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  • Mapping self-table one-to-many using non-PK clolumns

    - by Harel Moshe
    Hey, i have a legacy DB to which a Person object is mapped, having a collection of family-members, like this: class Person { ... string Id; /* 9-digits string */ IList<Person> Family; ... } The PERSON table seems like: Id: CHAR(9), PK FamilyId: INT, NOT NULL and several other non-relevant columns. I'm trying to map the Family collection to the PERSON table using the FamilyId column, which is not the PK as mentioned above. So, i actually have a one-to-many which is self-table-referential. I'm getting an error saying 'Cast is not valid' when my mapping looks like this: ... <set name="Family" table="Person" lazy="false"> <key column="FamilyId" /> <one-to-many class="Person" /> </set> ... because obviously, the join NHibernate is trying to make is between the PK column, Id, and the 'secondary' column, FamilyId, instead of joining the FamilyId column to itself. Any ideas please?

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  • C# Using Enumerable Range and Except with custom class to determine missing sequence number

    - by Jon
    I have a List<MyClass> The class is like this: private class MyClass { public string Name{ get; set; } public int SequenceNumber { get; set; } } I want to work out what Sequence numbers might be missing. I can see how to do this here however because this is a class I am unsure what to do? I think I can handle the except method ok with my own IComparer but the Range method I can't figure out because it only excepts int so this doesn't compile: Enumerable.Range(0, 1000000).Except(chqList, MyEqualityComparer<MyClass>); Here is the IComparer: public class MyEqualityComparer<T> : IEqualityComparer<T> where T : MyClass { #region IEqualityComparer<T> Members public bool Equals(T x, T y) { return (x == null && y == null) || (x != null && y != null && x.SequenceNumber.Equals(y.SequenceNumber)); } /// </exception> public int GetHashCode(T obj) { if (obj == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("obj"); } return obj.GetHashCode(); } #endregion }

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  • Splitting an image in GWT results in unwanted white space

    - by rancidfishbreath
    I am using GWT 2.03 and am have an image that I want to place partially in an area with a background and partially above a background. I am using a FlexTable to try to accomplish this and have used GIMP to cut the image into two sections. I am trying to load the top part of the image into row 0 and the bottom part of the image into row 1. I set the alignment of the top image to ALIGN_BOTTOM but there is a bit of space at the bottom of cell and so the two parts of the picture don't touch. Here is an image showing what I am talking about. I set the background of the cell to be yellow show where the cell boundaries are. The bottom image and background are rendering correctly. Here is the relevant code snippet: FlexTable table = new FlexTable(); table.setCellSpacing(0); table.setCellPadding(0); table.setBorderWidth(0); FlexCellFormatter formatter = table.getFlexCellFormatter(); table.setWidget(0, 0, topImage); formatter.setStyleName(0, 0, "topImageStyle"); formatter.setVerticalAlignment(0, 0, HasVerticalAlignment.ALIGN_BOTTOM); table.setWidget(1, 0, bottomImage); formatter.setStyleName(1, 0, "bottomImageStyle"); How can I get rid of that space between my image and the cell boundary?

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  • Getting jQuery to return an ajax object

    - by japancheese
    Hello, The question title is a bit strange because I'm not exactly sure how to phrase the problem. The issue is that I have many links to which I want to bind a click event with an ajax call, and I'm just looking to refactor some duplicate code into a single area. The links I'm trying to bind an ajax call only have one thing that differentiates them, and that's an id from a previously declared object. So I have lots of code that looks like this: $("a.link").bind('click', function() { id = obj.id; $.ajax({ url: "/set/" + id, dataType: 'json', type: "POST" }) }); I was trying to refactor it into something like this: $("a.link").bind('click', ajax_link(obj.id)); function ajax_link(id) { $.ajax({ url: "/set/" + id, dataType: 'json', type: "POST" }) }); However, as you can imagine, this just actually makes the ajax call when the element is binded with the click event. Is there an easy way to refactor this code so I can extract out the common ajax code into its own function, and hopefully reduce the number of lines of jQuery in my current script?

