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• SQL Server 2005 standard filegroups / files for performance on SAN

  - by Blootac

  Ok so I've just been on a SQL Server course and we discussed the usage scenarios of multiple filegroups and files when in use over local RAID and local disks but we didn't touch SAN scenarios so my question is as follows; I currently have a 250 gig database running on SQL Server 2005 where some tables have a huge number of writes and others are fairly static. The database and all objects reside in a single file group with a single data file. The log file is also on the same volume. My interpretation is that separate data files should be used across different disks to lessen disk contention and that file groups should be used for partitioning of data. However, with a SAN you obviously don't really have the same issue of disk contention that you do with a small RAID setup (or at least we don't at the moment), and standard edition doesn't support partitioning. So in order to improve parallelism what should I do? My understanding of various Microsoft publications is that if I increase the number of data files, separate threads can act across each file separately. Which leads me to the question how many files should I have. One per core? Should I be putting tables and indexes with high levels of activity in separate file groups, each with the same number of data files as we have cores? Thank you

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• Correctly use dependency injection

  - by Rune

  Me and two other colleagues are trying to understand how to best design a program. For example, I have an interface ISoda and multiple classes that implement that interface like Coke, Pepsi, DrPepper, etc.... My colleague is saying that it's best to put these items into a database like a key/value pair. For example: Key | Name -------------------------------------- Coke | my.namespace.Coke, MyAssembly Pepsi | my.namespace.Pepsi, MyAssembly DrPepper | my.namespace.DrPepper, MyAssembly ... then have XML configuration files that map the input to the correct key, query the database for the key, then create the object. I don't have any specific reasons, but I just feel that this is a bad design, but I don't know what to say or how to correctly argue against it. My second colleague is suggesting that we micro-manage each of these classes. So basically the input would go through a switch statement, something similiar to this: ISoda soda; switch (input) { case "Coke": soda = new Coke(); break; case "Pepsi": soda = new Pepsi(); break; case "DrPepper": soda = new DrPepper(); break; } This seems a little better to me, but I still think there is a better way to do it. I've been reading up on IoC containers the last few days and it seems like a good solution. However, I'm still very new to dependency injection and IoC containers, so I don't know how to correctly argue for it. Or maybe I'm the wrong one and there's a better way to do it? If so, can someone suggest a better method? What kind of arguments can I bring to the table to convince my colleagues to try another method? What are the pros/cons? Why should we do it one way? Unfortunately, my colleagues are very resistant to change so I'm trying to figure out how I can convince them.

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• Formula parsing / evaluation routine or library with generic DLookup functionality

  - by tbone

  I am writing a .Net application where I must support user-defined formulas that can perform basic mathematics, as well as accessing data from any arbitrary table in the database. I have the math part working, using JScript Eval(). What I haven't decided on is what a nice way is to do the generic table lookups. For example, I may have a formula something like: Column: BonusAmount Formula: {CurrentSalary} * 1.5 * {[SystemSettings][Value][SettingName=CorpBonus AND Year={Year}]} So, in this example I would replace {xxx} and {Year} with the value of Column xxx from the current table, and I would replace the second part with the value of (select Value from SystemSettings WHERE SettingName='CorpBonus' AND Year=2008) So, basically, I am looking for something very much like the MS Access DLookup function: DLookup ( expression, domain, [criteria] ) DLookup("[UnitPrice]", "Order Details", "OrderID = 10248") But, I also need to overall parsing routine that can tell whether to just look up in the current row, or to look into another table. Would also be nice to support aggregate functions (ie: DAvg, DMax, etc), as well as all the weird edge cases handled. So I wonder if anyone knows of any sort of an existing library, or has a nice routine that can handle this formula parsing and database lookup / aggregate function resolution requirements.

