Search Results

Search found 21301 results on 853 pages for 'duplicate values'.

Page 750/853 | < Previous Page | 746 747 748 749 750 751 752 753 754 755 756 757  | Next Page >

• Passing models between controllers in MVC4

  - by wtfsven

  I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

  Read the article

• Show only div of the product hovering in category grid with jQuery

  - by Dane

  On Magento, I'm trying to get avalable attributes per product in a new div (show/ hide onmouseover) as soon as I hover a product. Unfortunately, my jQuery code opens every div with the same name. I think, I need to do it with jQuery(this) but I tried it in a 1000 different ways, and it won't work. Maybe, somebody here can help me with a better code. jQuery(function() { jQuery('.slideDiv').hide().data('over', false); jQuery('#hover').hover(function() { jQuery('.slideDiv').fadeIn(); }, function() { // Check if mouse did not go over .dialog before hiding it again var timeOut = setTimeout(function() { if (!jQuery('.slideDiv').data('over')) { jQuery('.slideDiv').fadeOut(); clearTimeout(timeOut); } }, 100); }); // Set data for filtering on mouse events for #hover-here jQuery('.slideDiv').hover(function() { jQuery(this).data('over', true); }, function() { jQuery(this).fadeOut().data('over', false); }); }); The PHP just prints the attributes needed. <a href="#" id="hover">Custom Attributes</a> <div class="slideDiv"> <?php $attrs = $_product->getTypeInstance(true)->getConfigurableAttributesAsArray($_product); foreach($attrs as $attr) { if(0 == strcmp("shoe_size", $attr['attribute_code'])) { $options = $attr['values']; print "Größen:<br />"; foreach($options as $option) { print "{$option['store_label']}<br />"; } } } ?> </div> I added the script to [new link] http://jsfiddle.net/xsxfr/47/ so you can see there, that it is not working like this right now :(.

  Read the article

• Refer to a Spark view component in code

  - by David

  I'm building a mobile AIR app using Flash Builder 4.5. The initial view in my views package is TestHomeView.mxml. I want to refer to it in one of my .as classes elsewhere in the app, and I'm not sure how to do that. Theoretically I should be able to add an "id" attribute to TestHomeView.mxml, but FB gives me an error: "id is not allowed on the root tag of a component". The root tag is s:view. The reason I need to do this is that within another class I make various calculations and then need to pass an array of values to a component in my view class. So in SomeOtherActionScriptClass.as I first assemble the array, myArray, and then in that class I want to do this: myViewComponent.viewArray = myArray; If I'm going to do that, I also need to import the view class into the .as class, which strikes me as weird. So is there a simple way to do what I want, or do I have to dispatch a custom event which contains the array, and listen for it in the view class? Thanks.

  Read the article

• comparing value with array value problem Javascript

  - by Java starter

  This code is what I use now, it dos not work when I trie to use an array to compate values. If anybody has any idea of why, please respond. <html> <head> <script type-'text/javascript'> function hovedFunksjon() { //alert("test av funksjon fungerte"); //alert(passordLager); window.open("index10.html","Window1","menubar=no,width=430,height=360,toolbar=no"); } function inArray(array, value) { for (var i = 0; i < array.length; i++) { if (array[i] == value) return true; } return false; } function spørOmPassord() { var passordLager = ["pass0","pass1","pass2"]; window.passordInput = prompt("password");//Ved å bruke "window." skaper man en global variabel //if (passordInput == passordLager[0] || passordLager[1] || passordLager[2]) if (inArray(passordLager,passorInput) ) { hovedFunksjon(); } else { alert("Feil passord"); //href="javascript:self.close()">close window } } function changeBackgroundColor() { //document.bgColor="#CC9900"; //document.bgColor="YELLOW" document.bgColor="BLACK" } </script> </head> <body> <script type-'text/javascript'> changeBackgroundColor(); </script> <div align="center"> <form> <input type = "button" value = "Logg inn" onclick="spørOmPassord()"> </form> </div> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• Can I have two names for the same variable?

  - by Roman

  The short version of the question: I do: x = y. Then I change x, and y is unchanged. What I want is to "bind" x and y in such a way that I change y whenever I change x. The extended version (with some details): I wrote a class ("first" class) which generates objects of another class ("second" class). In more details, every object of the second class has a name as a unique identifier. I call a static method of the first class with a name of the object from the second class. The first class checks if such an object was already generated (if it is present in the static HashMap of the first class). If it is already there, it is returned. If it is not yet there, it is created, added to the HashMap and returned. And then I have the following problem. At some stage of my program, I take an object with a specific name from the HashMap of the first class. I do something with this object (for example change values of some fields). But the object in the HashMap does not see these changes! So, in fact, I do not "take" an object from the HashMap, I "create a copy" of this object and this is what I would like to avoid.

