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• Is it rude to add "TODO: wtf?" in source code?

  - by mafutrct

  I encountered something ... well, you know TDWTF... something like that in an international project I'm working on. The code was written by a team mate. For a second I was tempted to add // TODO: wtf? to the infringing code but restrained myself. The project is indeed on a professional level, but for internal conversation, more colloquial language is used - but still no "bad" words as in "wtf". Usually, I'd surely not add such a comment, but I believe there are a few factors that allow consideration still: 1. It is not visible except as a comment in the source code (of course). 2. It is internal to our team - other developers may happen see it but it is not their code. 3. Comments in source code are usually accepted to be more colloquial, since it is "kept between us developers". Would you totally advise to never add such a comment? Or do you regard it as an edge case? Did you possibly add something similar yourself?

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• Is it possible to install into Program Files with limited privileges?

  - by Marek

  I have an application that will be deployed as MSI package (authored in WiX). I am deciding whether to specify elevated or limited privileges as required for the installer. The application does not include anything requiring elevated privileges besides the default install location, which is under Program Files. Now the problem: If I specify elevated privileges, then the user is prompted by UAC for administrator password during the installation. This is not required and prevents non-admin users from installing. If I specify limited privileges, then the user is presented with a dialog to select install location with Program Files being default. In case they do not change the install location (95 % of end users probably won't), then the installer will fail with a message that they should contact the Administrator or run the application as administrator. If they launch the installer as Administrator then they can install into Program Files without problem - but most of the users won't probably know how to launch an installer as administrator. I can potentially set the default install location to e.g. C:\Company name\Program\, but this seems nonstandard to me and majority of users will not probably like this (they are probably used to installing into Program Files). How do you solve this problem with installing applications under limited user accounts?

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• Building "isolated" and "automatically updated" caches (java.util.List) in Java.

  - by Aidos

  Hi Guys, I am trying to write a framework which contains a lot of short-lived caches created from a long-living cache. These short-lived caches need to be able to return their entier contents, which is a clone from the original long-living cache. Effectively what I am trying to build is a level of transaction isolation for the short-lived caches. The user should be able to modify the contents of the short-lived cache, but changes to the long-living cache should not be propogated through (there is also a case where the changes should be pushed through, depending on the Cache type). I will do my best to try and explain: master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] temporary-cache created with state [A,B,C,D,E,F] 1) temporary-cache adds item G: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 2) temporary-cache removes item B: [A,C,D,E,F] master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 3) master-cache adds items [X,Y,Z]: [A,B,C,D,E,F,X,Y,Z] temporary-cache contains: [A,C,D,E,F] Things get even harder when the values in the items can change and shouldn't always be updated (so I can't even share the underlying object instances, I need to use clones). I have implemented the simple approach of just creating a new instance of the List using the standard Collection constructor on ArrayList, however when you get out to about 200,000 items the system just runs out of memory. I know the value of 200,000 is excessive to iterate, but I am trying to stress my code a bit. I had thought that it might be able to somehow "proxy" the list, so the temporary-cache uses the master-cache, and stores all of it's changes (effectively a Memento for the change), however that quickly becomes a nightmare when you want to iterate the temporary-cache, or retrieve an item at a specific index. Also given that I want some modifications to the contents of the list to come through (depending on the type of the temporary-cache, whether it is "auto-update" or not) and I get completly out of my depth. Any pointers to techniques or data-structures or just general concepts to try and research will be greatly appreciated. Cheers, Aidos

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• Confusion in MIPS code

  - by Haya Hallian

  While going through the MIPS code I got some confusion. Code is shown as follows .data key: .ascii "key: " # "key: \n" char: .asciiz " \n" .text .globl main main: jal getchar la $a0, char # $a0 contains address of char variable (" \n") sb $v0, ($a0) # replace " " in char with v0, which is read_character (X) la $a0, key # now a0 will contain, address of "key: " "X\n" What I dont understand is that how load address instruction works. First a0 contained address of char variable. In next line we are storing value of v0 in that location. there is no offset with ($a0), is that assumed to be 0 like in 0($a0)? Why only the " " empty space is replaced with v0, and why not the "\n" get replaced? or It may also have been the case that both the empty space and \n character get replced by v0. Secondly when we load the address of key in a0, the previous address should be overwritten. a0 should have contained the address of key only, but from comment it seems that the two strings are concatenated. How does that happen.

