Search Results

Search found 33139 results on 1326 pages for 'embedded database'.

Page 753/1326 | < Previous Page | 749 750 751 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760  | Next Page >

  • Why does Hibernate ignore the JPA2 standardized properties in my persistence.xml?

    - by Ophidian
    I have an extremely simple web application running in Tomcat using Spring 3.0.1, Hibernate 3.5.1, JPA 2, and Derby. I am defining all of my database connectivity in persistence.xml and merely using Spring for dependency injection. I am using embedded Derby as my database. Everything works correctly when I define the driver and url properties in persistence.xml in the classic Hibernate manner as thus: <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> The problems occur when I switch my configuration to the JPA2 standardized properties as thus: <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> When using the JPA2 property keys, the application bails hard with the following exception: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: The user must supply a JDBC connection Does anyone know why this is failing? NOTE: I have copied the javax... property strings straight from the Hibernate reference documentation, so a typo is extremely unlikely.

    Read the article

  • SQL Express Edition, SQL Compact Editin and SQLCMD for learning purpose

    - by Mil
    Hi, I want to learn programming in SQL from some SQL tutorial sites of which I heard of here but I need some environment for executing query's. I think I have both SQL CE and SQL EE installed on my computer but I have some doubts about these DBMS and I don't know exactly how to use SQLCMD utility so I hope someone here will have time and will to explain me the following: Since running sqlcmd -S.\sqlexpress at command prompt command gives "1" prompt I assume I have SQL express installed but anyway how can I be sure what I have installed on my machine since I cannot find in installed programs SQL Express Edition name? Can I ship and use database with my C# (VC# Express) application which was created with SQL EE (embedded?)? How can use sqlcmd for learning SQL, that is by issuing commands like create, use, select..., again emphasize is on learning SQL I do not want to run scripts but use interactive command prompt like with MySQL (since I want to use SQL I would pretty much like to avoid graphical tools for DBMS)? Please tell me if you have some other advice regarding as to what should I better use in learning how to program in SQL or should I stick with the above for now. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • how to changed editext values from first to last in customise listview in android

    - by prakash
    i am getting menunames from database then append to the custom listview edittext . now i am changing some values in edittext . i want all values with changed values of edittext into array Example :x,y,z menunames comes from database i append editext(Custom listview) now i am changed y to b now i want x,b,z in arraylist i try this code(Base adapter class) public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { final ViewHolder holder; if (convertView == null) { holder = new ViewHolder(); convertView = inflater.inflate(R.layout.editmainmenulist, null); holder.caption = (EditText) convertView .findViewById(R.id.editmaimenu); holder.caption1=(ImageView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.menuimage); convertView.setTag(holder); } else { holder = (ViewHolder) convertView.getTag(); } //Fill EditText with the value you have in data source holder.caption.setText(itemnames[position]); holder.caption.setId(position); holder.caption1.setImageBitmap(bmps[position]); arr.add(holder.caption.getText().toString());//here i get menunames data only not changed edittext values return convertView; } } class ViewHolder { EditText caption; ImageView caption1; } class ListItem { String caption; } please help me

    Read the article

  • "Link" against a SWC in Flex

    - by ggambett
    I'm trying to do a very simple app in Flash/Flex, that loads an image embedded in the swf itself and then shows it. The thing is I'm trying to do it using the command line only (mxmlc and compc) and without using @Embed, and failing miserably. I have a very simple Main.as : package { import flash.display.*; import flash.utils.*; public class Main extends Sprite { public function Main () : void { var pDef:Class = getDefinitionByName("icon_big.png") as Class; var _image:BitmapData = new pDef(0, 0); var pSprite:Sprite = new Sprite(); pSprite.graphics.beginBitmapFill(_image); pSprite.graphics.drawRect(0, 0, _image.width, _image.height); pSprite.graphics.endFill(); addChild(pSprite); } } } This works fine if I add icon_big.png to the Library using the Flash IDE, but I can't figure out how to do it from the command line. I'm using compc to put the png inside a swc : compc --include-file icon_big.png icon_big.png -output assets.swc This generates a 17 kb assets.swf, slightly bigger than icon_big.png. Then I try to compile and link Main.as : mxmlc -include-libraries+=assets.swc Main.as This produces a 944 byte Main.swf, which clearly doesn't include the asset, and fails at runtime. According to the mxmlc docs I found, -include-libraries should link with every class, including the ones not directly referenced by code (as is the case here, since I'm getting the class from code), and it unsurprisingly fails at runtime. Note that this same code (or, more precisely, quite equivalent code) works when used within a Flash project - I'm not looking to fix the code, but how to do in the command line whatever Flash does internally. I feel I'm just "not getting" something... any clues?