  Read the article

• SharePoint Lists.asmx's UpdateListItems() returns too much data

  - by Philipp Schmid

  Is there a way to prevent the UpdateListItems() web service call in SharePoint's Lists.asmx endpoint from returning all of the fields of the newly created or updated list item? In our case an event handler attached to our custom list is adding some rather large field values which are turned to the client unnecessarily. Is there a way to tell it to only return the ID of the newly created (or updated) list item? For example, currently the web service returns something like this: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" ows_Title="Title" ows_Modified="2003-06-19 20:31:21" ows_Created="2003-06-18 10:15:58" ows_Author="3;#User1_Display_Name" ows_Editor="7;#User2_Display_Name" ows_owshiddenversion="3" ows_Attachments="-1" ows__ModerationStatus="0" ows_LinkTitleNoMenu="Title" ows_LinkTitle="Title" ows_SelectTitle="4" ows_Order="400.000000000000" ows_GUID="{4962F024-BBA5-4A0B-9EC1-641B731ABFED}" ows_DateColumn="2003-09-04 00:00:00" ows_NumberColumn="791.00000000000000" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" /> </Result> ... </Results> where as I am looking for a trimmed response only containing for example the ows_ID attribute: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" /> </Result> ... </Results> I have unsuccessfully looked for a resource that documents all of the valid attributes for both the <Batch> and <Method> tags in he updates XmlNode parameter of UpdateListItems() in the hope that I will find a way to specify the fields to return. A solution for WSS 3.0 would be preferable over an SP 2010-only solution.

  Read the article

• Calling a WPF Appliaction and modify exposed properties?

  - by Justin

  I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the appliaction (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the appliaction. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is thier a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Appliaction Dim e_key as new WpfAppliaction("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style appliaction. ''work with events and resposne 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my key_board and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

  Read the article

• Best way to update/insert into a table based on a remote table.

  - by martilyo

  I have two very large enterprise tables in an Oracle 10g database. One table keeps the historical information of the other table. The problem is, I'm getting to the point where the records are just too many that my insert update is taking too long and my session is getting killed by the governor. Here's a pseudocode of my update process: sqlsel := 'SELECT col1, col2, col3, sysdate FROM table2@remote_location dpi WHERE (col1, col2, col3) IN ( SELECT col1, col2, col3 FROM table2@remote_location MINUS SELECT DISTINCT col1, col2, col3 FROM table1 mpc WHERE facility = '''||load_facility||''' )'; EXECUTE IMMEDIATE sqlsel BULK COLLECT INTO table1; I've tried the MERGE statement: MERGE INTO table1 t1 USING ( SELECT col1, col2, col3 FROM table2@remote_location ) t2 ON ( t1.col1 = t2.col1 AND t1.col2 = t2.col2 AND t1.col3 = t2.col3 ) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT (t1.col1, t1.col2, t1.col3, t1.update_dttm ) VALUES (t2.col1, t2.col2, t2.col3, sysdate ) But there seems to be a confirmed bug on versions prior to Oracle 10.2.0.4 on the merge statement when doing a merge using a remote database. The chance of getting an enterprise upgrade is slim so is there a way to further optimize my first query or write it in another way to have it run best performance wise? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Error : Number of Rows In Section in UITableView in iPhone SDK

  - by Meghan

  I am getting this error while I am trying to load the data into my table view. Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (73) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (71), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (3 inserted, 0 deleted). What could be wrong? Thanks EDIT : I am initializing the array on ViewWillAppear and adding new objects to the same array on Tableview's didSelectRowAtIndexPath method Here is the code On viewWillAppear : cellTextArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [cellTextArray addObjectsFromArray:newPosts]; Here is the code which modifies the array on didSelectRowAtIndexPath : [cellTextArray addObjectsFromArray:newPosts]; NSMutableArray *insertIndexPaths = [NSMutableArray array]; for (NSUInteger item = count; item < count + newCount; item++) { [insertIndexPaths addObject:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:item inSection:0]]; } [self.table beginUpdates]; [self.table insertRowsAtIndexPaths:insertIndexPaths withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; [self.table endUpdates]; [self.table scrollToRowAtIndexPath:indexPath atScrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionNone animated:YES]; NSIndexPath *selected = [self.table indexPathForSelectedRow]; if (selected) { [self.table deselectRowAtIndexPath:selected animated:YES]; } Here newPosts is an array which has the values that are added to cellTextArray on didSelectRowAtIndexPath method and viewWillAppear method.