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• Using list() to extract a data.table inside of a function

  - by Nathan VanHoudnos

  I must admit that the data.table J syntax confuses me. I am attempting to use list() to extract a subset of a data.table as a data.table object as described in Section 1.4 of the data.table FAQ, but I can't get this behavior to work inside of a function. An example: require(data.table) ## Setup some test data set.seed(1) test.data <- data.table( X = rnorm(10), Y = rnorm(10), Z = rnorm(10) ) setkey(test.data, X) ## Notice that I can subset the data table easily with literal names test.data[, list(X,Y)] ## X Y ## 1: -0.8356286 -0.62124058 ## 2: -0.8204684 -0.04493361 ## 3: -0.6264538 1.51178117 ## 4: -0.3053884 0.59390132 ## 5: 0.1836433 0.38984324 ## 6: 0.3295078 1.12493092 ## 7: 0.4874291 -0.01619026 ## 8: 0.5757814 0.82122120 ## 9: 0.7383247 0.94383621 ## 10: 1.5952808 -2.21469989 I can even write a function that will return a column of the data.table as a vector when passed the name of a column as a character vector: get.a.vector <- function( my.dt, my.column ) { ## Step 1: Convert my.column to an expression column.exp <- parse(text=my.column) ## Step 2: Return the vector return( my.dt[, eval(column.exp)] ) } get.a.vector( test.data, 'X') ## [1] -0.8356286 -0.8204684 -0.6264538 -0.3053884 0.1836433 0.3295078 ## [7] 0.4874291 0.5757814 0.7383247 1.5952808 But I cannot pull a similar trick for list(). The inline comments are the output from the interactive browser() session. get.a.dt <- function( my.dt, my.column ) { ## Step 1: Convert my.column to an expression column.exp <- parse(text=my.column) ## Step 2: Enter the browser to play around browser() ## Step 3: Verity that a literal X works: my.dt[, list(X)] ## << not shown >> ## Step 4: Attempt to evaluate the parsed experssion my.dt[, list( eval(column.exp)] ## Error in `rownames<-`(`*tmp*`, value = paste(format(rn, right = TRUE), (from data.table.example.R@1032mCJ#7) : ## length of 'dimnames' [1] not equal to array extent return( my.dt[, list(eval(column.exp))] ) } get.a.dt( test.data, "X" ) What am I missing? Update: Due to some confusion as to why I would want to do this I wanted to clarify. My use case is when I need to access a data.table column when when I generate the name. Something like this: set.seed(2) test.data[, X.1 := rnorm(10)] which.column <- 'X' new.column <- paste(which.column, '.1', sep="") get.a.dt( test.data, new.column ) Hopefully that helps.

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• Is this a bug? Or is it a setting in ASP.NET 4 (or MVC 2)?

  - by John Gietzen

  I just recently started trying out T4MVC and I like the idea of eliminating magic strings. However, when trying to use it on my master page for my stylesheets, I get this: <link href="<%: Links.Content.site_css %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> rending like this: <link href="&lt;%: Links.Content.site_css %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> Whereas these render correctly: <link href="<%: Url.Content("~/Content/Site.css") %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="<%: Links.Content.site_css + "" %>" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> It appears that, as long as I have double quotes inside of the code segment, it works. But when I put anything else in there, it escapes the leading "less than". Is this something I can turn off? Is this a bug? Edit: This does not happen for <script src="..." ... />, nor does it happen for <a href="...">. Edit 2: Minimal case: <link href="<%: string.Empty %>" /> vs <link href="<%: "" %>" />

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• Pre-formatting text to prevent reflowing

  - by mattjn

  I've written a fairly simple script that will take elements (in this case, <p> elements are the main concern) and type their contents out like a typewriter, one by one. The problem is that as it types, when it reaches the edge of the container mid-word, it reflows the text and jumps to the next line (like word wrap in any text editor). This is, of course, expected behavior; however, I would like to pre-format the text so that this does not happen. I figure that inserting <br> before the word that will wrap would be the best solution, but I'm not quite sure what the best way to go about doing that is that supports all font sizes and container widths, while also keeping any HTML tags intact. I figure something involving a hidden <span> element, adding text to it gradually and checking its width against the container width might be on the right track, but I'm not quite sure how to actually put this together. Any help or suggestions on better methods would be appreciated.

