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• Zend_Auth and database session SaveHandler

  - by takeshin

  I have created Zend_Auth adapter implementing Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface (similar to Pádraic's adapter) and created simple ACL plugin. Everything works fine with default session handler. So far, so good. As a next step I have created custom Session SaveHandler to persist session data in the database. My implementation is very similar to this one from parables-demo. Seems that everything is working fine. Session data are properly saved to the database, session objects are serialized, but authentication does not work when I enable this custom SaveHandler. I have debugged the authentication and all works fine up till the next request, when the authentication data are lost. I suspected, that is has something to do with the fact, that I use $adapter->write($object) instead $adapter->write($string), but the same happens with strings. I'm bootstrapping Zend_Application_Resource_Session in the first Bootstrap method, as early as possible. Does Zend_Auth need any extra configuration to persist data in the database? Why the authentity is being lost?

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• Can't use my form

  - by Alexandr

  I have class with my form in folder /application/forms/Auth.php it looks like class Form_Auth extends Zend_Form { public function __construct() { $this->setName(); parent::__construct(); $username = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('username'); $password = new Zend_Form_Element_Password('password'); $mail = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('mail'); $submit = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('submit'); $this->addElements(array($username,$password,$mail,$submit)); } } When i try create object $this->view->form = new Form_Auth(); is see exeption Application error Exception information: Message: Invalid name provided; must contain only valid variable characters and be non-empty Stack trace: D:\WWW\zends\application\Forms\Auth.php(8): Zend_Form-setName() d:\WWW\zends\application\controllers\RegistrationController.php(49): Form_Auth-__construct() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): RegistrationController-indexAction() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action-dispatch('indexAction') D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard-dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front-dispatch() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap-run() D:\WWW\zends\public\index.php(26): Zend_Application-run() {main} Request Parameters: array ( 'controller' = 'registration', 'action' = 'index', 'module' = 'default', ) the version zf is 1.10.3 what i do wrong ?

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• Determine target architecture of binary file in Linux (library or executable)

  - by Fernando Miguélez

  We have an issue related to a Java application running under a (rather old) FC3 on a Advantech POS board with a Via C3 processor. The java application has several compiled shared libs that are accessed via JNI. Via C3 processor is suppossed to be i686 compatible. Some time ago after installing Ubuntu 6.10 on a MiniItx board with the same processor I found out that the previous statement is not 100% true. The Ubuntu kernel hanged on startup due to the lack of some specific and optional instructions of the i686 set in the C3 processor. These instructions missing in C3 implementation of i686 set are used by default by GCC compiler when using i686 optimizations. The solution in this case was to go with a i386 compiled version of Ubuntu distribution. The base problem with the Java application is that the FC3 distribution was installed on the HD by cloning from an image of the HD of another PC, this time an Intel P4. Afterwards the distribution needed some hacking to have it running such as replacing some packages (such as the kernel one) with the i383 compiled version. The problem is that after working for a while the system completely hangs without a trace. I am afraid that some i686 code is left somewhere in the system and could be executed randomly at any time (for example after recovering from suspend mode or something like that). My question is: Is there any tool or way to find out at what specific architecture is an binary file (executable or library) aimed provided that "file" does not give so much information?

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• comma separated values in oracle function body

  - by dmitry

  I've got following oracle function but it does not work and errors out. I used Ask Tom's way to convert comma separated values to be used in select * from table1 where col1 in <> declared in package header: TYPE myTableType IS table of varchar2 (255); Part of package body: l_string long default iv_value_with_comma_separated|| ','; l_data myTableType := myTableType(); n NUMBER; begin begin LOOP EXIT when l_string is null; n := instr( l_string, ',' ); l_data.extend; l_data(l_data.count) := ltrim( rtrim( substr( l_string, 1, n-1 ) ) ); l_string := substr( l_string, n+1 ); END LOOP; end; OPEN my_cursor FOR select * from table_a where column_a in (select * from table (l_data)); CLOSE my_cursor END; above fails but it works fine when I remove select * from table (l_data) Can someone please tell me what I might be doing wrong here??

