransactionScope

    - by Erik
    I'm trying to find the best solution to handle transaction in a web application that uses NHibernate. We use a IHttpModule and at HttpApplication.BeginRequest we open a new session and we bind it to the HttpContext with ManagedWebSessionContext.Bind(context, session); We close and unbind the session on HttpApplication.EndRequest. In our Repository base class, we always wrapped a transaction around our SaveOrUpdate, Delete, Get methods like, according to best practice: public virtual void Save(T entity) { var session = DependencyManager.Resolve<ISession>(); using (var transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.SaveOrUpdate(entity); transaction.Commit(); } } But then this doesn't work, if you need to put a transaction somewhere in e.g. a Application service to include several repository calls to Save, Delete, etc.. So what we tried is to use TransactionScope (I didn't want to write my own transactionmanager). To test that this worked, I use an outer TransactionScope that doesn't call .Complete() to force a rollback: Repository Save(): public virtual void Save(T entity) { using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { var session = Depe.ndencyManager.Resolve<ISession>(); session.SaveOrUpdate(entity); scope.Complete(); } } The block that uses the repository: TestEntity testEntity = new TestEntity { Text = "Test1" }; ITestRepository testRepository = DependencyManager.Resolve<ITestRepository>(); testRepository.Save(testEntity); using (var scope = new TransactionScope()) { TestEntity entityToChange = testRepository.GetById(testEntity.Id); entityToChange.Text = "TestChanged"; testRepository.Save(entityToChange); } TestEntity entityChanged = testRepository.GetById(testEntity.Id); Assert.That(entityChanged.Text, Is.EqualTo("Test1")); This doesn't work. But to me if NHibernate supports TransactionScope it would! What happens is that there is no ROLLBACK at all in the database but when the testRepository.GetById(testEntity.Id); statement is executed a UPDATE with SET Text = "TestCahgned" is fired instead (It should have been fired between BEGIN TRAN and ROLLBACK TRAN). NHibernate reads the value from the level1 cache and fires a UPDATE to the database. Not expected behaviour!? From what I understand whenever a rollback is done in the scope of NHibernate you also need to close and unbind the current session. My question is: Does anyone know of a good way to do this using TransactionScope and ManagedWebSessionContext?

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  • Users in database server or database tables

    - by Batcat
    Hi all, I came across an interesting issue about client server application design. We have this browser based management application where it has many users using the system. So obvisously within that application we have an user management module within it. I have always thought having an user table in the database to keep all the login details was good enough. However, a senior developer said user management should be done in the database server layer if not then is poorly designed. What he meant was, if a user wants to use the application then a user should be created in the user table AND in the database server as a user account as well. So if I have 50 users using my applications, then I should have 50 database server user logins. I personally think having just one user account in the database server for this database was enough. Just grant this user with the allowed privileges to operate all the necessary operation need by the application. The users that are interacting with the application should have their user accounts created and managed within the database table as they are more related to the application layer. I don't see and agree there is need to create a database server user account for every user created for the application in the user table. A single database server user should be enough to handle all the query sent by the application. Really hope to hear some suggestions / opinions and whether I'm missing something? performance or security issues? Thank you very much.

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  • Verify my form workflow

    - by Shackrock
    I have a form, with some sensitive info (CC numbers). My work flow is: One page to take all form items Upon submission, values are validated. If all is well, all data is stored in a session variable, and the page reloads and displays this info from the session variable. If everything is ok on the review page, the user clicks submit and the session variable is sent to another form for processing (sending payment). Upon success, the session is destroyed. Upon failure (bad CC number, for example) - the user is sent back to the form, with all of the fields filled in just like before, so that they can check for errors and try again (session is NOT destroyed). Does anyone see anything wrong with this, from a security or best practices stand point? UPDATE I'm thinking I can get rid of a step - storing the info in a session EVER. Just have a one page checkout, no review page... makes sense.