  Read the article

• Haskell: Dealing With Types And Exceptions

  - by Douglas Brunner

  I'd like to know the "Haskell way" to catch and handle exceptions. As shown below, I understand the basic syntax, but I'm not sure how to deal with the type system in this situation. The below code attempts to return the value of the requested environment variable. Obviously if that variable isn't there I want to catch the exception and return Nothing. getEnvVar x = do { var <- getEnv x; Just var; } `catch` \ex -> do { Nothing } Here is the error: Couldn't match expected type `IO a' against inferred type `Maybe String' In the expression: Just var In the first argument of `catch', namely `do { var <- getEnv x; Just var }' In the expression: do { var <- getEnv x; Just var } `catch` \ ex -> do { Nothing } I could return string values: getRequestURI x = do { requestURI <- getEnv x; return requestURI; } `catch` \ex -> do { return "" } however, this doesn't feel like the Haskell way. What is the Haskell way?

  Read the article

• Inline form editing on client side

  - by bykasif

  I see some web sites use dynamic forms(I am not sure about how to call them!) to edit a group of data. For example: there is a group of data such as name, last name, city, country.etc. when user clicks on EDIT button, instead of doing postback, a form, consisisting of 2 textboxes + 2 comboboxes, dynamically opens to edit,And then when you click on Save button, edit form disappears, and all data updates.. Now, I know what happens over here is using Ajax for server calls and some javascript for dom manipulation.. I even found some jquery plugins for textbox editing.. However, I could not found anything for full implementation of form fields. Therefore I have implemented it on asp.net by jquery ajax calls and dom manipulation manually. here is my process: 1) when Edit button clicked: Make a ajax call to server to retrieve necessary formedit.aspx 2) it returns editable form fields with values assigned. 3) when Save button clicked: make ajax call to server to retrieve formupdateprocess.aspx page. it basically do the database updates and then return necessary DOM snipplet (...) to insert current page.. well it works but MY PROBLEM, is performance.. Result seems slower than samples I see in other sites.:(( IS there anything that I dont know? a better way to implement this??

  Read the article

• JavaScript, jQuery, XML - if statement not executing for unknown reason

  - by Jack Roscoe

  Hi, I have a 'for' loop which extracts data from an XML document and adds it into some JavaScript objects, each time the loop executes I want it to run a certain function depending on the value of the attribute 'typ' which is being retrieved from the xml. Currently, the data from the XML is successfully being parsed, which is proven by the first 'alert' you can see which produces the correct value. However, neither of the 'alert' lines in the 'if' statement lower down are being executed and as a result I cannot test the 'ctyp3' function which is supposed to be called. Where have I gone wrong? for (j=0; j<arrayIds.length; j++) { $(xml).find("C[ID='" + arrayIds[j] + "']").each(function(){ // pass values questions[j] = { typ: $(this).attr('typ'), width: $(this).find("I").attr('wid'), height: $(this).find("I").attr('hei'), x: $(this).find("I").attr('x'), y: $(this).find("I").attr('x'), baC: $(this).find("I").attr('baC'), boC: $(this).find("I").attr('boC'), boW: $(this).find("I").attr('boW') } alert($(this).attr('typ')); if ($(this).attr('typ') == '3') { ctyp3(x,y,width,height,baC); alert('pass'); } else { // Add here alert('fail'); } }); }

  Read the article

• Getting Response From Jquery JSON

  - by Howdy_McGee

  I'm having trouble getting a response from my php jquery / json / ajax. I keep combining all these different tutorials together but I still can't seem to pull it all together since no one tutorial follow what I'm trying to do. Right now I'm trying to pass two arrays (since there's no easy way to pass associative arrays) to my jquery ajax function and just alert it out. Here's my code: PHP $names = array('john doe', 'jane doe'); $ids = array('123', '223'); $data['names'] = $names; $data['ids'] = $ids; echo json_encode($data); Jquery function getList(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'test.php', data: "", complete: function(data){ var test = jQuery.parseJSON(data); alert(test.names[0]); alert("here"); } }, "json"); } getList(); In my html file all I'm really calling is my javascript file for debugging purposes. I know i'm returning an object but I'm getting an error with null values in my names section, and i'm not sure why. What am I missing? My PHP file returns {"names":["john doe","jane doe"],"ids":["123","223"]} It seems to be just ending here Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property '0' of undefined so my sub0 is killing me.