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• Jquery grid overlay in wordpress

  - by Anders Kitson

  I am adding this simple plugin that I have working in a static html site, and am trying to add it to a wordpress development site based off of 960 gs. The jquery code links are correct but the console gives me this error "Uncaught TypeError: Cannot call method 'addGrid' of null" I got the code from this turtorial http://www.badlydrawntoy.com/2009/04/21/960gs-grid-overlay-a-jquery-plugin/ Here is the code I am using /*<![CDATA[*/ // onload $(function() { $("body").addGrid(12, {img_path: 'img/'}); }); /*]]>*/ Here is the code for the plugin /* * @ description: Plugin to display 960.gs gridlines See http://960.gs/ * @author: badlyDrawnToy sharp / http://www.badlydrawntoy.com * @license: Creative Commons License - ShareAlike http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/ * @version: 1.0 20th April 2009 */ (function($){$.fn.addGrid=function(cols,options){var defaults={default_cols:12,z_index:999,img_path:'/images/',opacity:.6};var opts=$.extend(defaults,options);var cols=cols!=null&&(cols===12||cols===16)?cols:12;var cols=cols===opts.default_cols?'12_col':'16_col';return this.each(function(){var $el=$(this);var height=$el.height();var wrapper=$('<div id="'+opts.grid_id+'"/>').appendTo($el).css({'display':'none','position':'absolute','top':0,'z-index':(opts.z_index-1),'height':height,'opacity':opts.opacity,'width':'100%'});$('<div/>').addClass('container_12').css({'margin':'0 auto','width':'960px','height':height,'background-image':'url('+opts.img_path+cols+'.png)','background-repeat':'repeat-y'}).appendTo(wrapper);$('<div>grid on</div>').appendTo($el).css({'position':'absolute','top':0,'left':0,'z-index':opts.z_index,'background':'#222','color':'#fff','padding':'3px 6px','width':'40px','text-align':'center'}).hover(function(){$(this).css("cursor","pointer");},function(){$(this).css("cursor","default");}).toggle(function(){$(this).text("grid off");$('#'+opts.grid_id).slideDown();},function(){$(this).text("grid on");$('#'+opts.grid_id).slideUp();});});};})(jQuery);

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• c++ Design pattern for CoW, inherited classes, and variable shared data?

  - by krunk

  I've designed a copy-on-write base class. The class holds the default set of data needed by all children in a shared data model/CoW model. The derived classes also have data that only pertains to them, but should be CoW between other instances of that derived class. I'm looking for a clean way to implement this. If I had a base class FooInterface with shared data FooDataPrivate and a derived object FooDerived. I could create a FooDerivedDataPrivate. The underlying data structure would not effect the exposed getters/setters API, so it's not about how a user interfaces with the objects. I'm just wondering if this is a typical MO for such cases or if there's a better/cleaner way? What peeks my interest, is I see the potential of inheritance between the the private data classes. E.g. FooDerivedDataPrivate : public FooDataPrivate, but I'm not seeing a way to take advantage of that polymorphism in my derived classes. class FooDataPrivate { public: Ref ref; // atomic reference counting object int a; int b; int c; }; class FooInterface { public: // constructors and such // .... // methods are implemented to be copy on write. void setA(int val); void setB(int val); void setC(int val); // copy constructors, destructors, etc. all CoW friendly private: FooDataPrivate *data; }; class FooDerived : public FooInterface { public: FooDerived() : FooInterface() {} private: // need more shared data for FooDerived // this is the ???, how is this best done cleanly? };

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• In a combobox, how do I determine the highlighted item (not selected item)?

  - by Harold Bamford

  First, fair warning: I am a complete newbie with C# and WPF. I have a combobox (editable, searchable) and I would like to be able to intercept the Delete key and remove the currently highlighted item from the list. The behavior I'm looking for is like that of MS Outlook when entering in email addresses. When you give a few characters, a dropdown list of potential matches is displayed. If you move to one of these (with the arrow keys) and hit Delete, that entry is permanently removed. I want to do that with an entry in the combobox. Here is the XAML (simplified): <ComboBox x:Name="Directory" KeyUp="Directory_KeyUp" IsTextSearchEnabled="True" IsEditable="True" Text="{Binding Path=CurrentDirectory, Mode=TwoWay}" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={x:Static self:Properties.Settings.Default}, Path=DirectoryList, Mode=TwoWay}" / The handler is: private void Directory_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { ComboBox box = sender as ComboBox; if (box.IsDropDownOpen && (e.Key == Key.Delete)) { TrimCombobox("DirectoryList", box.HighlightedItem); // won't compile! } } When using the debugger, I can see box.HighlightedItem has the value I want but when I try and put in that code, it fails to compile with: System.Windows.Controls.ComboBox' does not contain a definition for 'HighlightedItem'... So: how do I access that value? Keep in mind that the item has not been selected. It is merely highlighted as the mouse hovers over it. Thanks for your help.