    Read the article

  • jQuery ajax post failing in asp

    - by Dave Kiss
    hey guys, this might be really stupid, but hopefully someone can help. I'm trying to post to an external script using ajax so i can mail the data, but for some reason my data is not making it to the script. $(document).ready(function() { $("#submitContactForm").click(function () { $('#loading').append('<img src="http://www.xxxxxxxx.com/demo/copyshop/images/loading.gif" alt="Currently Loading" id="loadingComment" />'); var name = $('#name').val(); var email = $('#email').val(); var comment = $('#comment').val(); var dataString = 'name='+ name + '&email=' + email + '&comment=' + comment; $.ajax({ url: 'http://www.xxxxx.com/demo/copyshop/php/sendmail.php', type: 'POST', data: '?name=Dave&[email protected]&comment=hiiii', success: function(result) { $('#loading').append('success'); } }); return false; }); }); the php script is simple (for now - just wanted to make sure it worked) <?php $name = $_POST['name']; $email = $_POST['email']; $comment = $_POST['comment']; $to = '[email protected]'; $subject = 'New Contact Inquiry'; $message = $comment; mail($to, $subject, $message); ?> the jquery is embedded in an .aspx page (a language i'm not familiar with) but is posting to a php script. i'm receiving emails properly but there is no data inside. am i missing something? i tried to bypass the variables in this example, but its still not working thanks

    Read the article

  • Bidirectional replication update record problem

    - by Mirek
    Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

    Read the article

  • Are dots legal in the name property of an HTML button

    - by justSteve
    a page with a bit of MVC code: <%=Html.SubmitButton("ChooseWebinar.Submit", "Continue to Registration Details")%><br/> that generates an input button where the '.' is embedded in the name: [rendered html] At page load this control (the submit button) is hidden - when one of two different dropdowns registers a value, the button is shown: function toggleChooseWebinarSubmit() { if ($("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val() || $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").show(); } else { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").hide(); } I've just received a report from an IE8 user who says that after selecting a value in a dropdown, the button is _not displaying. I can't reproduce the condition (i've tried compatibility mode too). Obviously the show/hide is targeting the 'ID' selector but i can't help but wonder about that period in the control's name. Any known issues? - or perhaps the .change is problematic and the toggle's never getting called: $(window).load(function() { toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); }); thx

    Read the article

  • How can I create a finger scrollable Textbox in WM 6.5?

    - by Papajohn
    Hi everybody. I just noticed something weird in WM 6.5 emulators. Unlike 6.1 where finger panning kind of worked, the only way to scroll a Textbox appears to be through scrollbars. This behaviour is in contrast to what they have done for comboboxes: they are now gesture-friendly without the programmer's intervention. I.e. the user can select a choice from a standard drop down menu by panning and scrolling. Previously, you had to use the embedded scrollbar. The combobox's case implies that MS took some measures to provide standard gesture support for classic finger gestures, yet I cannot see something similar for textboxes. This makes me ask the following: Is there anything that can be done to make textboxes finger scrollabe easily? Note that I refer to managed .NET CF development. It is my understanding that in native development I could use the new Gestures API to achieve the scrolling effect. Yet, I am not sure if there is an easier and more straightforward method that I have missed.