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  • sending HTML email with a variable in the URL

    - by Rob Crouch
    I am using the following script to send a dynamic page (php) as a html email... the page being emailed uses a variable in the URL to determine what record is shown from a database <? $evid = $_GET['evid']; $to = '[email protected]'; $subject = 'A test email!'; // To send HTML mail, the Content-type header must be set $headers = 'MIME-Version: 1.0' . "\r\n"; $headers .= 'Content-type: text/html; charset=iso-8859-1' . "\r\n"; // Put your HTML here $message = file_get_contents('http://www.url.co.uk/diary/i.php?evid=2'); // Mail it mail($to, $subject, $message, $headers); ?> as you can see the html file being emailed has a evid variable... if i set this to $evid and try to send the variable when running the current script I get an error... does anyone know of a way round this? hope i explained that clear enough Rob

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  • Unhandled exception when DataTemplate created dynamically using Silverlight 3.0

    - by user333397
    Requirement is to create a reusable multi-select combobox custom control. To accomplish this, I am creating the DataTemplate dynamically through code and set the combobox ItemTemplate. I am able to load the datatemplate dynamically and set the ItemTemplate, but getting unhandled exception (code: 7054) when we select the combobox. Here is the code Class MultiSelCombBox: ComboBox { public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); CreateTemplate(); } void CreateTemplate() { DataTemplate dt = null; if (CreateItemTemplate) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(CheckBoxBind)) { dt = XamlReader.Load(@"<DataTemplate xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""DropDownTemplate""><Grid xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""CheckboxGrid""><TextBox xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""test"" xml:space=""preserve"" Text='{Binding " + TextContent + "}'/></Grid></DataTemplate>") as DataTemplate; this.ItemTemplate = dt; } } } //Other code goes here }} what am i doing wrong? suggestion?

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  • Clarification needed: How does .NET runtime resolve assembly references from parent folder?

    - by aoven
    I have the following output structure of executables in my solution: %ProgramFiles% | +-[MyAppName] | +-[Client] | | | +-(EXE & several DLL assemblies) | +-[Common] | | | +-[Schema Assemblies] | | | | | +-(several DLL assemblies) | | | +-(several DLL assemblies) | +-[Server] | +-(EXE & several DLL assemblies) Each project in solution references different DLL assemblies, some of which are outputs from other projects in solution, and others are plain 3rd-party assemblies. For example, [Client] EXE might reference an assembly in [Common], which is in a different directory branch. All references have "Copy Local" set to false, to mirror the layout of the files in the final installed application. Now, if I take a look at reference properties in the Visual Studio IDE, I see that "Path" of every reference is absolute and that it corresponds to the actual output location of the assembly. That's understandable and correct. As expected, solution compiles and runs just fine. What I don't understand is, why everything seems to work even when I close the IDE, rename the [MyAppName] directory and run the [Client] EXE manually? How does the runtime find the assemblies if the reference paths aren't the same as they were at the time of linking? To be clear - this is actually exactly what I'm after: a semi-dispersed set of application files that run fine regardless of where the [MyAppName] directory is located or even what it's named. I'd just like to know, how and why this works without any specific path resolution on my part. I've read the answers to this similar question, but I still don't get it. Help much appreciated!

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  • Core Data: Inverse relationship only mirrors when I edit the mutableset. Not sure why.

    - by zorn
    My model is setup so Business has many clients, Client has one business. Inverse relationship is setup in the mom file. I have a unit test like this: - (void)testNewClientFromBusiness { PTBusiness *business = [modelController newBusiness]; STAssertTrue([[business clients] count] == 0, @"is actually %d", [[business clients] count]); PTClient *client = [business newClient]; STAssertTrue([business isEqual:[client business]], nil); STAssertTrue([[business clients] count] == 1, @"is actually %d", [[business clients] count]); } I implement -newClient inside of PTBusiness like this: - (PTClient *)newClient { PTClient *client = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Client" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; [client setBusiness:self]; [client updateLocalDefaultsBasedOnBusiness]; return client; } The test fails because [[business clients] count] is still 0 after -newClient is called. If I impliment it like this: - (PTClient *)newClient { PTClient *client = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Client" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; NSMutableSet *group = [self mutableSetValueForKey:@"clients"]; [group addObject:client]; [client updateLocalDefaultsBasedOnBusiness]; return client; } The tests passes. My question(s): So am I right in thinking the inverse relationship is only updated when I interact with the mutable set? That seems to go against some other Core Data docs I've read. Is the fact that this is running in a unit test without a run loop have anything to do with it? Any other troubleshooting recommendations? I'd really like to figure out why I can't set up the relationship at the client end.