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• Android Webkit Input elements buggy with CSS3 translate3D

  - by Dansl

  I'm having a couple issues with the Input element in a Webkit Android App i'm developing. Testing on 2.X, but 3.x doesn't seem to have these issues... The app works by having separate Div's for each "page", and I'm using CSS3 translate3D to animate between the pages. Some of those pages include Input elements. When I tap on the input to gain focus, any of my "position:fixed" Div's will shift about 5px from the top, and 5px left. Now the kicker... it will eventually fix itself, and then never happen again when you tap on an input, its only that first time... My other problem, the Input elements are screwy with keyboards, for instance, spell corrections/autocomplete will not input text, and when using Swype Keyboard, you can't "swipe" the word, ONLY individual taps for each letter will input text into the Input element. I've read that a lot of these might be caused by CSS3 Translate3D. But, I've tried just about everything to fix these issues, and I've searched just about every site for a solution, but havent been able to find a fix, or find anyone else with this issue... Does anyone else have these issues, or know of a fix? (Possible solution??) Anyone know of a way to override the default behavior of Input elements in the webkit? I wonder if I can generate my own TextView and position it over these input fields...? Any help is greatly appreciated :)

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• problem configure JBoss to work with JNDI(2)

  - by Spiderman

  in continuation to the question from last week: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828237/problem-configure-jboss-to-work-with-jndi I'm trying to bind datasource in JBoss and use it in my application. In my struggling, I already managed to avoid the javax.naming.NameNotFoundException by: 1. using in java new InitialContext().lookup(connection); instead of new JndiObjectFactoryBean().setJndiName(connection); 2. changing the connection name from: 'jndi-name' to 'java:jndi-name' Now the problem is that the datasouce that I get from the lookup is null. I created the datsource file: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>bilby</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:oracle:myURL</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver </driver-class> <user-name>myUsername</user-name> <password>myPassword</password> <exception-sorter-class- name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.OracleExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <metadata> <type-mapping>Oracle9i</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and put it under \server\default\deploy\oracle-ds.xml I get during runtime the line: 18:37:56,560 INFO [ConnectionFactoryBindingService] Bound ConnectionManager 'jb oss.jca:service=DataSourceBinding,name=bilby' to JNDI name 'java:bilby' So my question is - why do I get null as my datasource???

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• dynamical binding or switch/case?

  - by kingkai

  A scene like this: I've different of objects do the similar operation as respective func() implements. There're 2 kinds of solution for func_manager() to call func() according to different objects Solution 1: Use virtual function character specified in c++. func_manager works differently accroding to different object point pass in. class Object{ virtual void func() = 0; } class Object_A : public Object{ void func() {}; } class Object_B : public Object{ void func() {}; } void func_manager(Object* a) { a->func(); } Solution 2: Use plain switch/case. func_manager works differently accroding to different type pass in typedef _type_t { TYPE_A, TYPE_B }type_t; void func_by_a() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_by_b() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_manager(type_t type) { switch(type){ case TYPE_A: func_by_a(); break; case TYPE_B: func_by_b(); default: break; } } My Question are 2: 1. at the view point of DESIGN PATTERN, which one is better? 2. at the view point of RUNTIME EFFCIENCE, which one is better? Especailly as the kinds of Object increases, may be up to 10-15 total, which one's overhead oversteps the other? I don't know how switch/case implements innerly, just a bunch of if/else? Thanks very much!

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• Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

  - by Herman

  Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

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• Implicit Type Conversions in Reflection

  - by bradhe

  So I've written a quick bit of code to help quickly convert between business objects and view models. Not to pimp my own blog, but you can find the details here if you're interested or need to know. One issue I've run in to is that I have a custom collection type, ProductCollection, and I need to turn that in to a string[] in on my model. Obviously, since there is no default implicit cast, I'm getting an exception in my contract converter. So, I thought I would write the next little bit of code and that should solve the problem: public static implicit operator string[](ProductCollection collection) { var list = new List<string>(); foreach (var product in collection) { if (product.Id == null) { list.Add(null); } else { list.Add(product.Id.ToString()); } } return list.ToArray(); } However, it still fails with the same cast exception. I'm wondering if it has something to do with being in reflection? If so, is there anything that I can do here?? I'm open to architectural solutions, too!