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• Obtaining FontMetrics before getting a Graphics instance

  - by Tom Castle

  Typically, I'd obtain a graphics instance something like this: BufferedImage img = new BufferedImage(width, height, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_ARGB); Graphics2D g = img.createGraphics(); However, in the current project I'm working on, the width and height variables above are dependent upon the size of a number of text fragments that will later be drawn onto the graphics instance. But, to obtain the dimensions of the font being used I would usually use the FontMetrics that I get from the graphics object. FontMetrics metrics = g.getFontMetrics(); So, I have a nasty little dependency cycle. I cannot create the graphics object until I know the size of the text, and I cannot know the size of the text until I have a graphics object. One solution is just to create another BufferedImage/Graphics pair first in order to get the FontMetrics instance I need, but this seems unnecessary. So, is there a nicer way? Or is it the case that the width, height etc. properties for a Font are somehow dependent upon what (graphics, component...) the text is to be drawn on?

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• build SQL query string using user input

  - by user175084

  i have to make a string by using the values which the user selects on the webpage suppose i need to display files for multiple machines with differnt search criteria.. i currently use this code: DataTable dt = new DataTable(); SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(); connection.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DBConnectionString"].ConnectionString; connection.Open(); SqlCommand sqlCmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT FileID FROM Files WHERE MachineID=@machineID and date= @date", connection); SqlDataAdapter sqlDa = new SqlDataAdapter(sqlCmd); sqlCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@machineID", machineID); sqlCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@date", date); sqlDa.Fill(dt); now this is fixed query where the user just has one machine and just selects one date... i want to make a query in which the user has multiple search options like type or size if he wants depending on what he selects also if he can select multiple machines.. SELECT FileID FROM Files WHERE (MachineID=@machineID1 or MachineID = @machineID2...) and (date= @date and size=@size and type=@type... ) all of this happens in runtime... other wise i have to create a for loop to put multiple machines one by one... and have multiple queries depending on the case the user selected... this is quiet interesting and i could use some help... thanks

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• Select return dynamic columns

  - by Ascalonian

  I have two tables: Standards and Service Offerings. A Standard can have multiple Service Offerings. Each Standard can have a different number of Service Offerings associated to it. What I need to be able to do is write a view that will return some common data and then list the service offerings on one line. For example: Standard Id | Description | SO #1 | SO #2 | SO #3 | ... | SO #21 | SO Count 1 | One | A | B | C | ... | G | 21 2 | Two | A | | | ... | | 1 3 | Three | B | D | E | ... | | 3 I have no idea how to write this. The number of SO columns is set to a specific number (21 in this case), so we cannot exceed past that. Any ideas on how to approach this? A place I started is below. It just returned multiple rows for each Service Offering, when they need to be on one row. SELECT * FROM SERVICE_OFFERINGS WHERE STANDARD_KEY IN (SELECT STANDARD_KEY FROM STANDARDS)

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• media.set_xx giving me grief!

  - by Firas

  New guy here. I asked a while back about a sprite recolouring program that I was having difficulty with and got some great responses. Basically, I tried to write a program that would recolour pixels of all the pictures in a given folder from one given colour to another. I believe I have it down, but, now the program is telling me that I have an invalid value specified for the red component of my colour. (ValueError: Invalid red value specified.), even though it's only being changed from 64 to 56. Any help on the matter would be appreciated! (Here's the code, in case I messed up somewhere else; It's in Python): import os import media import sys def recolour(old, new, folder): old_list = old.split(' ') new_list = new.split(' ') folder_location = os.path.join('C:\', 'Users', 'Owner', 'Spriting', folder) for filename in os.listdir (folder): current_file = media.load_picture(folder_location + '\\' + filename) for pix in current_file: if (media.get_red(pix) == int(old_list[0])) and \ (media.get_green(pix) == int(old_list[1])) and \ (media.get_blue(pix) == int(old_list[2])): media.set_red(pix, new_list[0]) media.set_green(pix, new_list[1]) media.set_blue(pix, new_list[2]) media.save(pic) if name == 'main': while 1: old = str(raw_input('Please insert the original RGB component, separated by a single space: ')) if old == 'quit': sys.exit(0) new = str(raw_input('Please insert the new RGB component, separated by a single space: ')) if new == 'quit': sys.exit(0) folder = str(raw_input('Please insert the name of the folder you wish to modify: ')) if folder == 'quit': sys.exit(0) else: recolour(old, new, folder)