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• Linq to SQL with INSTEAD OF Trigger and an Identity Column

  - by Bob Horn

  I need to use the clock on my SQL Server to write a time to one of my tables, so I thought I'd just use GETDATE(). The problem is that I'm getting an error because of my INSTEAD OF trigger. Is there a way to set one column to GETDATE() when another column is an identity column? This is the Linq-to-SQL: internal void LogProcessPoint(WorkflowCreated workflowCreated, int processCode) { ProcessLoggingRecord processLoggingRecord = new ProcessLoggingRecord() { ProcessCode = processCode, SubId = workflowCreated.SubId, EventTime = DateTime.Now // I don't care what this is. SQL Server will use GETDATE() instead. }; this.Database.Add<ProcessLoggingRecord>(processLoggingRecord); } This is the table. EventTime is what I want to have as GETDATE(). I don't want the column to be null. And here is the trigger: ALTER TRIGGER [Master].[ProcessLoggingEventTimeTrigger] ON [Master].[ProcessLogging] INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] ON; INSERT INTO ProcessLogging (ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, EventTime, LastModifiedUser) SELECT ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, GETDATE(), LastModifiedUser FROM inserted SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] OFF; END Without getting into all of the variations I've tried, this last attempt produces this error: InvalidOperationException Member AutoSync failure. For members to be AutoSynced after insert, the type must either have an auto-generated identity, or a key that is not modified by the database after insert. I could remove EventTime from my entity, but I don't want to do that. If it was gone though, then it would be NULL during the INSERT and GETDATE() would be used. Is there a way that I can simply use GETDATE() on the EventTime column for INSERTs? Note: I do not want to use C#'s DateTime.Now for two reasons: 1. One of these inserts is generated by SQL Server itself (from another stored procedure) 2. Times can be different on different machines, and I'd like to know exactly how fast my processes are happening.

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• Ideal Multi-Developer Lamp Stack?

  - by devians

  I would like to build an 'ideal' lamp development stack. Dual Server (Virtualised, ESX) Apache / PHP on one, Databases (MySQL, PgSQL, etc) on the other. User (Developer) Manageable mini environments, or instance. Each developer instance shares the top level config (available modules and default config etc) A developer should have control over their apache and php version for each project. A developer might be able to change minor settings, ie magicquotes on for legacy code. Each project would determine its database provider in its code The idea is that it is one administrate-able server that I can control, and provide globally configured things like APC, Memcached, XDebug etc. Then by moving into subsets for each project, i can allow my users to quickly control their environments for various projects. Essentially I'm proposing the typical system of a developer running their own stack on their own machine, but centralised. In this way I'd hope to avoid problems like Cross OS code problems, database inconsistencies, slightly different installs producing bugs etc. I'm happy to manage this in custom builds from source, but if at all possible it would be great to have a large portion of it managed with some sort of package management. We typically use CentOS, so yum? Has anyone ever built anything like this before? Is there something turnkey that is similar to what I have described? Are there any useful guides I should be reading in order to build something like this?

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• LINQ - How to query a range of effective dates that only has start dates

  - by itchi

  I'm using C# 3.5 and EntityFramework. I have a list of items in the database that contain interest rates. Unfortunately this list only contains the Effective Start Date. I need to query this list for all items within a range. However, I can't see a way to do this without querying the database twice. (Although I'm wondering if delayed execution with EntityFramework is making only one call.) Regardless, I'm wondering if I can do this without using my context twice. internal IQueryable<Interest> GetInterests(DateTime startDate, DateTime endDate) { var FirstDate = Context.All().Where(x => x.START_DATE < startDate).Max(x => x.START_DATE); IQueryable<Interest> listOfItems = Context.All().Where(x => x.START_DATE >= FirstDate && x.START_DATE <= endDate); return listOfItems; }

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• Stock management of assemblies and its sub parts

  - by The Disintegrator

  I have to track the stock of individual parts and kits (assemblies) and can't find a satisfactory way of doing this. Sample bogus and hyper simplified database: Table prod: prodID 1 prodName Flux capacitor prodCost 900 prodPrice 1350 (900*1.5) prodStock 3 - prodID 2 prodName Mr Fusion prodCost 300 prodPrice 600 (300*2) prodStock 2 - prodID 3 prodName Time travel kit prodCost 1650 (1350+300) prodPrice 2145 (1650*1.3) prodStock 2 Table rels relID 1 relSrc 1 (Flux capacitor) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) - relID 2 relSrc 2 (Mr Fusion) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) prodPrice: it's calculated based on the cost but not in a linear way. In this example for costs of 500 or less, the markup is a 200%. For costs of 500-1000 the markup is 150%. For costs of 1000+ the markup is 130% That's why the time travel kit is much cheaper than the individual parts prodStock: here is my problem. I can sell kits or the individual parts, So the stock of the kits is virtual. The problem when I buy: Some providers sell me the Time Travel kit as a whole (with one barcode) and some sells me the individual parts (with a different barcode) So when I load the stock I don't know how to impute it. The problem when I sell: If I only sell kits, calculate the stock would be easy: "I have 3 Flux capacitors and 2 Mr Fusions, so I have 2 Time travel kits and a Flux Capacitor" But I can sell Kits or individual parts. So, I have to track the stock of the individual parts and the possible kits at the same time (and I have to compensate for the sell price) Probably this is really simple, but I can't see a simple solution. Resuming: I have to find a way of tracking the stock and the database/program is the one who has to do it (I cant ask the clerk to correct the stock) I'm using php+MySql. But this is more a logical problem than a programing one