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• Some languages don't work when using Word 2007 Spellcheck from Interop

  - by Tridus

  I'm using the Word 2007 spellchecker via Interop in a VB.net desktop app. When using the default language (English), it works fine. If I set the language to French via LanguageId, it also works. But if I set it to French (Canadian) (Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian), it doesn't work. There's no error message, it simply runs and says the document contains no errors. I know it does, if I paste the exact same text into Word itself and run it with the French (Canadian) dictionary, it finds errors. Just why that dictionary doesn't work is kind of a mystery to me. Full code below: Public Shared Function SpellCheck(ByVal text As String, ByVal checkGrammar As Boolean) As String ' If there is no data to spell check, then exit sub here. If text.Length = 0 Then Return text End If Dim objWord As Word.Application Dim objTempDoc As Word.Document ' Declare an IDataObject to hold the data returned from the ' clipboard. Dim iData As IDataObject objWord = New Word.Application() objTempDoc = objWord.Documents.Add objWord.Visible = False ' Position Word off the screen...this keeps Word invisible ' throughout. objWord.WindowState = 0 objWord.Top = -3000 ' Copy the contents of the textbox to the clipboard Clipboard.SetDataObject(text) ' With the temporary document, perform either a spell check or a ' complete ' grammar check, based on user selection. With objTempDoc .Content.Paste() .Activate() .Content.LanguageID = Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian If checkGrammar Then .CheckGrammar() Else .CheckSpelling() End If ' After user has made changes, use the clipboard to ' transfer the contents back to the text box .Content.Copy() iData = Clipboard.GetDataObject If iData.GetDataPresent(DataFormats.Text) Then text = CType(iData.GetData(DataFormats.Text), _ String) End If .Saved = True .Close() End With objWord.Quit() Return text End Function

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• What is the best way to identify which form has been submitted?

  - by Rupert

  Currently, when I design my forms, I like to keep the name of the submit button equal to the id of the form. Then, in my php, I just do if(isset($_POST['submitName'])) in order to check if a form has been submitted and which form has been submitted. Firstly, are there any security problems or design flaws with this method? One problem I have encountered is when I wish to overlay my forms with javascript in order to provide faster validation to the user. For example, whilst I obviously need to retain server side validation, it is more convenient for the user if an error message is displayed inline, upon blurring an input. Additionally, it would be good to provide entire form validation, upon clicking the submit button. Therefore, when the user clicks on the form's submit button, I am stopping the default action, doing my validation, and then attempting to renable the traditional submit functionality, if the validation passes. In order to do this, I am using the form.submit() method but, unfortunately, this doesn't send the submit button variable (as it should be as form.submit() can be called without any button being clicked). This means my PHP script fails to detect that the form has been submitted. What is the correct way to work around this? It seems like the standard solution is to add a hidden field into the form, upon passing validation, which has the name of form's id. Then when form.submit() is called, this is passed along in place of the submit button. However, this solution seems very ungraceful to me and so I am wondering whether I should: a) Use an alternative method to detect which form has been submitted which doesn't rely rely on passing the submit button. If so what alternative is there? Obviously, just having an extra hidden field from the start isn't any better. b) Use an alternative Javascript solution which allows me to retain my non-Javascript design. For example, is there an alternative to form.submit() which allows me to pass in extra data? c) Suck it up and just insert a hidden field using Javascript.

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• Changing property of ItemTemplate controls in ListView

  - by arturito

  I have ListView containig LinkButtons in ItemTemplate. ListView is inside UpdatePanel so it is not doing page refresh. When users click on one the LinkButtons it changes its css property in order to mark the selection: protected void ListView1_ItemCommand1(object sender, ListViewCommandEventArgs e) { ((LinkButton)e.CommandSource).CssClass = "selected"; } That allows multiple selections. But once the page is refreshed the selection disappears, meaning that css property of control goes back to default. <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="local" Text='<%#Eval("Local.Name")%>' runat="server" CommandName="selectLocal" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("Local.Id") %>' CssClass="notSelected" > </asp:LinkButton> <asp:LinkButton ID="guest" Text='<%#Eval("Guest.Name")%>' runat="server" CommandName="selectGuest" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("Guest.Id") %>' CssClass="notSelected" > </asp:LinkButton> </ItemTemplate> How can I select them programatically on page reload? (I'm mainating selection list in session)

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• Spring bean initialization in a web app

  - by EugeneP

  We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

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• AJAX AutoCompletExtender doesn't allow to move ahead of first item with arrow-key