    Read the article

  • retrieving object information with Doctrine

    - by ajsie
    i want to fetch information from the database using objects. i really like this approach cause this is more OOP: $user = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->find(1); echo $user->Email['address']; echo $user->Phonenumbers[0]->phonenumber; rather than: $q = Doctrine_Query::create() ->from('User u') ->leftJoin('u.Email e') ->leftJoin('u.Phonenumbers p') ->where('u.id = ?', 1); $user = $q->fetchOne(); echo $user->Email['address']; echo $user->Phonenumbers[0]['phonenumber']; the problem is that the first one uses 3 queries (3 different tables), while the second one uses only 1 (and is therefore recommended technique). but i feel that it destroys the object oriented design. cause ORM is meant to give us an OOP approach so that we could focus on objects and not the relational database. but now they want us to go back to use SQL like pattern. there isn't a way to get information form multiple tables not using DQL? the above examples are taken from the documentation: doctrine

    Read the article

  • [ZF & jQuery] How can I access an URL using AJAX, receive no response, but just manipulate HTML?

    - by rasouza
    I don't know if it's better used with AJAX (tell me, otherwise) but here is my problem: Assuming i'm using Zend Framework, I have a table with several registries from a database with a delete button on each row. That's like this [...] <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a href="#" id="<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>" class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> [...] I would like to .fadeOut() and delete (through the link history/delete/id/ROW_ID ) a table row when clicked in the respective delete button. My deleteAction() has no render. It really shouldn't have one, it just deletes a row in the database. Still, how can I make it happen? I tried: // TR Fading when deleted $('.delete') .click(function() { $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: 'history/delete/id/'+$(this).attr('id'), success: function() { $(this).parent().parent().fadeOut(); } }); return false; }); without success

    Read the article

  • Extensionless URLs in IIS 6

    - by Jason Marsell
    My client has asked me to build a personalized URL system so that they can send out really short URLs in postcards to customers like this: www.client.com/JasonSmith03 www.client.com/TonyAdams With these URLs, I need IIS 6 to trap the incoming request and pass that “JasonSmith03” token to my database to determine which landing page to redirect them to. I’d love to use an HttpHandler or HttpModule but they both look like they require an file extension (.aspx) in the URL. Wildcard mapping will chew up every incoming request and that’s ridiculous. ISAPI filters are just text routing files, so I can’t employ logic to call the database. According to Scott Guthrie, this would be cake if I had IIS 7, but I don’t. Can this be done using MVC? I’ve been working with MVP for the last few years, so I haven’t done any MVC and routing. I thought I remembered that MVC has the ability to use REST-style extensionless URLs. I’d be more than happy to have these personalized URLs land on a site that’s built in MVC, if it will work. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Is it necessary to "escape" character "<" and ">" for javascript string?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    Sometimes, server side will generate strings to be embedded in inline JavaScript code. For example, if "UserName" should be generated by ASP.NET. Then it looks like. <script> var username = "<%UserName%>"; </script> This is not safe, because a user can have his/her name to be </script><script>alert('bug')</script></script> It is XSS vulnerability. So, basically, the code should be: <script> var username = "<% JavascriptEncode(UserName)%>"; </script> What JavascriptEncode does is to add charater "\" before "/" and "'" and """. So, the output html is like. var username = "<\/scriptalert(\'bug\')<\/script<\/script"; Browser will not interpret "<\/script" as end of script block. So, XSS in avoided. However, there are still "<" and "" there. It is suggested to escape these two characters as well. First of all, I don't believe it is a good idea to change "<" to "&lt;" and "" to "&gt;" here. And, I'm not sure changing "<" to "\<" and "" to "\" is recognizable to all browsers. It seems it is not necessary to do further encoding for "<" and "". Is there any suggestion on this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why is it not good to use $_SESSION in Restful Implementations?