  Read the article

• PHP Mailer Class - Securing Email Credentials

  - by Alan A

  I am using the php mailer class to send email via my scripts. The structure is as follows: $mail = new PHPMailer; $mail->IsSMTP(); // Set mailer to use SMTP $mail->Host = 'myserver.com'; // Specify main and backup server $mail->SMTPAuth = true; // Enable SMTP authentication $mail->Username = '[email protected]'; // SMTP username $mail->Password = 'user123'; // SMTP password $mail->SMTPSecure = 'pass123'; It seems to me to be a bit of a security hole having the mailbox credentials in plain view. So I thought I might put these in an external file outside of the web root. My question is how would I then assign the $mail object these values. I of course no how to use include and/or requires... would it simple be a case of.... $mail->IsSMTP(); // Set mailer to use SMTP $mail->Host = 'myserver.com'; // Specify main and backup server $mail->SMTPAuth = true; // Enable SMTP authentication includes '../locationOutsideWebroot/emailCredntials.php'; $mail->SMTPSecure = 'pass123'; Then emailCredentails.php: <?php $mail->Username = '[email protected]'; $mail->Password = 'user123'; ?> Would this be sufficient and secure enough? Thanks, Alan.

  Read the article

• object not getting released in iphone

  - by Jaimin

  i m writing this code in my code to store the data in database.. Search *objSearchDetail = [[Search alloc] init]; objSearchDetail = [xmlResponseDetail objectAtIndex:i]; sql = "INSERT INTO tblsearchdetail(tblrecentsearch_id,name,address,email,url,street,postcode,city,telephone,mobile) VALUES(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)"; returnValue = sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sql, -1, &insertStatement, NULL); if(returnValue == SQLITE_OK){ sqlite3_bind_int(insertStatement, 1, intLastRecentSearchId); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 2, [objSearchDetail.strName UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 3, [objSearchDetail.strAddress UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 4, [objSearchDetail.strEmail UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 5, [objSearchDetail.strUrl UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 6, [objSearchDetail.strStreet UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 7, [objSearchDetail.strPostCode UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 8, [objSearchDetail.strPlace UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 9, [objSearchDetail.strTelephone UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(insertStatement, 10, [objSearchDetail.strMobile UTF8String], -1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); if(sqlite3_step(insertStatement)==SQLITE_DONE) { //Data; } } NSLog(@"count %d",[objSearchDetail retainCount]); [objSearchDetail release]; now the nslog shows refrence count as 2 so even if i release the refrence count will still be one and the object will not be destroyed.. plz help me....

  Read the article

• SQL left join with multiple rows into one row

  - by beardedd

  Basically, I have two tables, Table A contains the actual items that I care to get out, and Table B is used for language translations. So, for example, Table A contains the actual content. Anytime text is used within the table, instead of storing actual varchar values, ids are stored that relate back to text stored in Table B. This allows me to by adding a languageID column to Table B, have multiple translations for the same row in the database. Example: Table A Title (int) Description (int) Other Data.... Table B TextID (int) - This is the column whose value is stored in other tables LanguageID (int) Text (varchar) My question is more a call for suggestions on how to best handle this. Ideally I want a query that I can use to select from the table, and get the text as opposed to the ids of the text out of the table. Currently when I have two text items in the table this is what I do: SELECT C.ID, C.Title, D.Text AS Description FROM (SELECT A.ID, A.Description, B.Text AS Title FROM TableA A, TranslationsTable B WHERE A.Title = B.TextID AND B.LanguaugeID = 1) C LEFT JOIN TranslationsTable D ON C.Description = D.TextID AND D.LanguaugeID = 1 This query gives me the row from Table A I am looking for (using where statements in the inner select statement) with the actual text based on the language ID used instead of the text ids. This works fine when I am only using one or two text items that need to be translated, but adding a third item or more, it starts to get really messy - essentially another left join on top of the example. Any suggestions on a better query, or at least a good way to handle 3 or more text items in a single row?

  Read the article

• JQuery: How to apply css to a .wrap element?