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• Threads are blocked in malloc and free, virtual size

  - by Albert Wang

  Hi, I'm running a 64-bit multi-threaded program on the windows server 2003 server (X64), It run into a case that some of the threads seem to be blocked in the malloc or free function forever. The stack trace is like follows: ntdll.dll!NtWaitForSingleObject() + 0xa bytes ntdll.dll!RtlpWaitOnCriticalSection() - 0x1aa bytes ntdll.dll!RtlEnterCriticalSection() + 0xb040 bytes ntdll.dll!RtlpDebugPageHeapAllocate() + 0x2f6 bytes ntdll.dll!RtlDebugAllocateHeap() + 0x40 bytes ntdll.dll!RtlAllocateHeapSlowly() + 0x5e898 bytes ntdll.dll!RtlAllocateHeap() - 0x1711a bytes MyProg.exe!malloc(unsigned __int64 size=0) Line 168 C MyProg.exe!operator new(unsigned __int64 size=1) Line 59 + 0x5 bytes C++ ntdll.dll!NtWaitForSingleObject() ntdll.dll!RtlpWaitOnCriticalSection() ntdll.dll!RtlEnterCriticalSection() ntdll.dll!RtlpDebugPageHeapFree() ntdll.dll!RtlDebugFreeHeap() ntdll.dll!RtlFreeHeapSlowly() ntdll.dll!RtlFreeHeap() MyProg.exe!free(void * pBlock=0x000000007e8e4fe0) C BTW, the param values passed to the new operator is not correct here maybe due to optimization. Also, at the same time, I found in the process Explorer, the virtual size of this program is 10GB, but the private bytes and working set is very small (<2GB). We did have some threads using virtualalloc but in a way that commit the memory in the call, and these threads are not blocked. m_pBuf = VirtualAlloc(NULL, m_size, MEM_COMMIT, PAGE_READWRITE); ...... VirtualFree(m_pBuf, 0, MEM_RELEASE); This looks strange to me, seems a lot of virtual space is reserved but not committed, and malloc/free is blocked by lock. I'm guessing if there's any corruptions in the memory/object, so plan to turn on gflag with pageheap to troubleshoot this. Does anyone has similar experience on this before? Could you share with me so I may get more hints? Thanks a lot!

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• Avoid slowdowns while using off-site database

  - by Anders Holmström

  The basic layout of my problem is this: Website (ASP.NET/C#) hosted at a dedicated hosting company (location 1) Company database (SQL Server) with records of relevant data (location 2). Location 1 & 2 connected through VPN. Customer visiting the website and wanting to pull data from the company database. No possibility of changing the server locations or layout (i.e. moving the website to an in-office server isn't possible). What I want to do is figure out the best way to handle the data acces in this case, minimizing the need for time-expensive database calls over the VPN. The first idea I'm getting is this: When a user enters the section of the website needing the DB data, you pull all the needed tables from the database into a in-memory dataset. All subsequent views/updates to the data is done on this dataset. When the user leaves (logout, session timeout, browser closed etc) the dataset gets sent to the SQL server. I'm not sure if this is a realistic solution, and it obviously has some problems. If two web visitors are performing updates on the same data, the one finishing up last will have their changes overwriting the first ones. There's also no way of knowing you have the latest data (i.e. if a customer pulls som info on their projects and we update this info while they are viewing them, they won't see these changes PLUS the above overwriting issue will arise). The other solution would be to somehow aggregate database calls and make sure they only happen when you need them, e.g. during data updates but not during data views. But then again the longer a pause between these refreshing DB calls, the bigger a chance that the data view is out of date as per the problem described above. Any input on the above or some fresh ideas would be most welcome.