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  • Internal bug tracking tickets - Redmine, Trac, or JIRA

    - by Tai Squared
    I've been looking at setting up Redmine, Trac, or JIRA to track issues. I want to be able to have my development team create internal tickets that are never seen by clients, while clients can create/edit tickets that are seen by the internal team. From the Trac documentation, you can set permissions to create or view tickets, but it doesn't seem to allow for viewing only certain tickets. It may be possible with Trac Fine Grained Permissions, but doesn't appear so. The Redmine documentation mentions: Define your own roles and set their permissions in a click but doesn't appear to have the level of granularity. From the JIRA documentation: At the moment JIRA is only able to support security at a project level or issue level. Currently there is no field level security available. According to this question, Redmine doesn't support internal tickets, so you would have to use multiple projects. I don't want a situation where I would have to create multiple projects - one internal, one external and have the external tickets brought into the internal repository. It seems as this would lead to unnecessary overhead and inevitably, the projects wouldn't be in sync. Is there any way with any of these products (possibly through a plug-in if not in the core product itself) to specify these permissions, or simplify having two projects with different users and permissions that must still share information?

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  • Pseudo code for instruction description

    - by Claus
    Hi, I am just trying to fiddle around what is the best and shortest way to describe two simple instructions with C-like pseudo code. The extract instruction is defined as follows: extract rd, rs, imm This instruction extracts the appropriate byte from the 32-bit source register rs and right justifies it in the destination register. The byte is specified by imm and thus can take the values 0 (for the least-significant byte) and 3 (for the most-significant byte). rd = 0x0; // zero-extend result, ie to make sure bits 31 to 8 are set to zero in the result rd = (rs && (0xff << imm)) >> imm; // this extracts the approriate byte and stores it in rd The insert instruction can be regarded as the inverse operation and it takes a right justified byte from the source register rs and deposits it in the appropriate byte of the destination register rd; again, this byte is determined by the value of imm tmp = 0x0 XOR (rs << imm)) // shift the byte to the appropriate byte determined by imm rd = (rd && (0x00 << imm)) // set appropriate byte to zero in rd rd = rd XOR tmp // XOR the byte into the destination register This looks all a bit horrible, so I wonder if there is a little bit a more elegant way to describe this bahaviour in C-like style ;) Many thanks, Claus

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  • Dynamically bind argument and default value to existing function in Javascript

    - by Scott
    Let's suppose you have some function someFunc() already defined in javascript, that may or may not have its own argument set defined. Is it possible to write another function to add a required argument and set that argument to a default for someFunc()? Something like: var someFunc = function(arg1, arg2 ...){ Do stuff...} var addRequired = function(argName, argValue, fn) { Add the required default arg to a function... } addRequired("x", 20, someFunc); Now someFunc would be defined roughly like so: someFunc = function(x, arg1, arg2...) { x = 20; Do stuff... } What I am really seeking is to not only bind a this value to a function (which I already know how to achieve), but also bind another object reference to that same function (the function not being known ahead of time, as a user will define it, but then the user's code has access to this second object reference for use in their own function). So in my simple example above, the "20" value will actually be an object reference. Thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • How can I improve this design?