    - by keisimone
    Original Question: i read that for RESTful websites. it is not good to use $_SESSION. Why is it not good? how then do i properly authenticate users without looking up database all the time to check for the user's roles? I read that it is not good to use $_SESSION. http://www.recessframework.org/page/towards-restful-php-5-basic-tips I am creating a WEBSITE, not web service in PHP. and i am trying to make it more RESTful. at least in spirit. right now i am rewriting all the action to use Form tags POST and add in a hidden value called _method which would be "delete" for deleting action and "put" for updating action. however, i am not sure why it is recommended NOT to use $_SESSION. i would like to know why and what can i do to improve. To allow easy authorization checking, what i did was to after logging in the user, the username is stored in the $_SESSION. Everytime the user navigates to a page, the page would check if the username is stored inside $_SESSION and then based on the $_SESSION retrieves all the info including privileges from the database and then evaluates the authorization to access the page based on the info retrieved. Is the way I am implementing bad? not RESTful? how do i improve performance and security? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Can I use a specific model from within a behavior in CakePHP?

    - by Paul Willy
    I'm trying to write a behavior that will give my models access to a simple workflow engine I've devised. The workflow engine itself works as a CakePHP model, with workflow data stored in the database just as any other model data is stored. Basically what I want to do is have the behavior use the workflow model whenever an action is called on the base model. For example, if the edit() action is executed for Posts, then the Post (with the behavior attached) will trigger the workflow behavior with its own model name, action, and id as arguments (e.g. [Post, edit, 1]). Then the behavior will invoke the functionality of the Workflow model, which has a record for what to do when edit is run on Posts (e.g. send e-mail to users who are subscribed to that post) and will carry that out. My question is, what is the proper way to invoke model/controller methods from within the behavior? The model to be used from within the behavior will always be Workflow, but the behavior should be usable from basically any model (aside from Workflow itself). I know I could run SQL queries directly from the behavior, but of course this is not the Cake way :-) Or, am I going about this in the wrong way? I want to store a certain amount of logic in the database so that it is easily configurable by different users, and not have endless configuration checks within the model/controller logic itself so that workflow steps can be easily added/changed/removed in the future.

    Read the article

  • Running migration on server when deploying with capistrano

    - by Pandafox
    Hi, I'm trying to deploy my rails application with capistrano, but I'm having some trouble running my migrations. In my development environment I just use sqlite as my database, but on my production server I use MySQL. The problem is that I want the migrations to run from my server and not my local machine, as I am not able to connect to my database from a remote location. My server setup: A debian box running ngnix, passenger, mysql and a git repository. What is the easiest way to do this? update: Here's my deploy script: set :application, "example.com" set :domain, "example.com" set :scm, :git set :repository, "[email protected]:project.git" set :use_sudo, false set :deploy_to, "/var/www/example.com" role :web, domain role :app, domain role :db, "localhost", :primary = true after "deploy", "deploy:migrate" When I run cap deploy, everything is working fine until it tries to run the migration. Here's the error I'm getting: ** [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2)) connection failed for: localhost (Errno::ECONNREFUSED: Connection refused - connect(2))) This is why I need to run the migration from the server and not from my local machine. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • proper use of volatile keyword

    - by luke
    I think i have a pretty good idea about the volatile keyword in java, but i'm thinking about re-factoring some code and i thought it would be a good idea to use it. i have a class that is basically working as a DB Cache. it holds a bunch of objects that it has read from a database, serves requests for those objects, and then occasionally refreshes the database (based on a timeout). Heres the skeleton public class Cache { private HashMap mappings =....; private long last_update_time; private void loadMappingsFromDB() { //.... } private void checkLoad() { if(System.currentTimeMillis() - last_update_time > TIMEOUT) loadMappingsFromDB(); } public Data get(ID id) { checkLoad(); //.. look it up } } So the concern is that loadMappingsFromDB could be a high latency operation and thats not acceptable, So initially i thought that i could spin up a thread on cache startup and then just have it sleep and then update the cache in the background. But then i would need to synchronize my class (or the map). and then i would just be trading an occasional big pause for making every cache access slower. Then i thought why not use volatile i could define the map reference as volatile private volatile HashMap mappings =....; and then in get (or anywhere else that uses the mappings variable) i would just make a local copy of the reference: public Data get(ID id) { HashMap local = mappings; //.. look it up using local } and then the background thread would just load into a temp table and then swap the references in the class HashMap tmp; //load tmp from DB mappings = tmp;//swap variables forcing write barrier Does this approach make sense? and is it actually thread-safe?