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• FluentNHibernate: Not.Nullable() doesn't affect output schema

  - by alex

  Hello I'm using fluent nhibernate v. 1.0.0.595. There is a class: public class Weight { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual double Value { get; set; } } I want to map it on the following table: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Weight DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) Here is the map: public class WeightMap : ClassMap<Weight> { public WeightMap() { Table("[Weight]"); Id(x => x.Id, "WeightId"); Map(x => x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable(); } } The problem is that this mapping produces table with nullable Weight column: Weight DOUBLE null Not-nullable column is generated only with default convention for column name (i.e. Map(x = x.Value).Not.Nullable() instead of Map(x = x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable()), but in this case there will be Value column instead of Weight: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Value DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) I found similiar problem here: http://code.google.com/p/fluent-nhibernate/issues/detail?id=121, but seems like mentioned workaround with SetAttributeOnColumnElement("not-null", "true") is outdated. Does anybody encountered with this problem? Is there a way to specify named column as not-nullable?

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• Best suited tool to document message processing done in C written program

  - by user3494614

  I am relatively new to UML and it's seems to be very vast I have a small program which basically receives messages on socket and then depending upon message ID embedded as first byte of message it processes the buffer. There are around 5 different message ID which it processes and communicates on another socket and has around 8 major functions. So program in short is like this. I am not pasting entire .c file or main function but just giving some bits and pieces of it so that to get idea of program flow. int main(int argc, char** argv) { register_shared_mem(); listen(); while(get_next_message(buffer)) { switch((msg)(buffer)->id) { case TYPE1: process1(); answer(); ..... } } } I want to document this is pictorial way like for Message type 1 it calls this function which calls another and which calls another. Please let me know any open source tool which will allow me to quickly draw such kind of UML or sequence diagram and will also allow me to write brief description of what each function does? Thanks In Advance

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• How many WCF connections can a single host handle?

  - by mafutrct

  I'll try to explain this with an example. I'm writing a chat application. There are users that can join chat rooms. A user has to log in before he can join any room. Currently, there is a single service. A user logs in using this service. Then, the user sends and receives messages for all joined rooms via this single service. channel.Login("Hans Moleman", "password"); channel.JoinRoom("name of room"); channel.SendChat("name of room", "hello"); I'm thinking about changing the design so there is a new WCF connection for each joined room. In the actual app, the number of connections is likely going to be in the range of 10-100, possibly more. Is this a good idea? Or are ~100 connections per client too much? The server should be able to handle many clients (range 100-1000, later up to 10k). In case it matters, I'm using NetTcpBinding.

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• How to make write operation idempotent?

  - by Morgan Cheng

  I'm reading article about recently release Gizzard sharding framework by twitter(http://engineering.twitter.com/2010/04/introducing-gizzard-framework-for.html). It mentions that all write operations must be idempotent to make sure high reliability. According to wikipedia, "Idempotent operations are operations that can be applied multiple times without changing the result." But, IMHO, in Gazzard case, idempotent write operation should be operations that sequence doesn't matter. Now, my question is: How to make write operation idempotent? The only thing I can image is to have a version number attached to each write. For example, in blog system. Each blog must have a $blog_id and $content. In application level, we always write a blog content like this write($blog_id, $content, $version). The $version is determined to be unique in application level. So, if application first try to set one blog to "Hello world" and second want it to be "Goodbye", the write is idempotent. We have such two write operations: write($blog_id, "Hello world", 1); write($blog_id, "Goodbye", 2); These two operations are supposed to changed two different records in DB. So, no matter how many times and what sequence these two operations executed, the results are same. This is just my understanding. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

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• jquery for ruby on rails

  - by Cezar

  Hello, I am tying to use this code http://gist.github.com/110410 to dump Prototype in favor of jQuery but I do have a problem. This is my HTML (a link_to generated link): <a onclick="var f = document.createElement('form'); f.style.display = 'none'; this.parentNode.appendChild(f); f.method = 'POST'; f.action = this.href;var s = document.createElement('input'); s.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); s.setAttribute('name', 'authenticity_token'); s.setAttribute('value', 'Mi6RcR6YDyvg2uNwGrpbeIJutSHa2fYboU37wSDE7AU='); f.appendChild(s);f.submit();return false;" class="post add_to_cart " href="/line_items?product_id=547">Add to cart</a> Issue: Everything works as it should except that the page does a reload. I suspect that the submit gets thru which causes a page reload. Is there an elegant way to prevent that ? return false; doesn't seem to cut it in this case.