    - by klausbyskov
    Let's assume that our system can perform actions, and that an action requires some parameters to do its work. I have defined the following base class for all actions (simplified for your reading pleasure): public abstract class BaseBusinessAction<TActionParameters> : where TActionParameters : IActionParameters { protected BaseBusinessAction(TActionParameters actionParameters) { if (actionParameters == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("actionParameters"); this.Parameters = actionParameters; if (!ParametersAreValid()) throw new ArgumentException("Valid parameters must be supplied", "actionParameters"); } protected TActionParameters Parameters { get; private set; } protected abstract bool ParametersAreValid(); public void CommonMethod() { ... } } Only a concrete implementation of BaseBusinessAction knows how to validate that the parameters passed to it are valid, and therefore the ParametersAreValid is an abstract function. However, I want the base class constructor to enforce that the parameters passed are always valid, so I've added a call to ParametersAreValid to the constructor and I throw an exception when the function returns false. So far so good, right? Well, no. Code analysis is telling me to "not call overridable methods in constructors" which actually makes a lot of sense because when the base class's constructor is called the child class's constructor has not yet been called, and therefore the ParametersAreValid method may not have access to some critical member variable that the child class's constructor would set. So the question is this: How do I improve this design? Do I add a Func<bool, TActionParameters> parameter to the base class constructor? If I did: public class MyAction<MyParameters> { public MyAction(MyParameters actionParameters, bool something) : base(actionParameters, ValidateIt) { this.something = something; } private bool something; public static bool ValidateIt() { return something; } } This would work because ValidateIt is static, but I don't know... Is there a better way? Comments are very welcome.

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  • JavaEE : "Access to default session denied" when sending mail using smtp.gmail.com

    - by Harry Pham
    I am trying to write email authentication feature for my website and I encounter some issues. I got java.lang.SecurityException: Access to default session denied, when I try to do Session.getDefaultInstance. Here are my codes: private static final String SMTP_HOST_NAME = "smtp.gmail.com"; private static final String SMTP_PORT = "465"; private static final String emailSubjectTxt = "Email Confirmation"; private static final String emailFromAddress = "[email protected]"; private static final String SSL_FACTORY = "javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"; ... String sendTo = "[email protected]"; boolean debug = true; Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", SMTP_HOST_NAME); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.debug", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", SMTP_PORT); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", SMTP_PORT); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class", SSL_FACTORY); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.fallback", "false"); //It dies at the next line Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { @Override protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("myUserName", "myPassword"); } }); session.setDebug(debug); //Set the FROM address Message msg = new MimeMessage(session); InternetAddress addressFrom = new InternetAddress(emailFromAddress); msg.setFrom(addressFrom); //Set the TO address InternetAddress[] addressTo = new InternetAddress[1]; addressTo[0] = new InternetAddress(sendTo); msg.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, addressTo); //Construct the content of the email confirmation String message = "Test Content" // Setting the Subject and Content Type msg.setSubject(emailSubjectTxt); msg.setContent(message, "text/plain"); Transport.send(msg);

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  • jquery/javascript - image resize to fit screen

    - by alberto
    not an expert programmer. i created this code to resize photos/images to fit the screen, considering the space available for the nav bar. the script happens on load of image, and on click of the navigation. is it a good piece of code, or could it be done better? any browser issues? in the html: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#photo").load(function(){ resize(); }); $(".navigation img").click(function(){ var imgPath = $(this).attr("src"); $("#photo").attr({ src: imgPath }); resize(); return false; }); }); while this is my function resize: resize = function() { var borderVt=150; //value based on css style. bottom bar + padding of photoContain var borderHz=40; //value based on css style photoContain padding $("#photo").css("width", "auto").css("height", "auto"); // Remove existing CSS $("#photo").removeAttr("width").removeAttr("height"); // Remove HTML attributes var origSizeW = $("#photo").width(); var origSizeH = $("#photo").height(); var ratioVt=(origSizeW/origSizeH); var ratioHz=(origSizeH/origSizeW); var winW = $(window).width(); var winH = $(window).height(); var screenSizeW=Math.round(winW-borderHz); var screenSizeH=Math.round(winH-borderVt); if (origSizeW>=origSizeH){ var newHeight = Math.round(screenSizeW*ratioHz); if (newHeight <= screenSizeH){ $("#photo").css("width", screenSizeW); // Set new width $("#photo").css("height", newHeight); } else{ $("#photo").css("height", screenSizeH); } } else{ $("#photo").css("height", screenSizeH); // Set new height } };

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  • Intent.putExtras not consistent