    Read the article

  • Best way to test a Delphi application

    - by Osama ALASSIRY
    I have a Delphi application that has many dependencies, and it would be difficult to refactor it to use DUnit (it's huge), so I was thinking about using something like AutomatedQA's TestComplete to do the testing from the front-end UI. My main problem is that a bugfix or new feature sometimes breaks old code that was previously tested (manually), and used to work. I have setup the application to use command-line switches to open-up a specific form that could be tested, and I can create a set of values and clicks needed to be done. But I have a few questions before I do anything drastic... (and before purchasing anything) Is it worth it? Would this be a good way to test? The result of the test should in my database (Oracle), is there an easy way in testcomplete to check these values (multiple fields in multiple tables)? I would need to setup a test database to do all the automated testing, would there be an easy way to automate re-setting the test db? Other than drop user cascade, create user,..., impdp. Is there a way in testcomplete to specify command-line parameters for an exe? Does anybody have any similar experiences.

    Read the article

  • g++ problem with -l option and PostgreSQL

    - by difek
    Hi I've written simple program. Here a code: #include <iostream> #include <stdio.h> #include <D:\Program Files\PostgreSQL\8.4\include\libpq-fe.h> #include <string> using namespace std; int main() { PGconn *conn; PGresult *res; int rec_count; int row; int col; cout << "ble ble: " << 8 << endl; conn = PQconnectdb("dbname=db_pm host=localhost user=postgres password=postgres"); if (PQstatus(conn) == CONNECTION_BAD) { puts("We were unable to connect to the database"); exit(0); } } I'm trying to connect with PostgreSQL. I compile this code with following command: gcc -I/"d:\Program Files\PostgreSQL\" -L/"d:\Program Files\PostgreSQL\8.4\lib\" -lpq -o firstcpp.o firstcpp.cpp This command is from following site: http://www.mkyong.com/database/how-to-building-postgresql-libpq-programs/ And when I compile it I get following error: /cygnus/cygwin-b20/H-i586-cygwin32/i586-cygwin32/bin/ld: cannot open -lpq: No such file or directory collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Does anyone help me? Difek

    Read the article

  • django class with an array of "parent" foreignkeys issue

    - by user298032
    Let's say I have a class called Fruit with child classes of the different kinds of Fruit with their own specific attributes, and I want to collect them in a FruitBasket: class Fruit(models.Model):     type = models.CharField(max_length=120,default='banana',choices=FRUIT_TYPES)     ... class Banana(Fruit):     """banana (fruit type)"""     length = models.IntegerField(blank=True, null=True)     ... class Orange(Fruit):     """orange (fruit type)"""     diameter = models.IntegerField(blank=True, null=True)     ... class FruitBasket(models.Model):     fruits = models.ManyToManyField(Fruit)     ... The problem I seem to be having is when I retrieve and inspect the Fruits in a FruitBasket, I only retrieve the Fruit base class and can't get at the Fruit child class attributes. I think I understand what is happening--when the array is retrieved from the database, the only fields that are retrieved are the Fruit base class fields. But is there some way to get the child class attributes as well without multiple expensive database transactions? (For example, I could get the array, then retrieve the child Fruit classes by the id of each array element). thanks in advance, Chuck