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• Reference a GNU C DLL built in GCC against Cygwin, from C#/NET

  - by Dale Halliwell

  Here is what I want: I have a huge legacy C/C++ codebase written for POSIX, including some very POSIX specific stuff like pthreads. This can be compiled on Cygwin/GCC and run as an executable under Windows with the Cygwin DLL. What I would like to do is build the codebase itself into a Windows DLL that I can then reference from C# and write a wrapper around it to access some parts of it programatically. I have tried this approach with the very simple "hello world" example at http://www.cygwin.com/cygwin-ug-net/dll.html and it doesn't seem to work. #include <stdio.h> extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) int hello(); int hello() { printf ("Hello World!\n"); return 42; } I believe I should be able to reference a DLL built with the above code in C# using something like: [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern IntPtr LoadLibrary(string dllToLoad); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern IntPtr GetProcAddress(IntPtr hModule, string procedureName); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern bool FreeLibrary(IntPtr hModule); [UnmanagedFunctionPointer(CallingConvention.Cdecl)] private delegate int hello(); static void Main(string[] args) { var path = Path.Combine(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory, "helloworld.dll"); IntPtr pDll = LoadLibrary(path); IntPtr pAddressOfFunctionToCall = GetProcAddress(pDll, "hello"); hello hello = (hello)Marshal.GetDelegateForFunctionPointer( pAddressOfFunctionToCall, typeof(hello)); int theResult = hello(); Console.WriteLine(theResult.ToString()); bool result = FreeLibrary(pDll); Console.ReadKey(); } But this approach doesn't seem to work. LoadLibrary returns null. It can find the DLL (helloworld.dll), it is just like it can't load it or find the exported function. I am sure that if I get this basic case working I can reference the rest of my codebase in this way. Any suggestions or pointers, or does anyone know if what I want is even possible? Thanks.

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• ORDER BY in a Sql Server 2008 view

  - by eidylon

  Hi all... we have a view in our database which has an ORDER BY in it. Now, I realize views generally don't order, because different people may use it for different things, and want it differently ordered. This view however is used for a VERY SPECIFIC use-case which demands a certain order. (It is team standings for a soccer league.) The database is Sql Server 2008 Express, v.10.0.1763.0 on a Windows Server 2003 R2 box. The view is defined as such: CREATE VIEW season.CurrentStandingsOrdered AS SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT *, season.GetRanking(TEAMID) RANKING FROM season.CurrentStandings ORDER BY GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, POINTS DESC, FORFEITS, GOALS_AGAINST, GOALS_FOR DESC, DIFFERENTIAL, RANKING It returns: GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID, CLUB, NAME, WINS, LOSSES, TIES, GOALS_FOR, GOALS_AGAINST, DIFFERENTIAL, POINTS, FORFEITS, RANKING Now, when I run a SELECT against the view, it orders the results by GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID. Notice that it is ordering by TEAMID instead of POINTS as the order by clause specifies. However, if I copy the SQL statement and run it exactly as is in a new query window, it orders correctly as specified by the ORDER BY clause.

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• Does it ever make sense to make a fundamental (non-pointer) parameter const?

  - by Scott Smith

  I recently had an exchange with another C++ developer about the following use of const: void Foo(const int bar); He felt that using const in this way was good practice. I argued that it does nothing for the caller of the function (since a copy of the argument was going to be passed, there is no additional guarantee of safety with regard to overwrite). In addition, doing this prevents the implementer of Foo from modifying their private copy of the argument. So, it both mandates and advertises an implementation detail. Not the end of the world, but certainly not something to be recommended as good practice. I'm curious as to what others think on this issue. Edit: OK, I didn't realize that const-ness of the arguments didn't factor into the signature of the function. So, it is possible to mark the arguments as const in the implementation (.cpp), and not in the header (.h) - and the compiler is fine with that. That being the case, I guess the policy should be the same for making local variables const. One could make the argument that having different looking signatures in the header and source file would confuse others (as it would have confused me). While I try to follow the Principle of Least Astonishment with whatever I write, I guess it's reasonable to expect developers to recognize this as legal and useful.