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  • Session management with OpenID, in ASP.NET

    - by Andreas Grech
    I am currently playing with DotNetOpenAuth to make an ASP.NET (C#) website use OpenID instead of the normal login-password routine for user and session handling. Up till now, I have added the DotNetOpenAuth.dll into my project and tried a test login page with the following: <rp:OpenIdLogin ID="OpenIdLogin1" runat="server" /> When I run the page, I enter a valid myopenid url and the website redirects to the myopenid page, where I enter my password, and upon success, it returns back to my default.aspx, due to the following in my web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms defaultUrl="/Default.aspx" loginUrl="~/Login.aspx"/> </authentication> Now that the user is "logged in", how can handle my session? At the moment, I don't know how I can, for example, check if the session is still alive or how to terminate the session. My basic question is, how can I manage the session once the user is authenticated with OpenID ?

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  • What is a typical scenario for and end-user reports design?

    - by Sebastian
    Hello! I'm wondering what would be the typical scenario for using an end-user report designer. What I'm thinking of is to have a base report with all the columns that I can have, also with a basic view of the report (formatting, order of columns, etc.) and then let the user to change that format and order, take out or add (from the available columns) data to it, etc. Is that a common way to address what is called end-user designer for reports or I'm off track? I know it depends on the user (if it's someone that can handle SQL or not for example), but is it common to have a scenario where the user can build everthing from the sql query to the formatting? Thanks! Sebastian

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  • Lazy loading in Hibernate

    - by Steve
    My Java Web application uses Hibernate to perform ORM. In some of my objects, I use lazy loading to avoid getting data until I absolutely need it. The problem is that I load the initial object in a session, and then that session is destroyed. When I later attempt to resolve the lazy-loaded collections in my object I get the following error: org.hibernate.LazyInitializationException: failed to lazily initialize a collection of role: common.model.impl.User.groups, no session or session was closed I tried associating a new session with the collection and then resolving, but this gives the same results. Does anyone know how I can resolve the lazy collections once the original session is gone? Thanks... --Steve

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  • Wrong sessionID being used in callback, but only on one particular computer

    - by user210119
    I am writing a Python/Django web application that uses OAuth (for the TwitterAPI, not that it should matter). I am storing a session ID in my login function, and then after using OAuth to get the user's token, I try to retrieve the sessionID in my callback function. The callback function then always fails(throws an exception) because it can't find the OAuth token in the session. Through the debugger, I am able to determine that the session ID that the server is using is incorrect - it does not match the session ID that was stored in the login function. It's therefore unsurprising that the Oauth tokens were not there. The session that appears in the callback was the same one each time (until I tried deleting it - see "things I've tried below"), and it started out as an old session, with some data in it that is from a different django app running on the same server that I hadn't touched in a couple weeks. Here's the kicker: everything I described is an issue only on our production server, and only when connecting to it from my computer. Let me clarify: this only happens with my particular laptop. I can connect to the app just fine from someone else's computer. Other people cannot connect with their accounts on my computer. Furthmore, I can connect just fine to the app when it is running on my localhost using the built-in django webserver, just not to the production server. My setup: my server and local box are running= Django 1.2.0 and Python 2.6.5. My local box is running Snow Leopard and the Django webserver, the server is running Ubuntu, Apache2, and mod-wsgi. For sessions, I am using Django's default session backend (DB). Things I have tried, all to no avail: logging in with a different account, including new accounts that have never OAuthed to this app before Clearing cookies, using incognito mode, using a different web browser on my same computer. Each time, upon inspecting my cookies, the sessionID matched the sessionID in the login function and was different from the sessionID in the callback. deleting the session in the database that appears in the callback function, (the one that appeared to be old data). The callback function still fails, and the sessionID it appears to be using is now a new one using a different session backend (DB-cache, flat file, etc...) restarting the server, my computer, etc. My first question on StackOverflow, so bear with me if I didn't quite follow local conventions. I am just at a loss as to what to even look for - what are the things that could possibly be causing sessions to not work on my particular computer, and (so far!) only my particular computer?

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  • How do I save user specific data in an asp.net site?

    - by Greg McNulty
    I just set up user profiles using asp.net 3.5 using wvd. For each user I would like to store data that they will be updating every day. For example, every time they go for a run they will update time and distance. I intend to allow them to also look up their history of distance and time from any past date. My question is, what does the database schema usually look like for such a set up? Currently asp.net set up a db for me when I made user profiles. Do I just add an extra table for every user? Should there be one big table with all users data? How do I relate a user I'd to their specific data? Etc.... I have never done this before so any ideas on how this is usually done would be very helpful. Thank you.