    Read the article

  • Core Data, Bindings, value transformers : crash when saving

    - by Gael
    Hi, I am trying to store a PNG image in a core data store backed by an sqlite database. Since I intend to use this database on an iPhone I can't store NSImage objects directly. I wanted to use bindings and an NSValueTransformer subclass to handle the transcoding from the NSImage (obtained by an Image well on my GUI) to an NSData containing the PNG binary representation of the image. I wrote the following code for the ValueTransformer : + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSImage class]; } + (BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return YES; } - (id)transformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; return [[[NSImage alloc] initWithData:value] autorelease]; } - (id)reverseTransformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; if(![value isKindOfClass:[NSImage class]]) { NSLog(@"Type mismatch. Expecting NSImage"); } NSBitmapImageRep *bits = [[value representations] objectAtIndex: 0]; NSData *data = [bits representationUsingType:NSPNGFileType properties:nil]; return data; } The model has a transformable property configured with this NSValueTransformer. In Interface Builder a table column and an image well are both bound to this property and both have the proper value transformer name (an image dropped in the image well shows up in the table column). The transformer is registered and called every time an image is added or a row is reloaded (checked with NSLog() calls). The problem arises when I am trying to save the managed objects. The console output shows the error message : [NSImage length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1004933a0 It seems like core data is using the value transformer to obtain the NSImage back from the NSData and then tries to save the NSImage instead of the NSData. There are probably workarounds such as the one presented in this post but I would really like to understand why my approach is flawn. Thanks in advance for your ideas and explanations.

    Read the article

  • Ruby array, javascript and json issue

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, I am unable to get a highcharts plugin to render a chart in a rails application: http://github.com/loudpixel/highcharts-rails I believe it has something to do with the sql queries to the database placed in a ruby array, which the javascript is unable to intepret. This is what I have: def panels pass = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 1') fail = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 2') student_data = [ {:name => 'Pass', :y => pass}, {:name => 'Fail', :y => fail} ] pie_label_formatter = ' function() { if (this.y > 15) return this.point.name; }' pie_tooltip_formatter = ' function() { return "<strong>" + this.point.name + "</strong>: " + this.y + " %"; }' @pie_chart = Highchart.pie({ :chart => { :renderTo => "pie-chart-container", :margin => [50, 30, 0, 30] }, :plotOptions => { :pie => { :dataLabels => { :formatter => pie_label_formatter, :style => { :textShadow => '#000000 1px 1px 2px' } } } }, :series => [ { :type => 'pie', :data => student_data } ], :subtitle => { :text => 'April 2010' }, :title => { :text => 'Student Status Chart' }, :tooltip => { :formatter => pie_tooltip_formatter }, }) Note if I put this: :data = student_data.to_json It actually returns a json string of my query as text in the browser. Also, if I hard code values (e.g. :y = 1), it will render the chart properly. However, any database query will not render the chart properly. So I'm not sure exactly what the issue is. Any suggestions? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Undefined method `add' on a cucumber step that usually works.

    - by Josiah Kiehl
    I have a path defined: when /the admin home\s?page/ "/admin/" I have scenario that is passing: Scenario: Let admins see the admin homepage Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" And I am on the admin home page Then I should see "Hi there." And I have a scenario that is failing: Scenario: Review flagged photo Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" ...bunch of steps that create stuff in the database... And I am on the admin home page Then ... the rest of the steps The step that fails in the second one is "And I am on the admin home page" which passes just fine in the first scenario. Here's the error I get: And I am on the admin home page # features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:18 undefined method `add' for {}:Hash (NoMethodError) ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:13:in `index' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `each' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `index' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/benchmark.rb:308:in `realtime' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:19:in `/^(?:|I )am on (.+)$/' features/admin.feature:52:in `And I am on the admin home page' This is very odd... why would it be fine in the first case, and not in the second where the only difference are a bunch of steps that create records in the db? [edit] Here's the add stuff to database step: Given /^there is a "([^\"]*)" with the following:$/ do |model, table| model.constantize.create!(table.rows_hash) end

    Read the article

  • Images from SQL Server JPG/PNG Image Column not being Type Converted to Bitmap in HttpHandlers (cons