  - by dharmbhav

  Hi, I am using an AJAX AutoCompleteExtender to display a list of suburbs-postcodes after the user presses 3 keys in the given textbox. The problem is that on the page, I can't move my selection below the first item (with down arrow key/mouse). However with mouse if I click on any item, it gets selected. <asp:TextBox ID="txtPostalSuburb" runat="server" CssClass="select_insert_menu_text1" MaxLength="40" TabIndex="9"></asp:TextBox> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="txtPostalSuburb_AutoCompleteExtender" runat="server" DelimiterCharacters="" Enabled="True" ServicePath="~/Web/Common/ListingService.asmx" TargetControlID="txtPostalSuburb" UseContextKey="False" ServiceMethod="GetSuburbList" MinimumPrefixLength="3" CompletionListCssClass="contact-details-suggestion-list" OnClientItemSelected="AutoCompleteExtender_ItemSelected" CompletionListItemCssClass="contact-details-suggestion-list-item" > </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> CSS: .contact-details-suggestion-list { background-color: window; color: windowtext; cursor: default; list-style-image: none; list-style-position: outside; list-style-type: none; padding:0px; text-align: left; border: solid 1px #005883; margin-top: 0px; font-size: 10px; } .contact-details-suggestion-list-item { border-bottom: dotted 1px black; } Any help is appreciated. Thanks

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• How can a SVN::Error callback identify the context from which it was called

  - by Colin Fine

  I've written some fairly extensive Perl modules and scripts using the Perl bindings SVN::Client etc. Since the calls to SVN::Client are all deep in a module, I have overridden the default error handling. So far I have done so by setting $SVN::Error::handler = undef as described in [1], but this makes the individual calls a bit messy because you have to remember to make each call to SVN::Client in list context and test the first value for errors. I would like to switch to using an error handler I would write; but $SVN::Error::handler is global, so I can't see any way that my callback can determine where the error came from, and what object to set an error code in. I wondered if I could use a pool for this purpose: so far I have ignored pools as irrelevant to working in Perl, but if I call a SVN::Client method with a pool I have created, will any SVN::Error object be created in the same pool? Has anybody any knowledge or experience which bears on this? [1]: http://search.cpan.org/~mschwern/Alien-SVN-1.4.6.0/src/subversion/subversion/bindings/swig/perl/native/Core.pm#svn_error_t_-_SVN::Error SVN::Core POD

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• Changing Apache2.2.11 httpd.conf has no effect

  - by Adrian

  Hi, Hopefully someone can help here. I recently installed wampserver ver 2.0 with Apache ver 2.2.11. My issue is, I have some large php scripts which timeout at the default 5 min (300 sec) browser limit (I'm using ie8). It is critcal I get this limit extended. I have tried changing the httpd.conf file to include the following: TimeOut 1200 My objective was to set the timeout at 1200 seconds, or 20 min. I had just chosen a random location to place this directive within the httpd.conf file as I cannot locate any documentation to suggest it belongs in a specific place within the file. Regardless, the changes I make appear in the httpd.conf file that can be found in the system tray for wampserver, however they have no effect - the browser still times out after 5 minutes. I thought perhaps I had the capitals incorrect, so I changed to: Timeout 1200 This change had no effect either. Can someone please help, this is very frustrating. Maybe the command can only be used within a specific module? If so, I have no idea which one, nor do I know the syntax to specify this. Regards Adrian.

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• Custom permalinks switching function. Please check this logic...

  - by Scott B

  I've got a setting in my theme options panel to allow the user to switch the permalinks setting to support friendly URLs. I'm only allowing /%postname%/ and /%postname%.html as options. I don't want to be triggering an htaccess rewrite everytime someone accesses a page on the site or views theme options, so I'm trying to code this to avoid that. I've got an input field in theme options that's called $myTheme_permalinks. The default value for this is "/%postname%/" but the user can also change it to "/%postname%.html" Here's the code at the top of theme options to handle this setting. Does this look sound? if(get_option('myTheme_permalinks') =="/%postname%/" && get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%/" || !get_option('myTheme_permalinks')) { require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure('/%postname%/'); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); update_option('permalink_structure','/%postname%/'); update_option('myTheme_permalinks','/%postname%/'); } else if (get_option('myTheme_permalinks') =="/%postname%.html" && get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%.html" && ) { require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure('/%postname%.html'); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); update_option('permalink_structure','/%postname%.html'); }

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• Jquery Returning values to original