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• Is private method in spring service implement class thread safe

  - by Roger Ray

  I got a service in an project using Spring framework. public class MyServiceImpl implements IMyService { public MyObject foo(SomeObject obj) { MyObject myobj = this.mapToMyObject(obj); myobj.setLastUpdatedDate(new Date()); return myobj; } private MyObject mapToMyObject(SomeObject obj){ MyObject myojb = new MyObject(); ConvertUtils.register(new MyNullConvertor(), String.class); ConvertUtils.register(new StringConvertorForDateType(), Date.class); BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj); ConvertUtils.deregister(Date.class); return myojb; } } Then I got a class to call foo() in multi-thread; There goes the problem. In some of the threads, I got error when calling BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj); saying Cannot invoke com.my.MyObject.setStartDate - java.lang.ClassCastException@2da93171 obviously, this is caused by ConvertUtils.deregister(Date.class) which is supposed to be called after BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj);. It looks like one of the threads deregistered the Date class out while another thread was just about to call BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj);. So My question is how do I make the private method mapToMyObject() thread safe? Or simply make the BeanUtils thread safe when it's used in a private method. And will the problem still be there if I keep the code this way but instead I call this foo() method in sevlet? If many sevlets call at the same time, would this be a multi-thread case as well?

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• Parent and siblings inherits a child list items styles

  - by elvista

  I have a simple menu <ul id="menu"> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item 1</a></li> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item 2</a></li> <li class="expanded"><a href="#">Menu Item 3</a> <ul> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item a</a></li> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item b</a></li> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item c</a></li> </ul> </li> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item 4</a></li> </ul> and ul#menu li:hover {font-weight:bold;} The problem I am facing is when I hover above a ul li li, the parent as well as all its siblings gets the hover effect. I only want the list item I hovered above to get the effect. I tried ul#menu li.leaf:hover {..}, ul#menu li.expanded:hover {..} , but even in that case, when I hover above li.expanded, it's child inherits the style. It is important for me to style the list items, not a (the style is more complicated than the one I posted) How do I fix this?

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• IE ignores added onclick attribute

  - by user357034

  The Jquery code below works ok with firefox, Safari, Opera but not with IE. I kinda know why this isn't working in IE after reading a lot about it but I do not know how to fix it. My understanding (I think) is that this method will assign a attribute of "onclick" in IE rather than an event method. Therefore it will not fire in IE and the href fires instead which in this case is "#" which is exactly what is happening. What is the correct way of adding the onclick event. <a id="product_photo_zoom_url" href="/PhotoGallery.asp?ProductCode=9857%2D116%2D003" title="9857-116-003 Ignition box"><img id="product_photo" src="/v/vspfiles/photos/9857-116-003-2T.jpg" border="0" alt="9857-116-003 Ignition box" /></a> <br /><a id="product_photo_zoom_url2" href="/PhotoGallery.asp?ProductCode=9857%2D116%2D003" title="9857-116-003 Ignition box"> <img src="/v/vspfiles/templates/100/images/buttons/btn_largerphoto.gif" border="0"></a> var global_URL_Encode_Current_ProductCode; var global_Config_ProductPhotosFolder; var global_Current_ProductCode; var titleattr = $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr("title"); var picurl='tb_show(titleattr, \'/PhotoDetails.asp?ShowDESC=N&ProductCode=\' + global_URL_Encode_Current_ProductCode + \'&TB_iframe=true&height=600&width=520\');return false;' $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr('onclick', picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url").attr('href', '#'); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").attr('onclick', picurl); $("a#product_photo_zoom_url2").attr('href', '#');

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• how can i set up a uniqueness constraint in mysql for columns that can be null?

  - by user299689

  I know that in MySQL, UNIQUE constraits don't treat NULL values as equal. So if I have a unique constraint on ColumnX, then two separate rows can have values of NULL for ColumnX and this wouldn't violate the constraint. How can I work around this? I can't just set the value to an arbitrary constant that I can flag, because ColumnX in my case is actually a foreign key to another table. What are my options here? Please note that this table also has an "id" column that is its primary key. Since I'm using Ruby on Rails, it's important to keep this id column as the primary key. Note 2: In reality, my unique key encompasses many columns, and some of them have to be null, because they are foreign keys, and only one of them should be non-null. What I'm actually trying to do is to "simulate" a polymorphic relationship in a way that keep referential integrity in the db, but using the technique outlined in the first part of the question asked here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/922184/why-can-you-not-have-a-foreign-key-in-a-polymorphic-association

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