    - by martinjd
    I have a weird situation with AlarmManager. I am scheduling an event with AlarmManager and passing in a string using intent.putExtra. The string is either silent or vibrate and when the receiver fires the phone should either turn of the ringer or set the phone to vibrate. The log statement correctly outputs the expected value each time. Intent intent; if (eventType.equals("start")) { intent = new Intent(context, SReceiver.class); } else { intent = new Intent(context, EReceiver.class); } intent.setAction(eventType+Long.toString(newId)); Log.v("EditQT",ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); intent.putExtra("ringerModeType", ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); PendingIntent appIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager) getSystemService (Context.ALARM_SERVICE); alarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, calendar.getTimeInMillis(), appIntent); The receiver that fires when the alarm executes also has a log statement and I can see the first time around that the statement outputs the expected string either SILENT or VIBRATE. The alarm executes and then I change the value for putExtra to opposite string and the receiver still displays the previous value event though the call from the code above shows that the new value was passed in. The value for setAction is the same each time. audioManager = (AudioManager) context.getSystemService(Activity.AUDIO_SERVICE); Log.v("Start",intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").toString()); if (intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").equals("SILENTMODE")) { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_SILENT); } else { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_VIBRATE); } Any thoughts?

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  • How make this special many2many fields validation using Django ORM?

    - by e-satis
    I have the folowing model: class Step(models.Model): order = models.IntegerField() latitude = models.FloatField() longitude = models.FloatField() date = DateField(blank=True, null=True) class Journey(models.Model): boat = models.ForeignKey(Boat) route = models.ManyToManyField(Step) departure = models.ForeignKey(Step, related_name="departure_of", null=True) arrival = models.ForeignKey(Step, related_name="arrival_of", null=True) I would like to implement the following check: # If a there is less than one step, raises ValidationError. routes = tuple(self.route.order_by("date")) if len(routes) <= 1: raise ValidationError("There must be at least two setps in the route") # save the first and the last step as departure and arrival self.departure = routes[0] self.arrival = routes[-1] # departure and arrival must at least have a date if not (self.departure.date or self.arrival.date): raise ValidationError("There must be an departure and an arrival date. " "Please set the date field for the first and last Step of the Journey") # departure must occurs before arrival if not (self.departure.date > self.arrival.date): raise ValidationError("Departure must take place the same day or any date before arrival. " "Please set accordingly the date field for the first and last Step of the Journey") I tried to do that by overloading save(). Unfortunately, Journey.route is empty in save(). What's more, Journey.id doesn't exists yet. I didn't try django.db.models.signals.post_save but suppose it will fail because Journey.route is empty as well (when does this get filled anyway?). I see a solution in django.db.models.signals.m2m_changed but there are a lot of steps (thousands), and I want to avoid to perform an operation for every single of them.

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  • Removing a view from it's superview causes memory error - why?

    - by mystify
    Xcode is throwing an error at me: malloc: * error for object 0x103f000: pointer being freed was not allocated * set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug I tracked down the code until a line where I do this: - (void)inputValueCommitted:(NSString *)animationID finished:(BOOL)finished context:(void *)context { // retainCount of myView is 2! (one for the retain-property, one for beeing a subview) [self.myView removeFromSuperview]; // ERROR-LINE !! self.myView = nil; } When I remove that errorful line, the error is gone. So in conclusion: I can't get rid of my view! It's an UIImageView with nothing else inside, just showing an image. What I do is this: I create an UIView Animation Block, create that UIImageView, assign it to an retain-property with self.myView = ..., and after the animation is done, I just want to get rid of that view. So I remove it from it's superview and then set my property to nil, which lets it go away - in theory. Did anyone else encounter such issues? iPhone SDK 3.0.