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  • can not login to windows

    - by LoRdiE
    Dear, When i login to windows using domain user account, it take a min show welcome and then automatically logoff. I think user profile error, so login with the administrator account and create new local account. When i login using the local user account, it happened the same as domain user account. Only Administrator Level can login to windows. Any know how can i fix this case? Thanks

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  • Using a JMS Session from different threads

    - by Evan
    From the javadoc for Session it states: A Session object is a single-threaded context for producing and consuming messages. So I understand that you shouldn't use a Session object from two different threads at the same time. What I'm unclear on is if you could use the Session object (or children such as a Queue) from a different thread than the one it created. In the case I'm working on, I'm considering putting my Session objects into a pool of available sessions that any thread could borrow from, use, and return to the pool when it is finished with it. Is this kosher? (Using ActiveMQ BTW, if that impacts the answer at all.)

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  • tomcat 6 - Cluster / BackupManager

    - by Kevin
    Hi, I have a question regarding Clustering (session replication/failover) in tomcat 6 using BackupManager. Reason I chose BackupManager, is because it replicates the session to only one other server. I am going to run through the example below to try and explain my question. I have 6 nodes setup in a tomcat 6 cluster with BackupManager. The front end is one Apache server using mod_jk with sticky session enabled Each node has 1 session each. node1 has a session from client1 node2 has a session from client2 .. .. Now lets say node1 goes down ; assuming node2 is the backup, node2 now has two sessions (for client2 and client1) The next time client1 makes a request, what exactly happens ? Does Apache "know" that node1 is down and does it send the request directly to node2 ? =OR= does it try each of the 6 instances and find out the hard way who the backup is ?

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  • Django: accessing session variables from within a template?

    - by AP257
    Hi all If I set a session variable in Django, like: request.session["name"] = "name" Is there a way I can access it from within a template, or do I have to retrieve it from within a view, and then pass it to a template? Asking because I have around 10 little session variables that I'd like to access within a template, and passing all 10 from the view to the template could get a bit messy. (I have to use session variables because it's a HttpResponseRedirect, but storing the variables in a database is overkill for my purposes.) So - any way to grab session variables directly within a template?

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  • UI suggestions on how to display suggested tags for a given text to a user?

    - by Danny
    I am writing a web-app that uses a tagging system to organize the user's submitted reports. Part of it uses ajax to get suggestions for tags to present to the user based on the content of their report. I am looking for suggestions on how to present this information for the user. I'm not quite certain what a friendly way to do this would be. Edit: Well, most of the responses here seem to be focused on the user typing in keywords. The idea I'm trying to define here is more towards presenting the user a set of suggested keywords that they may accept or decline without having to type a tag in manually. (That option is of course still available to them) --------------------------- # say they can checkoff or select tags they like. | o[tag2] x[foo] o[moo] | | x[tag1] o[bar] | ---------------------------

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  • Issue using Session in MVC Actions with [authorice]

    - by Pablo Gonzalez
    Hi all, first of all sorry for my poor English! When I use the [Authorice` attribute i can't get Session data that i stored before. For example: public ViewResult Index() { // do some stuffs Session["Test"] = "Hi stackoverflow!"; } And then i try to get it in another action, but with the [Authorize] attibute [Authorize] public ViewResult Test() { // do some stuffs if(Session["Test"] == null) { //do some stuffs } } Session["Test"] is always null, but if i remove the attribute it's work, may anyone help me?, thanks a lot!!! P.S: I instance Session["Test"] in Session_Start

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  • Updating a session variable on a page that uses enablesessionstate=readonly attribute doesn't fail f

    - by chandmk
    Asp.Net allows you you set the session state to readonly at individual page level or in the web.config for all pages. But it doesn't prevent you from creating a brand new session variable on that page or modify an existing session variable. But when you try to use that session variable it is either not available or its value is not modified. Why wouldn't the asp.net framework throw a run time error, if not compile time error, when a write attempt is made to a session on the pages where that is not allowed?

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