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• Webservice returning 403 error

  - by user48408

  I'm wondering whether I'm receiving the 403 errors because there are too many attempted connections being made to the webservice. If this is the case how do I get around it? I've tried creating a new instance of InternalWebService each time and disposing of the old one but I get the same problem. I've disabled the firewall and the webservice is located locally at the moment. I beginning to think it may be a problem with the credentials but the control tree is populated via the webservice at some stage. If I browse to the webmethods in my browser I can run them all. I return an instance of the webservice from my login handler loginsession.cs: static LoginSession() { ... g_NavigatorWebService = new InternalWebService(); g_NavigatorWebService.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; ... } public static InternalWebService NavigatorWebService { get { return g_NavigatorWebService; } } I have a tree view control which uses the webservice to populate itself. IncidentTreeViewControl.cs: public IncidentTreeView() { InitializeComponent(); m_WebService = LoginSession.NavigatorWebService; ... } public void Populate() { m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByClientComplete), null); m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByDepartment(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByDepartmentComplete), null); ... } private void IncidentSummaryByClientComplete(IAsyncResult ar) { MyTypedDataSet data = m_WebService.EndGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(ar); //403 ..cont... } I'm getting the 403 on the last line.

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• Proper DateTime Format for a Web Service

  - by user48408

  I have a webservice with a method which is called via a xmlhttprequest object in my javascript. The method accepts a datetime parameter which is subsequently converted to a string and run against the database to perform a calculation. I get the value from m_txtDateAdd and send off the xmlHttprequest <asp:textbox id=m_txtDateAdd tabIndex=4 runat="server" Width="96px" Text="<%# Today %>"> </asp:textbox> which has a validator attacted to it <asp:CustomValidator id="m_DateAddValidator" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Please Enter a Valid Date" ControlToValidate="m_txtDateAdd">&#x25CF;</asp:CustomValidator> My webmethod looks something like this [WebMethod] public decimal GetTotalCost(DateTime transactionDate) { String sqlDateString = transactionDate.Year+"/"+transactionDate.Month+"/"+transactionDate.Day; I use sqlDateString as part of the commandtext i send off to the database. Its a legacy application and its inline sql so I don't have the freedom to set up a stored procedure and create and assign parameters in my code behind. This works 90% of the time. The webservice is called on the onchange event of m_txtDateAdd. Every now and again the response i get from the server is System.ArgumentException: Cannot convert 25/06/2009 to System.DateTime. System.ArgumentException: Cannot convert 25/06/2009 to System.DateTime. Parameter name: type --- System.FormatException: String was not recognized as a valid DateTime. at System.DateTimeParse.Parse(String s, DateTimeFormatInfo dtfi, DateTimeStyles styles) at System.DateTime.Parse(String s, IFormatProvider provider) at System.Convert.ToDateTime(String value, IFormatProvider provider) at System.String.System.IConvertible.ToDateTime(IFormatProvider provider) at System.Convert.ChangeType(Object value, Type conversionType, IFormatProvider provider) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.ScalarFormatter.FromString(String value, Type type) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.Services.Protocols.ScalarFormatter.FromString(String value, Type type) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.ValueCollectionParameterReader.Read(NameValueCollection collection) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.HtmlFormParameterReader.Read(HttpRequest request) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.HttpServerProtocol.ReadParameters() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebServiceHandler.CoreProcessRequest()

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• MYSQL Merging 2 results into 1 table