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  • VB.NET handling data between different forms

    - by niuchu
    Hi, I'm writing a simple application - address book. User enters new addresses and they are added as an entry to a list visible on the main form (frmStart). I use one form to add and edit (AddContForm). Add button on the frmStart works fine, however I experience some problems with the edit button as when I press it and enter new data they are added as new entry however the previous entry is still there. Logic is handled by Contact.vb class. Please let me know how to fix this problem. Here is the code: Contact.vb Public Class Contact Public Contact As String Public Title As String Public Fname As String Public Surname As String Public Address As String Private myCont As String Public Property Cont() Get Return myCont End Get Set(ByVal value) myCont = Value End Set End Property Public Overrides Function ToString() As String Return Me.Cont End Function Public Sub Display() Dim C As New Contact C.Cont = frmAddCont.txtTitle.Text C.Fname = frmAddCont.txtFName.Text C.Surname = frmAddCont.txtSName.Text C.Address = frmAddCont.txtAddress.Text frmStart.lstContact.Items.Add(C) End Sub End Class Here is frmStart.vb Public Class frmStart Public Button As String Private Sub btnAdd_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnAdd.Click Button = "" Button = "Add" frmAddCont.ShowDialog() End Sub Private Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnDel.Click Button = "" Button = "Del" Dim DelCont As Contact DelCont = Me.lstContact.SelectedItem() lstContact.Items.Remove(DelCont) End Sub Private Sub lstContact_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles lstContact.SelectedIndexChanged End Sub Private Sub btnEdit_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnEdit.Click Button = "" Button = "Edit" Dim C As Contact If lstContact.SelectedItem IsNot Nothing Then C = DirectCast(lstContact.SelectedItem, Contact) frmAddCont.ShowDialog() End If End Sub End Class Here is AddContFrm.vb Public Class frmAddCont Public Class ControlObject Dim Title As String Dim FName As String Dim SName As String Dim Address As String Dim TelephoneNumber As Integer Dim emailAddress As String Dim Website As String Dim Photograph As String End Class Private Sub btnConfirmAdd_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnConfirmAdd.Click Dim B As String B = frmStart.Button Dim C As New Contact C.Display() Me.Hide() If B = "Edit" Then C = DirectCast(frmStart.lstContact.SelectedItem, Contact) frmStart.lstContact.SelectedItems.Remove(C) End If End Sub Private Sub frmAddCont_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load End Sub End Class

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  • SQL Server 2008: Comparing similar records - Need to still display an ID for a record when the JOIN has no matches

    - by aleppke
    I'm writing a SQL Server 2008 report that will compare genetic test results for animals. A genetic test consists of an animalId, a gene and a result. Not all animals will have the same genes tested but I need to be able to display the results side-by-side for a given set of animals and only include the genes that are present for at least one of the selected animals. My TestResult table has the following data in it: animalId gene result 1 a CC 1 b CT 1 d TT 2 a CT 2 b CT 2 c TT 3 a CT 3 b TT 3 c CC 3 d CC 3 e TT I need to generate a result set that looks like the following. Note that Animal 3 is not being displayed (user doesn't want to see its results) and neither are results for Gene "e" since neither Animal 1 nor Animal 2 have a result for that gene: SireID SireResult CalfID CalfResult Gene 1 CC 2 CT a 1 CT 2 CT b 1 NULL 2 TT c 1 TT 2 NULL d But I can only manage to get this: SireID SireResult CalfID CalfResult Gene 1 CC 2 CT a 1 CT 2 CT b NULL NULL 2 TT c 1 TT NULL NULL d This is the query I'm using. SELECT sire.animalId AS 'SireID' ,sire.result AS 'SireResult' ,calf.animalId AS 'CalfID' ,calf.result AS 'CalfResult' ,sire.gene AS 'Gene' FROM (SELECT s.animalId ,s.result ,m1.gene FROM (SELECT [animalId ] ,result ,gene FROM TestResult WHERE animalId IN (1)) s FULL JOIN (SELECT DISTINCT gene FROM TestResult WHERE animalId IN (1, 2)) m1 ON s.marker = m1.marker) sire FULL JOIN (SELECT c.animalId ,c.result ,m2.gene FROM (SELECT animalId ,result ,gene FROM TestResult WHERE animalId IN (2)) c FULL JOIN (SELECT DISTINCT gene FROM TestResult WHERE animalId IN (1, 2)) m2 ON c.gene = m2.gene) calf ON sire.gene = calf.gene How do I get the SireIDs and CalfIDs to display their values when they don't have a record associated with a particular Gene? I was thinking of using COALESCE but I can't figure out how to specify the correct animalId to pass in. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • wpf c# databinding on object