  - by Cam

  So my script works perfectly, but here is the issue, I have buttons (Sprite action here) that are 40px height, but the top 20 only shows perfectly. When you click the button ie img the bottom 20px show perfecto! but... Issue, i included in my script a way to return all others to there default (only one should be selected) now, how can I fix this issue that I seem unable to correct as I can select multiple of them ** USERS can switch ** The last part of the script that is the issue. Thanks $(document).ready(function() { $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').show(); $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').removeClass('active'); }); $('.sub_theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').hide(); $('.form_sub').show(); $('.theader').removeClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').addClass('active'); }); $('.top_head_img').click(function() { $(this).css({ position: 'relative', bottom: '20px' }).siblings().css( 'bottom', '0' ); }); }); <ul class="top_head"> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('top');"><img src="custom/images/top2.jpg" alt="Left" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('center');"><img src="custom/images/mid2.jpg" alt="Center" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('bottom');"><img src="custom/images/bot2.jpg" alt="Right" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> </ul>

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• OUTPUT DID NOT REDIRECT TO THE INTENDED FILE OPENED FOR..

  - by rockyurock

  HELLO ALL, I USED THE BELOW CODE FOR CAPTURING THE OUTPUT (BELOW IN lines) IN A FILE "my_output.txt" BUT FAILED TO CAPTURE. **************output*************** inside value loop ------------------------------------------------------------ Server listening on UDP port 5001 Receiving 1470 byte datagrams UDP buffer size: 108 KByte (default) ------------------------------------------------------------ [ 3] local 192.168.16.2 port 5001 connected with 192.168.16.1 port 3189 [ ID] Interval Transfer Bandwidth Jitter Lost/Total Datagrams [ 3] 0.0- 5.0 sec 2.14 MBytes 3.61 Mbits/sec 0.369 ms 0/ 1528 (0%) inside value loop3 clue1 clue2 inside value loop4 one iperf completed *************************************** however when i enabled the local *STDOUT; in below code then i could see the above output on command prompt display (ofcourse server is sending some data). could anybody suggest me how can i capture the o/p in a file intended? below is the code i am using .. my $file = 'my_output.txt'; use Win32::Process; print"inside value loop\n"; # redirect stdout to a file #local *STDOUT; open STDOUT, '>', $file or die "can't redirect STDOUT to <$file> $!"; Win32::Process::Create(my $ProcessObj, "D:\\IOT_AUTOMATION_UTILITY\\_SATURDAY_09-04-10\\adb_cmd.bat", "adb shell /data/app/iperf -u -s -p 5001", 0, NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS, ".") || die ErrorReport(); #$alarm_time = $IPERF_RUN_TIME+10; #20sec #$ProcessObj->Wait(40); #print"inside value loop2\n"; #sleep $alarm_time; sleep 40; $ProcessObj->Kill(0); sub ErrorReport{ print Win32::FormatMessage( Win32::GetLastError() ); } /rocky

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• Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

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• Passing optional parameter by reference in c++

  - by Moomin

  I'm having a problem with optional function parameter in C++ What I'm trying to do is to write function with optional parameter which is passed by reference, so that I can use it in two ways (1) and (2), but on (2) I don't really care what is the value of mFoobar. I've tried such a code: void foo(double &bar, double &foobar = NULL) { bar = 100; foobar = 150; } int main() { double mBar(0),mFoobar(0); foo(mBar,mFoobar); // (1) cout << mBar << mFoobar; mBar = 0; mFoobar = 0; foo(mBar); // (2) cout << mBar << mFoobar; return 0; } but it crashes at void foo(double &bar, double &foobar = NULL) with message : error: default argument for 'double& foobar' has type 'int' Is it possible to solve it without function overloading? Thanks in advance for any suggestions. Pawel

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• entity framework vNext wish list

  - by Fred Yang

  I have been intensively studying and use ef4 in my project. I do feel the improvement that it has over version 1. But I found that I have something I cannot get around easily. Here is a list I want it to be better in ef vNext. the model designer should allow multiple view of the same model, so that I don't need cram all my entity into a single view. respect user's manual edit of edmx. Currently, the some database view object simply can not be imported to the model because the designer "smartly" think that the view does not have a primary key, so that I have to manually edit the edmx to correct designer's behavior. But in the next "update from database" task, designer will revert my customization. For now, I simply fallback to manually edit the edmx file at all, or I have to use compare tool to keep the new update, and rollback and put the new update into my old edmx file manually. Designer should be improved to allow default behavior and user's manual control. I want control not to let the designer refresh the change of imported object. support user defined table function. linq is about Composability, stored proc dos not support composability. I wish I could use user defined table function which support this. What are you wishes for EF vNext?

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