  - by AlphaRomeo69

  Im building a c# program and am currently stuck at fetching data from MYSQL database and bind them to a grid view. I had been researching for a few days now but to no avail. I have 4 table in the database. table 1 - alpha table 2 - bravo table 3 - charlie table 4 - delta attributes of alpha (id, type, user, role ) attributes of bravo (id, type, date, user) attributes of charlie (id,type, cat, doneby, comment) atttibutes of delta (id,type, cat, doneby) * the pk of alpha and bravo is (id) * the pk of charlie and delta is (id, type) i did a query1 before by inner joinning alpha, bravo and charlie which leads to the sucessful result of (id, type, date, user, role, cat, doneby, comment) and i also did a query2 before by inner joinning alpha, bravo and delta which leads to the sucessful result of (id, type, date, user, role, cat, doneby) Right now, im trying to built a query3 which will merge the result from query1 and query2 together. the result of my attempts leads to (id, type, date, user, role, cat, doneby, comment,id, type, date, user, role, cat, doneby) As i do not want the repeated columns, I would like to seek advice on how to get the result to become like the one below by placing the records as a new tuple in the result table. (id, type, date, user, role, cat, doneby, comment) Thanks! P.S: the PK would not pose a problem due to (id, type)

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• Looking for a .Net ORM

  - by SLaks

  I'm looking for a .Net 3.5 ORM framework with a rather unusual set of requirements: I need to create and alter tables at runtime with schemas defined by my end-users. (Obviously, that wouldn't be strongly-typed; I'm looking for something like a DataTable there) I also want regular strongly-typed partial classes for rows in non-dynamic tables, with custom validation and other logic. (Like normal ORMs) I want to load the entire database (or some entire tables) once, and keep it in memory throughout the life of the (WinForms) GUI. (I have a shared SQL Server with a relatively slow connection) I also want regular LINQ support (like LINQ-to-SQL) for ASP.Net on the shared server (which has a fast connection to SQL Server) In addition to SQL Server, I also want to be able to use a single-file database that would support XCopy deployment (without installing SQL CE on the end-user's machine). (Probably Access or SQLite) Finally, it has to be free (unless it's OpenAccess) I'll probably have to write it myself, as I don't think there is an existing ORM that meets these requirements. However, I don't want to re-invent the wheel if there is one, hence this question. I'm using VS2010, but I don't know when my webhost (LFC) will upgrade to .Net 4.0

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• Python: How to execute a SQL file or command

  - by Mestika

  Hi, I have this Python script: import sys import getopt import timeit import random import os import re import ibm_db import time from string import maketrans runs=5 queries=50 file = open("results.txt", "a") for r in range(5): print "Run %s\n" % r os.system("python reads.py -r1 -pquery1.sql -q50 -sespec") file.write('END QUERY READ 01') file.close() os.system("python query_read_02.py") Everything here is working, it is creating the results.txt file, it run the os.system("python reads.py...") file and that file is doing everything it's suppose to, but the problem comes when go and run the query_read_02.py file. In this file, it should execute a SQL command or a SQL file on my database, so I can create an index and see what the performance of that input is, but how do i do it? I create the connection to the database in the reads.py file, but it's hard to create the queries in there because I doesn't keep track of which file it has reached, it just execute commands from what the parameters are. I hope I've explained myself clear enough, otherwise please let me know. I just want to execute a SQL command or file which each query_read_0x.py file. Sincerely Mestika

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• How to completely wipe a previous ClickOnce installation?

  - by Dabblernl

  I have a curious problem: My app is distributed through ClickOnce. I recently installed three new clients on a new location. They worked. After an update however, all old clients worked fine, but the three new clients did not. As my code is swallowing an exception somewhere I have been unable thusfar to pinpoint where the error lies. When I XCopy the latest version of the app to the desktop of the three new client computers the program works fine. So, I thought uninstalling and reinstalling the program from the download location should fix the problem, but it does not! I can think of two explanations: The new location has some firewall/virusscanner in place that doesn't like the latest version of my app when it is run from a standard ClickOnce directory, but it allows execution from the desktop. Some old settings (the app uses user scoped and app scoped settings) remain in effect after the uninstall. When I find and check the user.config file for the app however, I find no incorrect setttings there. Thusfar, I have been unable to reproduce the error on any other machine. How can I solve this!?