    - by Enriquev
    Hello, say I have this control: public partial class bloc999 : UserControl { bloc999Data mainBlock = new bloc999Data(); public bloc999() { InitializeComponent(); mainBlock.txtContents = "100"; base.DataContext = mainBlock; } } in the xaml: <TextBox Margin="74,116,106,0" Name="txtContents" Text="{Binding Path=txtContents, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged,Mode = TwoWay}" /> <TextBox Margin="74,145,106,132" Name="txtContents2" Text="{Binding Path=txtContents2, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged,Mode = TwoWay}" /> Then I have this class: public class bloc999Data : INotifyPropertyChanged { string _txtContents; string _txtContents2; public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged( this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propName)); } public string txtContents2 { get { return this._txtContents2; } set { if (int.Parse(value) > int.Parse(this._txtContents)) { this._txtContents2 = "000"; } else this._txtContents2 = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("txtContents2"); } } public string txtContents { get { return this._txtContents; } set { this._txtContents = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("txtContents"); } } } Ok now say I have A button on the form and I do this in the code: mainBlock.txtContents2 = "7777777"; It puts 000 in the textbox, but If i just type in manually, in the textbox (txtContents2, the setter code is called but for some reason the textboxes value does not change, the instance value does change. help?

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  • How to compile ocaml to native code

    - by Indra Ginanjar
    i'm really interested learning ocaml, it fast (they said it could be compiled to native code) and it's functional. So i tried to code something easy like enabling mysql event scheduler. #load "unix.cma";; #directory "+mysql";; #load "mysql.cma";; let db = Mysql.quick_connect ~user:"username" ~password:"userpassword" ~database:"databasename"();; let sql = Printf.sprintf "SET GLOBAL EVENT_SCHEDULER=1;" in (Mysql.exec db sql);; It work fine on ocaml interpreter, but when i was trying to compile it to native (i'm using ubuntu karmic), neither of these command worked ocamlopt -o mysqleventon mysqleventon.ml unix.cmxa mysql.cmxa ocamlopt -o mysqleventon mysqleventon.ml unix.cma mysql.cma i also tried ocamlc -c mysqleventon.ml unix.cma mysql.cma all of them resulting same message File "mysqleventon.ml", line 1, characters 0-1: Error: Syntax error Then i tried to remove the "# load", so the code goes like this let db = Mysql.quick_connect ~user:"username" ~password:"userpassword" ~database:"databasename"();; let sql = Printf.sprintf "SET GLOBAL EVENT_SCHEDULER=1;" in (Mysql.exec db sql);; The ocamlopt resulting message File "mysqleventon.ml", line 1, characters 9-28: Error: Unbound value Mysql.quick_connect I hope someone could tell me, where did i'm doing wrong.

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  • .NET RichTextBox: unable to change Rtf property.

    - by Dave
    Hey guys, Perhaps I'm missing something real simple here, but I've been struggling to change the RTF property of my RichTextBox in order to apply some color coding to my text. Probably the most straight-forward example of the problem I'm having is setting the Rtf property to include a color table in its header. The default RTF string returned by the Rtf property: {\rtf1\ansi\ansicpg1252\deff0\deflang1033{\fonttbl{\f0\fnil\fcharset0 Microsoft Sans Serif;}}\viewkind4\uc1\pard\f0\fs17\par} And the new RTF string I'd like to set with my color table: {\rtf1\ansi\ansicpg1252\deff0\deflang1033{\fonttbl{\f0\fnil\fcharset0 Microsoft Sans Serif;}{\colortbl;\red128\green0\blue0;\red0\green128\blue0;\red0\green0\blue255;}}\viewkind4\uc1\pard\f0\fs17\par} And I set this using: RichTextBox richTextBox = new RichTextBox(); richTextBox.Rtf = rtfStr; // My new RTF string, as seen above. However, via debugger, it can be observed the that Rtf property stubbornly refuses to change; no exceptions are thrown, it just refuses to change. Same issue happens when I string.Replace() words to include RTF color tags around them. I've also tried turning off any ReadOnly properties on the text box. Any suggestions would be most helpful, thanks! Dave