  - by Eamonn

  My code thus far: $(".lorem img:not(.full-img)").each(function() { $(this).addClass("inline-img"); var imgWidth = $(this).prop('width'); var imgHeight = $(this).prop('height'); var imgFloat = $(this).prop('float'); $(this).wrap('<div class="inline-img-wrap" />'); if ($(this).prop("title")!='') { $('<p class="inline-img-caption">').text($(this).prop('title')).insertAfter($(this)); } }); I am searching for images within a body of text, appending their title values as captions underneath, and wrapping both img and p in a div.inline-img-wrap. That works fine. What I need help with is applying the styling of the img to the new wrapping div instead. You can see I have created vars for just this, but cannot get applying them to work. $this will always apply to the image, and <div class="inline-img-wrap" style="width:'+imgWidth+'"> doesn't work. All advice appreciated!

  Read the article

• password-check directive in angularjs

  - by mpm

  I'm writing a password verify directive : Directives.directive("passwordVerify",function(){ return { require:"ngModel", link: function(scope,element,attrs,ctrl){ ctrl.$parsers.unshift(function(viewValue){ var origin = scope.$eval(attrs["passwordVerify"]); if(origin!==viewValue){ ctrl.$setValidity("passwordVerify",false); return undefined; }else{ ctrl.$setValidity("passwordVerify",true); return viewValue; } }); } }; }); html : <input data-ng-model='user.password' type="password" name='password' placeholder='password' required> <input data-ng-model='user.password_verify' type="password" name='confirm_password' placeholder='confirm password' required data-password-verify="user.password"> Given 2 password fields in a form, if both password values are equal then the field affected by the directive is valid. The issue is that it works one way (i.e. when I type a password in the password-verify field). However, when the original password field is updated, the password-verify doesn't become valid. Any idea how I could have a "two way binding verify?"

  Read the article

• Utilizing a Queue

  - by Nathan

  I'm trying to store records of transactions all together and by category for the last 1, 7, 30 or 360 days. I've tried a couple things, but they've brutally failed. I had an idea of using a queue with 360 values, one for each day, but I don't know enough about queue's to figure out how that would work. Input will be an instance of this class: class Transaction { public string TotalEarned { get; set; } public string TotalHST { get; set; } public string TotalCost { get; set; } public string Category { get; set; } } New transactions can occur at any time during the day, and there could be as many as 15 transactions in a day. My program is using a plain text file as external storage, but how I load it depends on how I decide to store this data. What would be the best way to do this?

  Read the article

• Constructor issue

  - by laura

  This is the code that I worked on and I don't understand what it's happening on constructor Package obj2(); On output are displayed only the values 4 (Package obj1(4)) and 2 (Package obj3(2)) #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Package { private: int value; public: Package() { cout<<"constructor #1"<<endl; value = 7; cout << value << endl; } Package(int v) { cout<<"constructor #2"<<endl; value = v; cout << value << endl; } ~Package() { cout<<"destructor"<<endl; cout << value << endl; } }; int main() { Package obj1(4); Package obj2(); Package obj3(2); }

  Read the article

• Passing the form scope to a Remote cfc

  - by cf_PhillipSenn

  What is the syntax for passing the form scope into a cfc with access="remote"? I have: <cfcomponent> <cfset Variables.Datasource = "xxx"> <cffunction name="Save" access="remote"> <cfset var local = {}> <!--- todo: try/catch ---> <cfif arguments.PersonID> <cfquery datasource="#Variables.Datasource#"> UPDATE Person SET FirstName = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.FirstName#"> ,LastName = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.LastName#"> WHERE PersonID = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_integer" value="#arguments.PersonID#"> </cfquery> <cfset local.result = arguments.PersonID> <cfelse> <cfquery name="local.qry" datasource="#Variables.Datasource#"> INSERT INTO Person(FirstName,LastName) VALUES( <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.FirstName#"> ,<cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.LastName#"> ); SELECT PersonID FROM Person WHERE PersonID=Scope_Identity() </cfquery> <cfset local.result = local.qry.PersonID> </cfif> <cfreturn local.result> </cffunction> </cfcomponent> I need to pass in form.PersonID, form.firstname, form.lastname.

  Read the article

• Split UInt32 (audio frame) into two SInt16s (left and right)?

  - by morgancodes

  Total noob to anything lower-level than Java, diving into iPhone audio, and realing from all of the casting/pointers/raw memory access. I'm working with some example code wich reads a WAV file from disc and returns stereo samples as single UInt32 values. If I understand correctly, this is just a convenient way to return the 32 bits of memory required to create two 16 bit samples. Eventually this data gets written to a buffer, and an audio unit picks it up down the road. Even though the data is written in UInt32-sized chunks, it eventually is interpreted as pairs of 16-bit samples. What I need help with is splitting these UInt32 frames into left and right samples. I'm assuming I'll want to convert each UInt32 into an SInt16, since an audio sample is a signed value. It seems to me that for efficiency's sake, I ought to be able to simply point to the same blocks in memory, and avoid any copying. So, in pseudo-code, it would be something like this: UInt32 myStereoFrame = getFramefromFilePlayer; SInt16* leftChannel = getFirst16Bits(myStereoFrame); SInt16* rightChannel = getSecond16Bits(myStereoFrame); Can anyone help me turn my pseudo into real code?