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• pylons on production server fedora 8

  - by stormdrain

  I'm interested in learning some python, and thought Pylons would be a good starting point (after spending 2 days trying to get django working -- to no avail). I have an Amazon EC2 instance with Fedora 8 on it. It is a bare-bones install. I am halfway through my second day of trying to get it to work. I have mod_wsgi installed. I have Apache (though that's a later task to tackle). I have easy_install, paster is working fine; basically all of the pre-requisites mentioned throughout the Pylons docs. I can't for the life of me get the thing to work. And I can't seem to find a coherent walkthough anywhere that lists all the steps necessary. There is tons of info out there, but it is all scattered. Wsgi this, python that. Google, google, google... "47 million results found for 'socket.error:(lol, 'Yous a goofs')". So, this is my latest attempt: apachectl -k stop cd /home/ paster create -t pylons test [blah blah.. ok] cd test nano development.ini [hmm, last time I changed the host from 127.0.0.1 to my domain name or url, it threw an error like socket.error: (99, 'Cannot assign requested address')... I'll just leave it] [open port 5000 on firewall] paster serve development.ini [firefox-url:5000] Firefox can't establish a connection to the server Doing these steps locally works as expected. This is just a test to see if I can get it to work at all, which I can't. If I get it to work, then is the task of getting it to work with apache. My madness is that I'd like to play around a little developing and deploying before diving into a full-fledged project. So far: self, I am dissapoint.

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• In Seam what's the difference between injected EntityManager and getEntityManager from EntityHome

  - by Navi

  I am testing a Seam application using the needle test API. In my code I am using the getEntityManager() method from EntityHome. When I run the unit tests against an in memory database I get the following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No application context active at org.jboss.seam.Component.forName(Component.java:1945) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:2005) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1983) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1977) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1972) at org.jboss.seam.framework.Controller.getComponentInstance(Controller.java:272) at org.jboss.seam.framework.PersistenceController.getPersistenceContext(PersistenceController.java:20) at org.jboss.seam.framework.EntityHome.getEntityManager(EntityHome.java:177) etc .. I can resolve some of these errors by injecting the EntityManager with @In EntityManager entityManager; Unfortunately the persist method of EntityHome also calls the getEntityManager. This means a lot of mocks or rewriting the code somehow. Is there any workaround and why is this exception thrown anyway? I am using Seam 2.2.0 GA by the way. There is nothing special about the components. They are generated by seam-gen. The test is performed with in memory database - I followed the examples in http://jbosscc-needle.sourceforge.net/jbosscc-needle/1.0/db-util.html.

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• Dynamic Google Maps API InfoWindow HTML Content

  - by Peter Hanneman

  I am working in Flash Builder 4 with Google Map's ActionScript API. I have created a map, loaded some custom markers onto it and added some MouseEvent listeners to each marker. The trouble comes when I load an InfoWindow panel. I want to dynamically set the htmlContent based off of information stored in a database. The trouble is that this information can change every couple of seconds and each marker has a unique data set so I can not statically set it at the time I actually create the markers. I have a method that will every minute or so load all of the records from my database into an Object variable. Everything I need to display in the htmlContent is contained in this object under a unique identifier. The basic crux of the problem is that there is no way for me to uniquely identify an info window, so I can not determine what information to pull into the panel. marker.addEventListener(MapMouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, function(e:MapMouseEvent):void { showInfoWindow(e.latLng) }, false, 0, false); That is my mouse event listener. The function I call, "showInfowindow" looks like this: private function showInfoWindow(latlng:LatLng):void { var options:InfoWindowOptions = new InfoWindowOptions({title: appData[*I NEED A UNIQUE ID HERE!!!*].type + " Summary", contentHTML: appData[*I NEED A UNIQUE ID HERE!!!*].info}); this.map.openInfoWindow(latlng, options); } I thought I was onto something by being able to pass a variable in my event listener declaration, but it simply hates having a dynamic variable passed through, it only returns the last value use. Example: marker.addEventListener(MapMouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, function(e:MapMouseEvent):void { showInfoWindow(e.latLng, record.unit_id) }, false, 0, false); That solution is painfully close to working. I iterate through a loop to create my markers when I try the above solution and roll over a marker I get information, but every marker's information reflects whatever information the last marker created had. I apologize for the long explaination but I just wanted to make my question as clear as possible. Does anyone have any ideas about how to patch up my almost-there-solution that I posted at the bottom or any from the ground up solutions? Thanks in advance, Peter Hanneman