    - by kanchirk
    Our Silverlight 3.0 Client consumes Images stored/retrieved on the File System thorough ASP.NET HttpHandlers successfully. We are trying to store and read back Images using a SQL Server 2008 Database. Please find the stripped down code pasted below with the Exception. "Bitmap is not Valid" //Store document to the database private void SaveImageToDatabaseKK(HttpContext context, string pImageFileName) { try { //ADO.NET Entity Framework ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); int intLength = Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length); //Move the file contents into the Byte array Byte[] arrContent = new Byte[intLength]; context.Request.InputStream.Read(arrContent, 0, intLength); //Insert record into the Document table documentDB.InsertDocument(pImageFileName, arrContent, intLength); } catch { } } =The method to Read Back the Row from the Table and Send it back is below.= private void RetrieveImageFromDatabaseTableKK(HttpContext context, string pImageName) { try { ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); var docRow = documentDB.GetDocument(pImageName); //based on Imagename which is unique //DocData column in table is **Image** if (docRow!=null && docRow.DocData != null && docRow.DocData.Length > 0) { Byte[] bytImage = docRow.DocData; if (bytImage != null && bytImage.Length > 0) { Bitmap newBmp = ConvertToBitmap(context, bytImage ); if (newBmp != null) { newBmp.Save(context.Response.OutputStream, ImageFormat.Jpeg); newBmp.Dispose(); } } } } catch (Exception exRI) { } } // Convert byte array to Bitmap (byte[] to Bitmap) protected Bitmap ConvertToBitmap(byte[] bmp) { if (bmp != null) { try { TypeConverter tc = TypeDescriptor.GetConverter(typeof(Bitmap)); Bitmap b = (Bitmap)tc.ConvertFrom(bmp); **//This is where the Exception Occurs.** return b; } catch (Exception) { } } return null; }

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC + Hibernate encoding problem

    - by Bar
    I work on Spring MVC + Hibernate application, use MySQL (ver. 5.0.51a) with the InnoDB engine. The problem appears when I am sending a form with cyrillic characters. As the result, database contains senseless chars in unknown encoding. All the JSP pages, database (+ tables and fields) created using UTF-8. Hibernate config also contains property which sets encoding to UTF-8. I had solved this by creating filter which encodes request content with UTF-8. Exemplary code: … encoding = "UTF-8"; request.setCharacterEncoding(encoding); chain.doFilter(request, response); … But it visibly slows down the app. The interesting thing is that executing insert query directly from the app (i.e. running from Eclipse as Java Application) works perfect. Any suggestions are welcome. TIA, Michael.

    Read the article

  • Can I stop the dbml designer from adding a connection string to the dbml file?

    - by drs9222
    We have a custom function AppSettings.GetConnectionString() which is always called to determine the connection string that should be used. How this function works is unimportant to the discussion. It suffices to say that it returns a connection string and I have to use it. I want my LINQ to SQL DataContext to use this so I removed all connection string informatin from the dbml file and created a partial class with a default constructor like this: public partial class SampleDataContext { public SampleDataContext() : base(AppSettings.GetConnectionString()) { } } This works fine until I use the designer to drag and drop a table into the diagram. The act of dragging a table into the diagram will do several unwanted things: A settings file will be created A app.config file will be created My dbml file will have the connection string embedded in it All of this is done before I even save the file! When I save the diagram the designer file is recreated and it will contain its own default constructor which uses the wrong connection string. Of course this means my DataContext now has two default constructors and I can't build anymore! I can undo all of these bad things but it is annoying. I have to manually remove the connection string and the new files after each change! Is there anyway I can stop the designer from making these changes without asking? EDIT The requirement to use the AppSettings.GetConnectionString() method was imposed on me rather late in the game. I used to use something very similar to what it generates for me. There are quite a few places that call the default constructor. I am aware that change them all to create the data context in another way (using a different constructor, static method, factory, ect..). That kind of change would only be slightly annoying since it would only have to be done once. However, I feel, that it is sidestepping the real issue. The dbml file and configuration files would still contain an incorrect, if unused, connection string which at best could confuse other developers.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 749 750 751 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760  | Next Page >