  Read the article

• Flex Tree Properties, Null Reference?

  - by mvrak

  I am pulling down a large XML file and I have no control over it's structure. I used a custom function to use the tag name to view the tree structure as a flex tree, but then it breaks. I am guessing it has something to do with my other function, one that calls attribute values from the selected node. See code. <mx:Tree x="254" y="21" width="498" height="579" id="xmllisttree" labelFunction="namer" dataProvider="{treeData}" showRoot="false" change="treeChanged(event)" /> //and the Cdata import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; [Bindable] private var fullXML:XMLList; private function contentHandler(evt:ResultEvent):void{ fullXML = evt.result.page; } [Bindable] public var selectedNode:Object; public function treeChanged(event:Event):void { selectedNode=Tree(event.target).selectedItem; } public function namer(item:Object):String { var node:XML = XML(item); var nodeName:QName = node.name(); var stringtest:String ="bunny"; return nodeName.localName; } The error is TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. Where is the null reference?

  Read the article

• Merging ILists to bind on datagridview to avoid using a database view

  - by P.Bjorklund

  In the form we have this where IntaktsBudgetsType is a poorly named enum that only specifies wether to populate the datagridview after customer or product (You do the budgeting either after product or customer) private void UpdateGridView() { bs = new BindingSource(); bs.DataSource = intaktsbudget.GetDataSource(this.comboBoxKundID.Text, IntaktsBudgetsType.PerKund); dataGridViewIntaktPerKund.DataSource = bs; } This populates the datagridview with a database view that merge the product, budget and customer tables. The logic has the following method to get the correct set of IList from the repository which only does GetTable<T>.ToList<T> public IEnumerable<IntaktsBudgetView> GetDataSource(string id, IntaktsBudgetsType type) { IList<IntaktsBudgetView> list = repository.SelectTable<IntaktsBudgetView>(); switch (type) { case IntaktsBudgetsType.PerKund: return from i in list where i.kundId == id select i; case IntaktsBudgetsType.PerProdukt: return from i in list where i.produktId == id select i; } return null; } Now I don't want to use a database view since that is read-only and I want to be able to perform CRUD actions on the datagridview. I could build a class that acts as a wrapper for the whole thing and bind the different table values to class properties but that doesn't seem quite right since I would have to do this for every single thing that requires "the merge". Something pretty important (and probably basic) is missing the the thought process but after spending a weekend on google and in books I give up and turn to the SO community.

  Read the article

• How do I make a function in SQL Server that accepts a column of data?

  - by brandon k

  I made the following function in SQL Server 2008 earlier this week that takes two parameters and uses them to select a column of "detail" records and returns them as a single varchar list of comma separated values. Now that I get to thinking about it, I would like to take this table and application-specific function and make it more generic. I am not well-versed in defining SQL functions, as this is my first. How can I change this function to accept a single "column" worth of data, so that I can use it in a more generic way? Instead of calling: SELECT ejc_concatFormDetails(formuid, categoryName) I would like to make it work like: SELECT concatColumnValues(SELECT someColumn FROM SomeTable) Here is my function definition: FUNCTION [DNet].[ejc_concatFormDetails](@formuid AS int, @category as VARCHAR(75)) RETURNS VARCHAR(1000) AS BEGIN DECLARE @returnData VARCHAR(1000) DECLARE @currentData VARCHAR(75) DECLARE dataCursor CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT data FROM DNet.ejc_FormDetails WHERE formuid = @formuid AND category = @category SET @returnData = '' OPEN dataCursor FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS = 0) BEGIN SET @returnData = @returnData + ', ' + @currentData FETCH NEXT FROM dataCursor INTO @currentData END CLOSE dataCursor DEALLOCATE dataCursor RETURN SUBSTRING(@returnData,3,1000) END As you can see, I am selecting the column data within my function and then looping over the results with a cursor to build my comma separated varchar. How can I alter this to accept a single parameter that is a result set and then access that result set with a cursor?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 746 747 748 749 750 751 752 753 754 755 756 757  | Next Page >