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• How can I store HTML in a Doctrine YML fixture

  - by argibson

  I am working with a CMS-type site in Symfony 1.4 (Doctrine 1.2) and one of the things that is frustrating me is not being able to store HTML pages in YML fixtures. Instead I have to create SQL backups of the data if I want to drop and rebuild which is a bit of a pest when Symfony/Doctrine has a fantastic mechanism for doing exactly this. I could write a mechanism that reads in a set of HTML files for each page and fills the data in that way (or even write it as a task). But before I go down that road I am wondering if there is any way for HTML to be stored in a YML fixture so that Doctrine can simply import it into the database. Update: I have tried using symfony doctrine:data-dump and symfony doctrine:data-load however despite the dump correctly creating the fixture with the HTML, the load task appears to 'skip' the value of the column with the HTML and enters everything else into the row. In the database the field doesn't show up as 'NULL' but rather empty so I believe Doctrine is adding the value of the column as ''. Below is a sample of the YML fixture that symfony doctrine:data-dump created. I have tried running symfony doctrine:data-load against various forms of this including removing all the escaped characters (new lines and quotes leaving only angle brackets) but it still doesn't work. Product_69: name: 'My Product' Developer: Developer_30 tagline: 'Text that briefly describes the product' version: '2008' first_published: '' price_code: A79 summary: '' box_image: '' description: "<div id=\"featureSlider\">\n <ul class=\"slider\">\n <li class=\"sliderItem\" title=\"Summary\">\n <div class=\"feature\">\n Some text goes in here</div>\n </li>\n </ul>\n </div>\n" is_visible: true

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• ObjC: Alloc instance of Class and performing selectors on it leads to __CFRequireConcreteImplementat

  - by Arakyd

  Hi, I'm new to Objective-C and I'd like to abstract my database access using a model class like this: @interface LectureModel : NSMutableDictionary { } -(NSString*)title; -(NSDate*)begin; ... @end I use the dictionary methods setValue:forKey: to store attributes and return these in the getters. Now I want to read these models from a sqlite database by using the Class dynamically. + (NSArray*)findBySQL:(NSString*)sql intoModelClass:(Class)modelClass { NSMutableArray* models = [[[NSMutableArray alloc] init] autorelease]; sqlite3* db = sqlite3_open(...); sqlite3_stmt* result = NULL; sqlite3_prepare_v2(db, [sql UTF8String], -1, &result, NULL); while(sqlite3_step(result) == SQLITE_ROW) { id modelInstance = [[modelClass alloc] init]; for (int i = 0; i < sqlite3_column_count(result); ++i) { NSString* key = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:sqlite3_column_name(result, i)]; NSString* value = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(const char*)sqlite3_column_text(result, i)]; if([modelInstance respondsToSelector:@selector(setValue:forKey:)]) [modelInstance setValue:value forKey:key]; } [models addObject:modelInstance]; } sqlite3_finalize(result); sqlite3_close(db); return models; } Funny thing is, the respondsToSelector: works, but if I try (in the debugger) to step over [modelInstance setValue:value forKey:key], it will throw an exception, and the stacktrace looks like: #0 0x302ac924 in ___TERMINATING_DUE_TO_UNCAUGHT_EXCEPTION___ #1 0x991d9509 in objc_exception_throw #2 0x302d6e4d in __CFRequireConcreteImplementation #3 0x00024d92 in +[DBManager findBySQL:intoModelClass:] at DBManager.m:114 #4 0x0001ea86 in -[FavoritesViewController initializeTableData:] at FavoritesViewController.m:423 #5 0x0001ee41 in -[FavoritesViewController initializeTableData] at FavoritesViewController.m:540 #6 0x305359da in __NSFireDelayedPerform #7 0x302454a0 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific #8 0x30244628 in CFRunLoopRunInMode #9 0x32044c31 in GSEventRunModal #10 0x32044cf6 in GSEventRun #11 0x309021ee in UIApplicationMain #12 0x00002988 in main at main.m:14 So, what's wrong with this? Presumably I'm doing something really stupid and just don't see it... Many thanks in advance for your answers, Arakyd :..