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  • How to use the Request URL/URL Rewriting For Localization in ASP.NET - Using an HTTP Module or Globa

    - by LocalizedUrlDMan
    I wanted to see if there is a way to use the request URL/URL rewriting to set the language a page is rendered in by examining a portion of the URL in ASP.NET. We have a site that already works with ASP.NET’s resource localization and user’s can change the language that they see pages/resources on the site in, however the current mechanism in not very search engine friendly since the language variations for each language all appear as one page. It would be much better if we could have pages like www.site.com/en-mx/realfolder/realpage.aspx that allow linking to culture specific versions of a page. I know lots of people have likely done localization through URL structures before and I wanted to know if one of your could share how to do this in the Global.asax file or with an HTTP Module (pointing to links to blog postings would be great too). We have a restriction that the site is based on ASP.NET 2.0 (so we can't used the 3.5+ features yet). Here is the example scenario: A real page exits at: www.site.com/realfolder/realpage.aspx The page has a mechanism for the user to change the language it is displayed in via a dropdown. There are search engine optimization and user links sharing benefits to doing this since people can link directly to a page that has content that is applicable to a certain language (this could also include right-to-left layouts for languages like Japanese). I would like to use an HTTP module to see if the first part of the URL after www.site.com, site.com, subdomain.site.com, etc. contains a valid culture code (e.g. en-us, es-mx) then use that value to set the localization culture of the page/resources based on that URL. So if the user accesses the URL www.site.com/en-MX/realfolder/realpage.aspx Then the page will render in Mexico’s variant of Spanish. If the user goes to www.site.com/realfolder/realpage.aspx directly the page would just use their browser’s language settings.

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  • How to customize the content of each page using Page Control and UIScrollView?

    - by viper15
    I have problem with customizing each page using pagecontrol and UIScrollView. I'm customizing Page Control from Apple. Basically I would like to have each page different with text and image alternately on different page. Page 1 will have all text, Page 2 will have just images, Page 3 will have all text and goes on. This is original code: // Set the label and background color when the view has finished loading. - (void)viewDidLoad { pageNumberLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Page %d", pageNumber + 1]; self.view.backgroundColor = [MyViewController pageControlColorWithIndex:pageNumber]; } As you can see, this code shows only Page 1, Page 2 etc as you scroll right. I tried to put in this new code but that didn't make any difference. There's no error. I know this is pretty simple code. I don't why it doesn't work. I declare pageText as UILabel. // Set the label and background color when the view has finished loading. - (void)viewDidLoad { pageNumberLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Page %d", pageNumber + 1]; self.view.backgroundColor = [MyViewController pageControlColorWithIndex:pageNumber]; if (pageNumber == 1) { pageText.text = @"Text in page 1"; } if (pageNumber == 2) { pageText.text = @"Image in page 2"; } if (pageNumber == 3) { pageText.text = @"Text in page 3"; } } I don't know why it doesn't work. Also if you have better way to do it, let me know. Thanks.

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  • Drupal workflow action access integrated with taxonomy access control?

    - by groovehunter
    hi, I am building a DMS for our intranet and use a taxonomy hierarchy because we need access control that way. All company locations manage (upload,edit) their own documents but should be able to access all. This is inherited to the child terms and works fine. Additionally we want simple 3-step workflow (draft,published,archived). So i introduced roles for editor, publisher and docadmin and set permissions for the transitions. Also triggers to effectivly (un)publish documents. But (of course) a user of role publisher can do the transition for ALL documents. But we want publisher for each company location (top taxonomy level, see above). Could this be achieved? Do i have to set it up by myself (i guess "rules" is appropriate to do this) or is there another module helping. role inheritance was a guess, but that is only about roles (naturally). "module grants" i use and checked first option. That way my thoughts are going. I hope you get my idea resp. problem. drupal 6.16 current edit: I reread the docs and found ie. http://drupal.org/node/408018 Revisioning for categorized content. Will reread that.

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