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• How to remove the error "Cant find PInvoke DLL SQLite.interop.dll"

  - by Shailesh Jaiswal

  I am developing windows mobile application. I am using the SQLlite database. I am using the following code to connect to this database as follows SQLiteConnection cn = new SQLiteConnection(); SQLiteDataReader SQLiteDR; cn.ConnectionString = @"Data Source=F:\CompNetDB.db3"; cn.Open(); SQLiteCommand cmd = new SQLiteCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "select * from CustomerInfo"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.Connection = cn; SQLiteDR = cmd.ExecuteReader(); In the above case I am getting the error "Cant find PInvike DLL SQLite.interop.dll". I have added the DLL System.Data.SQLLite from the \SQLite.NET\bin\compactframework this folder. This is the folder which is installed by default when I installed the SQLite. In the same folder there is one DLL file named SQLlite.Interop.66.DLL. When I try to add reference to this dll it is giving error that dll can not be added. Are the two dlls SQLlite.Interop.dll & System.Interop.066.dll same ? In the above code how to solve the error "Cant find PInvoke.SQLite.Interop.dll" Please can you tell whether there is mistake in my code or I am missing something in my application?

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• SQL Stored Queries - use result of query as boolean based on existence of records

  - by Christian Mann

  Just getting into SQL stored queries right now... anyway, here's my database schema (simplified for YOUR convenience): member ------ id INT PK board ------ id INT PK officer ------ id INT PK If you're into OOP, Officer Inherits Board Inherits Member. In other words, if someone is listed on the officer table, s/he is listed on the board table and the member table. I want to find out the highest privilege level someone has. So far my SP looks like this: DELIMITER // CREATE PROCEDURE GetAuthLevel(IN targetID MEDIUMINT) BEGIN IF SELECT `id` FROM `member` WHERE `id` = targetID; THEN IF SELECT `id` FROM `board` WHERE `id` = targetID; THEN IF SELECT `id` FROM `officer` WHERE `id` = targetID; THEN RETURN 3; /*officer*/ ELSE RETURN 2; /*board member*/ ELSE RETURN 1; /*general member*/ ELSE RETURN 0; /*not a member*/ END // DELIMITER ; The exact text of the error is #1064 - You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'SELECT id FROM member WHERE id = targetID; THEN IF SEL' at line 4 I suspect the issue is in the arguments for the IF blocks. What I want to do is return true if the result-set is at least one -- i.e. the id was found in the table. Do any of you guys see anything to do here, or should I reconsider my database design into this:? person ------ id INT PK level SMALLINT

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• PHP: Array of objects is empty when I come to retrieve one from the array

  - by Tom

  Good morning, I am trying to load rows from a database and then create objects from them and add these objects to a private array. Here are my classes: <?php include("databaseconnect.php"); class stationItem { private $code = ''; private $description = ''; public function setCode($code ){ $this->code = $code; } public function getCode(){ return $this->code; } public function setDescription($description){ $this->description = $description; } public function getDescription(){ return $this->description; } } class stationList { private $stationListing; function __construct() { connect(); $stationListing = array(); $result = mysql_query('SELECT * FROM stations'); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $station = new stationItem(); $station->setCode($row['code']); $station->setDescription($row['description']); array_push($stationListing, $station); } mysql_free_result($result); } public function getStation($index){ return $stationListing[$index]; } } ?> As you can see I am creating a stationItem object per database row (which for now has a code and description) and I then push these on to the end of my array which is held as a private variable in stationList. This is code which creates this classes and attempts to access the properties on them: $stations = new stationList(); $station = $stations->getStation(0); echo $station->getCode(); I am finding that the sizeof($stationList) at the end of the constructor is 1 but then it is zero when we come to try to get an object from the array using the index. Therefore the error that I get is: Fatal error: Call to a member function getCode() on a non-object Please can someone explain to me why this is happening? I guess I am misunderstanding how object references work in PHP5.

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• Should I be relying on WebTests for data validation?

  - by Alexander Kahoun

  I have a suite of web tests created for a web service. I use it for testing a particular input method that updates a SQL Database. The web service doesn't have a way to retrieve the data, that's not its purpose, only to update it. I have a validator that validates the response XML that the web service generates for each request. All that works fine. It was suggested by a teammate that I add data validation so that I check the database to see the data after the initial response validator runs and compare it with what was in the input request. We have a number of services and libraries that are separate from the web service I'm testing that I can use to get the data and compare it. The problem is that when I run the web test the data validation always fails even when the request succeeds. I've tried putting the thread to sleep between the response validation and the data validation but to no avail; It always gets the data from before the response validation. I can set a break point and visually see that the data has been updated in the DB, funny thing is when I step through it in debug with the breakpoint it does validate successfully. Before I get too much more into this issue I have to ask; Is this the purpose of web tests? Should I be able to validate data through service calls in this manner or am I asking too much of a web test and the response validation is as far as I should go?

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• Stored procedure strange error when called through php

  - by ravi

  I have been coding a registration page(login system) in php and mysql for a website. I'm using two stored procedures for the same. First stored procedure checks wether the email address already exists in database.Second one inserts the user supplied data into mysql database. User has EXECUTE permission on both the procedures.When is execute them individually from php script they work fine. But when i use them together in script second Stored procedure(insert) not working. Stored procedure 1. DELIMITER $$ CREATE PROCEDURE reg_check_email(email VARCHAR(80)) BEGIN SET @email = email; SET @sql = 'SELECT email FROM user_account WHERE user_account.email=?'; PREPARE stmt FROM @sql; EXECUTE stmt USING @email; END$$ DELIMITER; Stored procedure 2 DELIMITER $$ CREATE PROCEDURE reg_insert_into_db(fname VARCHAR(40), lname VARCHAR(40), email VARCHAR(80), pass VARBINARY(32), licenseno VARCHAR(80), mobileno VARCHAR(10)) BEGIN SET @fname = fname, @lname = lname, @email = email, @pass = pass, @licenseno = licenseno, @mobileno = mobileno; SET @sql = 'INSERT INTO user_account(email,pass,last_name,license_no,phone_no) VALUES(?,?,?,?,?)'; PREPARE stmt FROM @sql; EXECUTE stmt USING @email,@pass,@lname,@licenseno,@mobileno; END$$ DELIMITER; When i test these from php sample script insert is not working , but first stored procedure(reg_check_email()) is working. If i comment off first one(reg_check_email), second stored procedure(reg_insert_into_db) is working fine. <?php require("/wamp/mysql.inc.php"); $r = mysqli_query($dbc,"CALL reg_check_email('[email protected]')"); $rows = mysqli_num_rows($r); if($rows == 0) { $r = mysqli_query($dbc,"CALL reg_insert_into_db('a','b','[email protected]','c','d','e')"); } ?> i'm unable to figure out the mistake. Thanks in advance, ravi.

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• Websql to google maps markers

  - by Roy van Neden

  I am busy with my web application for a school project. It has has two pages. The first page uploads the location(latitude and longitude), price, date and kind of fuel. It works and i saved it with websql.(see screenshot) Now i want to get everything out of the web database and put it as a marker on my google maps card. I have my own location already. But i dont know how to get everything from the database to the map as a marker. I'm using jquery mobile/html5/css/javascript only. Code to put it in a array or something else that will work. db.transaction(function(tx){ tx.executeSql('SELECT brandstofsoort, literprijs, datum, latitude, longitude FROM brandstofstatus', [], function (tx, results) { var lengte = results.rows.length, i; for(var i = 0; i< lengte; i++){ var locations = [ [ ], [ ], [ ], [ ], [ ] ]; } // / for loop });// /tx.executeSql });// /db.transaction Thanks in advance!

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• [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified - works

  - by Matt

  Hello, I am developing a java app (with odbc bridge - forgive me - the only paradox driver I have been able to obtain is the microsoft odbc driver) - which works fine while in eclipse, (and netbeans) - connecting and obtaining data from an ancient paradox 5.x database. So long as it is run from inside my IDE - it compiles and runs flawlessly. When I export it to a runable jar, suddenly [code][Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified[/code] occurs. The jar is being run on the same box as my developing IDE - so I am confused about the cause. It is being run via console from a user account, as per the IDE. My connection string is "jdbc:odbc:Driver={Microsoft Paradox Driver (*.db )};DriverID=538; Fil=Paradox 5.X; DefaultDir=C:\paradox\database\location\" - obtained from connectionstrings.com - and as mentioned before, working fine while run from the IDE. The above seems to 'magically' create its own connection, avoiding the setup of a dsn - I am unsure quite how it does - but it works. The only other thing I can think that might be pertinent is that my PC is a 64bit o/s (windows server 2008). Please help, any suggestions or comments will be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Matt

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